Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Surgery > UWORLD pearls > Flashcards

UWORLD pearls Flashcards

1
Q

Who gets an abdominal ultrasound for screening for AAA?

A

Men 65-75 w/ h/o smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Intermittent claudication next step?

A

ABI

</= 0.90 is diagnostic of occlusive PAD in symptomatic patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Trauma guy who has an elevated pulmonary capillary wedge pressure after fluids (14–22!)?

A

Myocardial contusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Knee total replacement then has infection 6 months later

A

Staph epidermidis

If it were more acute, more likely staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

First diagnostic test for upper vs. lower GI bleed?

A

Fluids…and
NG suction gives bilious fluid, but NO BLOOD= lower GI

Then you do colonscopy to look for source.

If that’s negative, labeled erythrocyte scintiscan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Patient with an acute spinal cord injury needs what after ABCs and spine immobilization?

A

Bladder cath!

“Pt has abdominal pain”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Crohn’s patient gets a kidney stone…why?

A

Increased absorption of oxalate.

Terminal ileum not absorbing fatty acids like they normally do. So unabsorbed fatty acids reach colon, combine with calcium, then free oxalate is absorbed.
Too much oxalate in body, so kidney tries to pee it out and when it gets there it binds up Ca–> calcium oxalate stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Acalculous cholecystitis?

A

Severely ill ICU patients with severe trauma, burns sepsis, or prolonged TPN

Dx: Gallbladder wall thickening and distention in the presence of pericholecystic fluid

Rx: Abx + percutaneous cholecystostomy…then cholecystectomy when condition stabilizes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Diverticulosis vs. diverticulitis sx?

A

Osis has PAINLESS (usually) bleeding

-itis has abdominal pain, fever but usually no bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Classic presentation for acute epidural hematoma?

A

UNCONSCIOUSNESS–>lucid interval–>n/v/ha/seizure/deterioration of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Contained aortic rupture

A

Widened mediastinum + L-sided hemothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Colonic ischemia facts?

A
  • After AAA repair, iliac repair
  • CT scan- thickening of bowel wall
  • Colonoscopy- cyanotic mucosa with hemorrhagic ulcerations

Distal L colon MC affected

IMA is usually ligated during the AAA repair. If bowel ischemia is discovered DURING the procedure, the IMA should be reimplanted into the graft to restore flow.
(This ischemia often from poor collateral flow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Breast lesion causing intermittent bloody unilateral nipple discharge?

A

Intraductal papilloma

1cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Trauma patient with hypotension/tachycardia but normal hemoglobin?

A

HGB READING DOES NOT HELP YOU… it doesn’t exclude internal hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

For appendiceal abcess what do you do?

A

If they’re CLINICALLY STABLE

  • IV ABX
  • Bowel rest
  • Maybe percutaneous drainage
  • Appendectomy 6-8wks LATER to let inflammation calm down
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Posterior shoulder dislocation how they hold arm? Rx?

A

Adducted and internally rotated. Won’t move outwards.

-Closed reduction (in OR or ED)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

WHAT ACTUALLY HAPPENS WITH ATELECTASIS?

A

The V/Q mismatch leads to hypoxemia.
WOB increased so patient hyperventilates

pH higher (7.5), PO2 too low, pCO2 low (breathing it off)

HAPPENS FROM THE 2ND-5TH DAYS POST-OP…not that mnemonic

Especially common after ABDOMINAL surgeries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Guy being treated for furuncles with a psoas sign?

A

Psoas abcess from hematogenous spread or contiguous spread of bacteria.
GET CT SCAN TO CONFIRM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Lumbar burst fracture with neuro deficits. Best way to diagnose extent of damage?

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

WHAT ACTUALLY HAPPENS WITH ATELECTASIS?

A

The V/Q mismatch leads to hypoxemia.
WOB increased so patient hyperventilates

pH higher (7.5), PO2 too low, pCO2 low (breathing it off)

HAPPENS FROM THE 2ND-5TH DAYS POST-OP…not that mnemonic

Especially common after ABDOMINAL surgeries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the FIRST indicator of hypovolemia?

