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Step 2 Question Review > UWorld Q's > Flashcards

UWorld Q's Flashcards

1
Q

2 years post kidney transplant, now has resistant hypertension, dx?

A

Most likely transplant renal artery stenosis

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2
Q

Woman has mullerian agenesis, also must check for what? By what?

A

Renal abnormalities by renal US

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3
Q

Conservative tx of uncomplicated kidney stones

A

hydration, analgesics, alpha blockers

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4
Q

AIDS patient with diffuse, non tender lymphadenopathy; night sweats
CD4 208, undetectable viral load, medication compliant
Vitals T 100.2, BP WNL, pulse 102
CXR enlarged cardiac silhouette

Dx? Etiology?

A

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma due to reactivation of EBV

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5
Q

Otitis externa tx?

A

Topical cipro

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6
Q 
Aplastic anemia
Bleeding gums
Fatigue
Failure to thrive and short
Hypoplastic thumbs

Dx? D/t?

A

Fanconi anemia due to DNA repair defect

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7
Q

CGD diagnostic tests

A

Dihydrorhodamine test

Nitro blue tetrazolium test

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8
Q

Euthyroid sick syndrome features

What is it

A

Decreased peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
Initially only low T3
Prolonged/ severe: low T3, T4, TSH

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9
Q

T1DM wants to run a marathon, how will you change his insulin?

A

Decrease

Exercise induced hypoglycemia

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10
Q

Elevated AFP, what produces it?

A

Fetal liver and yolk sac

Look for those cancers

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11
Q

Diagnostics for UTI in kids

A

Renal and bladder ultrasound THEN voiding cystourethrogram

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12
Q

Acute epididymitis etiology:

<35 y/o
>35 y/o

A

<35: sexually transmitted (chlamydia, gonorrhea)

> 35: bladder outlet obstruction (E coli)

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13
Q

Sounds like testicular torsion but patient is able to resolve without intervention, dx?

A

Intermittent torsion

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14
Q

4 month hx of achy joint pain
Pain increases with activity
Excessive sweating, poly uric, erectile dysfunction
Macroglossia, increased interdental spacing
XR of hand: widening of the joint spaces, osteophytes, thickened soft tissues
Lab: low T, hyperglycemia

Dx?

A

Acromegaly

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15
Q

Baby has erythematous popular rash on occluded and intertriginous areas

Dx? D/t?

A

Miliaria rubra due to overheating and overbundling

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16
Q 
Hx of poorly controlled T2DM, hypertension
Persistent hyperkalemia
BP 150/90
Na 136
Cl 108
Bicarbonate 18

Dx?

A

Type IV Renal Tubular Acidosis

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17
Q

T1DM, what other autoimmune dz do they probably have?

A

Celiac

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18
Q

14 y/o female presents with symmetric arthritis is ankles, knees, elbows, wrists for 3 months. Tx?

A

Naproxen, NSAIDS

May need immunomodulators like MTX later

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19
Q

Prosthetic joint infection etiology

<3 month

A

S. Aureus, gram neg rods, anaerobes

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20
Q

Prosthetic joint infection

3-12 months

A

Coagulate negative staph
Propionibacterium
Enterococcus

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21
Q

Prosthetic joint infection

>12 months

A

S. Aureus
Gram negative rods
Beta hemolytic strep

Due to recent infection at a distal site

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22
Q

Omphalocele
Macrosomia
Macroglossia

Dx?

A

Beck with-Weidemann syndrome

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23
Q

What nonopioid can you give in opioid withdrawal?

A

Clonidine

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24
Q 
2 day old, not feeding or sleeping well
High pitched cry
Tremors/seizures
Autonomic dysfunction
Tachypnea, vomiting, diarrhea

Dx?

A

Neonatal abstinence syndrome

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25
Q

What is a hepatic hydrothorax

A

Transudative pleural effusion, due to small defects in diaphragm, permits peritoneal fluid to pass into pleural space, Mc on right side

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26
Q

Absent uterus

No pubic or axillary hair

A

Androgen insensitivity syndrome

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27
Q

Absent uterus

Tanner stage 4 or 5 pubic hair, has axilliary hair

A

Mullerian agensis

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28
Q

Bad side effect of PTU and methimazole

How will you know they have it

Tx?

A

Agranulocytosis

Sore throat, fever

Stop drug ASAP

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29
Q

How to diagnosis psychogenic nonepileptic seizures

A

Video EEG

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30
Q

Renal biopsy of Alport syndrome

A

Longitudinal splitting of GBM

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31
Q

Primary polycythemia: EPO high or low

A

Low

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32
Q

Secondary polycythemia: EPO high or low?