A

Tachycardida! Pulse rate increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Don’t be fooled by the patient with distended neck veins and refractory hypotension but a NORMAL cardiac silhouette and small pleural effusion

A

IT’S PERICARDIAL TAMPONADE

Only 100-200mL needed to cause sx, bc it’s acute (no time for remodeling) and a small bag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which patients DO have an enlarged cardiac silhouette?

A

Patients with CHRONIC processes (eg. cancer or renal failure)… pericardial fluid slowly accumulates and gradually increases intrapericardial pressure so LIKE 1-2 L OF FLUID CAN ACCUMULATE…THAT’S HUGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Intrinsic renal disease test/finding?

A

FeNa > 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Mech of lowering ICP by hyperventilation?

A

It induces vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Nerve that does knee extension and hip flexion

A

Femoral.

It does the anterior compartment of the thigh.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Nerve that does the medial compartment of thigh?

A

Obturator nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which side is diaphragmatic rupture more common and why? What should you look for?

A

Left side because the R is protected by the liver

Look for the NG tube twisted coming up into the R lung space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

You placed a central venous catheter. Next step?

A

CHEST X-RAY to verify placement.

Complications include arterial puncture, mycardial perforation, pneumothorax/hemothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Normal WBC count in patient who obviously has appendicits?

A

It can be normal. Next step is laparoscopic appendectomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Supracondylar fracture of humerus from FOOSH MC complication?

A

Entrapment of the brachial artery or median nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Small amount of cloudy fluid present in the wound drain. EKG shows afib with RVR and widening of the mediastinum.

A

Acute mediastinits

Rx: Drain it, surgical debridement and abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Doppler u/s confirms first time DVT. What next?

A

Start heparin, bridge to warfarin rx for at least 3 months (INR goal 2-3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Meniscal tears signs?

A

A POPPING SENSATION. Swelling is GRADUAL.

Ligament injuries have RAPID SWELLING from hemarthrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is torsus palatinus?

A

Benign bony growth (exostosis) located on the midline suture of the hard palate. CONGENITAL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Why are burn patients at high risk for respiratory compromise?

A

Their supraglottic airway exchanges heat really well so it’s susceptible to thermal injury and acute obstruction from edema that follows.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Guy with diverticulitis comes in, gets abx, comes back bc of persistent abdominal pain. CT shows 5cm perisigmoid fluid collection…

A

It’s an abscess

3cm needs CT-GUIDED PERCUTANEOUS DRAINAGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Guy has complicated GERD. Biopsies show irregular ulceration of squamocolumnar junction. 4 hours later gets tachycardic/tachypneic and CXR shows small L pleural effusion that wasn’t on CXR from 2 wks ago

A

Iatrogenic esophageal rupture

Order a water-soluble contrast esophagram (preferred over barium bc it causes less pleural irritation)

Next: need to repair the esophagus (primary closure) and DRAIN the mediastinum WITHIN 6 HOURS to prevent mediastinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Lady rescued from burning building has seizure en route to hospital, normal breath sounds, pulse ox 96%, scattered end-expiratory wheezes and slight confusion. Best initial rx?

A

OXYGEN…

Pulse ox can be NORMAL with CO poisoning bc it can’t differentiate from carboxyhemoglobin and Hgb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Cholecystitis in the hospital. Stable. Next step?

A

Cholecystectomy within 72 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Major trauma. Abdominal CT reveals no abnormalities. Patient sent home then returns a week later with fever/chills, poor appetite, deep abdominal pain

A

Pancreatic laceration

Not necessarily detected on early CT scan.
SHOULD DO SERIAL CT SCANS to detect evolution.

CT: Gland enlargement, parenchymal destruction, peripancreatic fluid collections, areas of dec contrast uptake ie. dec perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Newborn with hydrocele?

A

Reassurance observation. Most resolve spontaneously by 1 year old.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Warfarin made INR too high. Rx?

A

FFP

VITAMIN K IS TOO SLOW FOR EMERGENCIES. Liver needs to synthesize NEW clotting factors with it!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Causes of arterial occlusion in the lower extremity?

A

Embolus/thrombus/trauma

Afib–>embolus–> SUDDEN onset of the P’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The rule about CT scans?

A

ONLY IN STABLE PATIENT.

If AAA ruptured and patient is bleeding out SKIP IT and do bedside u/s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Old man got a hip fracture. What next?

A

Needs definitive surgical correction but needs surgical clearance first…and also needs to find out WHY it happened (palpitations, dyspnea may be afib or PNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Scaphoid fracture that shows “radiolucent line across the waist of the scaphoid bone”

A

This is a NONDISPLACED scaphoid fracture.

Displacement has a gap between broken bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Paralytic ileus happens after abdominal surgery obvi. What else?

A

Vertebral fracture from trauma–> retroperitoneal hemorrhage

Rx: Bowel rest, supportive care, treat cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Who gets duodenal hematomas?

A

Usually kids. Direct BAT.
Blood collects in submucosal/mucosal layers of the duodenum causing obstruction.

EPIGASTRIC PAIN/VOMITING.

MOST RESOLVE SPON IN 1-2 WKS SO RX: NG SUCTION, PARENTERAL NUTRITION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Pulsatile mass in R groin causing anterior thigh pain?

A

Femoral artery aneurysm

Popliteal #1 and femoral artery #2 aneurysms MC peripheral artery aneurysms
OFTEN A/W AAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Femur fracture that makes you think fat embolism. Signs?

A

Respiratory distress, mental status changes, petechiae

AFTER LATENT PERIOD 12-72 HOURS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Hint that it’s pulmonary contusion?

A

Unrestrained driver, bilateral chest pain, pO2 gets LOWER WITH FLUID ADMIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Nml pulmonary capillary wedge pressure?

A

2-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Hints that it’s medial meniscus injury?

A

Popping sound at time of injury

McMurray’s sign- palpable or audible snap while slowly extending leg at knee while applying tibial torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Trauma patient is semi-ok. BP 70/30 pulse 100. Bruises over anterior chest/upper abdomen. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is 14 then goes up to 22 with rapid infusion of 1L NS, but BP is 75/30 still.

A

Myocardial contusion. L ventricle not pumping well so hypotension and elevated intracardiac filling pressures.

Urgent Echo.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Prosthetic joint infection >3 months out? What do you do?

A

Coagulase negative Staph (epidermidis), propionibacterium, enterococci

Implant removal/exchange :(

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Prosthetic join infection

A

Staph aureus, GNRs (E. coli), anaerobes

For this you COULD maybe leave it in if you debride it well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Parotid neoplasm most likely to cause…

A

Facial droop.

Facial nerve courses directly through the parotid gland.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Bilateral lower extremity edema and stasis dermatitis caused by

A

Venous hypertension.

Venous blood pools, postcapillary venule pressures are high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

WATCH OUT FOR MEDIASTINAL DEVIATION

A

You confuse this with tracheal deviation.

Mediastinal deviation is aortic injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Thing you see with 7% of surgical repairs of AAA?

A

Ischemic colitis

CT scan shows thickening of the bowel wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Can you palpate an intraductal papilloma?

A

No! It’s up to 2mm! Tiny!

Just see unilateral bloody nipple discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

When do you suspect blunt aortic injury?

A

MVAs and falls from >10 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Who gets dumping syndrome? Rx?