A

High

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33
Q

Earliest sign of burn wound infection

A

Change in appearance

Partial thickness to full thickness

34
Q

Burn wound sepsis systemic findings

A

T <36.5 C or >39 C
Progressive tachycardia
Progressive tachypnea
Refractory hypotension

35
Q 
Painless lymphadenopathy
Mediastinal mass
Pruritus
Eosinophilia
Elevated LDH

Dx?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

36
Q

How to confirm neonatal abstinence syndrome

A

Urine drug screen

37
Q

Tx for toxic shock syndrome

A

Clindamycin and Vancomycin

38
Q

How to prevent febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

A

Leukoreduction of blood products

39
Q

Diagnostic work up of proteinuria; initial step

A

First morning urine protein/Cr ratio

40
Q

Most common cause of newborn with 46 XX and ambiguous genitalia

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

41
Q

Confirmation test for disseminated histoplasmosis

A

Serum or urine Histoplasma antigen immunoassay

42
Q

Felty syndrome

A

RA + neutropenia + splenomegaly

43
Q

Do you need antibiotics for campylobacter gastroenteritis?

A

No

Unless severe: >7 days, bloody stools, high fevers or i/c, pregnant

44
Q

Metaphysical widening wit cuppping and fraying on X-ray

Dx?

A

Nutritional rickets

45
Q

History of gastrectomy
Glossitis

Now has anemia, increase LDH, increase indirect bilirubin

A

B12 deficiency

46
Q

Holly stolid murmur and thrill along left stern along border, what is the heart defect?

A

VSD

47
Q

Which way shunting in VSD early on?

A

Left to Right

48
Q

Mom had VZV at delivery, what to do for infant?

A

Isolate and give VZV Ig

49
Q 
Old
Weight loss
Constant epigastric pain
Smoking hx
Recent dx of DM

Dx?

A

Pancreatic cancer

50
Q

HepB is associated with what kidney thing

A

Membranous nephropathy

51
Q

What class of anti arrhythmic drugs cause PR prolonged

A

CCB and beta blockers

52
Q

What class of antiarrhythmics cause QRS prolong

A

Class IA and IC (Na channel blockers)

53
Q

What class of antiarrhythmic drugs cause QT prolong

A

Class IA and III, K channel block

54
Q

What study to get in restless leg syndrome

A

Iron studies

55
Q

Risk for PACs

A

Tobacco, alcohol, caffeine, stress

56
Q

What should you empirically treat in a patient with a smoke inhalation injury

A

Cyanide toxicity

57
Q

What does ANOVA compare?

A

> 3 independent groups

58
Q

Define Absolute risk reduction

A

Percentage indicating actual difference in event rate between control and treatment

59
Q

Define relative risk reduction

A

Percentage indicating relative reduction in the treatment event rate compare to control group

60
Q

Define relative risk

A

Ratio of probability of an event occurring in the treatment group compared to the control group

61
Q

Ways to calculate RRR

A

RRR=ARR/Risk control

Or

RRR=1-RR

62
Q

Define response bias

A

In cross-sectional students, participants purposely give desirable responses to questions about topics perceived to be sensitive

63
Q

Definite admission rate bias

A

Occurs when a distortion in the risk ration exists due to hospitals’ differing admission rates for certain cases

Ex: hospital has a specialized cardiology service, so they get more cardio patients

64
Q

Define attributable risk percentages

A

Percentage of disease in an exposed group that can be attributes to expose

65
Q

2 Calculation for ARP

A

(Risk exposed -Risk non exposed) / Risk exposed

Or

ARP = (RR-1)/RR

66
Q

Define attrition bias

A

Unequal loss of participants from study in follow-up

67
Q

What is Type 1 error (alpha)

A

Probability of rejecting a null hypothesis that is true

False positive

You say there is a difference when there isn’t

68
Q

What is Type 2 error (beta)

A

Not rejecting the null hypothesis when it’s actually false

False negative

You said there was no difference, when there was

69
Q

What analysis technique should you use for
1 quantitative dependent (outcome) variable
>/=1 independent (explanatory) variable

A

Linear regression

Or correlation

70
Q

What analysis technique should you use for
Qualitative dependent variable
Qualitative independent variable

A

Chi square
Or
Logistic regression

71
Q

What analysis technique should you use for
Qualitative dependent variable
Quantitative independent variable

A

Logistic regression

72
Q

What analysis technique should you use for
Quantitative dependent variable
Qualitative independent variable

A

T test
ANOVA
Linear regression

73
Q

What is the dependent variable

A

The outcome

74
Q

What is the independent variable

A

The explanatory

75
Q

Define Berkson bias

A

Disease studied using only hospital-based patients may lead to results not applicable to target population

76
Q

Define Neyman bias

A

AKA Prevalence bias

Exposures that happen long before disease assessment can cause study to miss deceased patients that die early or recover

77
Q

Define attrition bias

A

Significant loss of study participants may cause bias if those lost to follow up differ significantly from remaining subjects

78
Q

Types of selection bias

A 
Ascertainment (sampling)
nonresponse
Berkson
Neyman (prevalence)
Attrition
79
Q

Types of Observational bias

A

Recall
Observer
Reporting
Surveillance

80
Q

What is a per-protocol analysis

A

Compadres treatment groups by including ONLY those participants who STRICTLY ADHERED AND COMPLETED THE PROTOCOL

81
Q

What is the intention-to-treat principle

A

Analysis includes all participants as initially allocated after randomization regardless of what happens (dropouts)

Step 2 Question Review (5 decks)

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