A

Partial gastrectomy patients

Rapid emptying of hypertonic gastric content into duodenum (not chewed on by stomach very well)–>fluid shifts into the SI

Initial rx: DIETARY MOD
Later rx: Octreotide
Intractable: Reconstructive surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Free intraperitoneal fluid in the context of BAT, anemia, and low BP

A

Splenic laceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Succussion splash

A

Sloshing sound that represents gas and fluid in an obstructed organ

GASTRIC OUTLET OBSTRUCTION

Dude who swallowed acid 3 months ago for suicide attempt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Bringing arms down in adduction. Arm drops rapidly at midpoint of descent

A

Rotator cuff tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Popeye sign/weakness with supination

A

Rupture of tendon of long head of biceps

Popeye is when biceps muscle belly becomes more prominent in the mid upper arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Suspected psoas abscess next step

A

CT scan

It happens from osteomyelitis or another abscess –> hematogenous spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Burst fracture

A

Anterior cord syndrome

Proprioception normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Guy comes in with totally a kidney stone…

A

Do an abdominal u/s when the suspicion is very high and in pregnant patients

Ugh. NOT CT of abdomen/pelvis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Atelectasis and acute pulmonary embolism can have VERY SIMILAR ABGs

A

High pH, Low Po2, Low PCO2

Pulm embolism also has DECREASED PULM VASCULAR MARKINGS ON CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Easy way to inc FRC in post-op patient?

A

Elevate HOB. Lets diaphragm hang down by gravity and lung expands better.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Weird thing that can happen with AAA rupture?

A

Aorto-caval fistula (rare)
Aneurysm erodes into IVC, causes high output cardiac failure, renal insufficiency…
Gross hematuria from venous conjestion in retroperitoneal structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Damage to what in direct blow of abdomen/PELVIS causes Kehr sign?

A

Bladder dome b/c it’s the only region covered by peritoneum and therefore is the only injury that would permit leakage of urine into peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Guy reaching really high to catch a basketball causes

A

Axillary nerve damage

Can cause paralysis of deltoid and teres minor muscles, and loss of sensation in lateral upper arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Intraperitoneal free fluid detection

A

That’s the FAST exam duh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Problem with PEEPing a trauma patient?

A

Need to make sure they’re volume rescuscitated!! PEEP will decrease venous return to the heart and CAUSE CIRCULATORY COLLAPSE if the volume isn’t replaced first!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is etomidate? Who shouldn’t get it?

A

Short acting anesthetic for induction/sedation

Bad for ppl with HPA suppression from exogenous cortisol bc it can cause acute adrenal crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How long do you have to take steroids to have HPA suppression?

A

> 3 weeks of 20mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How long do you have to take steroids to have HPA suppression?

A

> 3 weeks of 20mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is Ludwig angina? How do you get it?

A

Rapidly progressive bilateral cellulitis of the submandibular/sublingual spaces

Infected 2nd or 3rd mandibular molar (Strep and anaerobes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

MC complication of supracondylar fractures of the femur?

A

Entrapment of brachial artery or median nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Guy go got CABG develops worsening retrosternal pain on POD3 despite continuous analgesia; small amt of pericardial fluid and widening of the mediastinum, elevated WBC count

A

Acute mediastinitis from the median sternotomy

Pts present w/in 14 post-op days w/ chest pain, leukocytosis, and purulent discharge

Surgical debridement w/ immediate closure, prolonged abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Shallow inhalations, dec breath sounds at lung bases, RR 22, low pO2 and pCO2, temp 98

A

Atelectasis- surgery pain causing shallow breathing/impaired cough…mucus plugging in small airways.

Hypoxia stims RR–> low CO2

LOOK AT THE TEMPERATURE, THIS IS NOT PNA. NO RHONCI OR CRACKLES IN THIS PT EITHER, JUST DEC BREATH SOUNDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

First DVT

A

Heparin then transition to warfarin for at least 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

When is it safe for a patient to start anticoagulation after surgery ?

A

48-72 hours (ie. someone who has had a DVT or other clot; have to be hemodynamically stable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What factors contribute to post-op ileus?

A

Increased sympathetic tone of the splanchnics after violating the peritoneum
Local release of inflammatory mediators
OPIATE ANALGESICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Guy with BAT and blunt chest wall trauma who has fracture of 8th rib, vesicular breath sounds, but BP only semi-responds to fluids. What are you worried about? How do you diagnose?

A

Intra-abdominal injury…SPLEEN, which appears hours later

GET AN ABDOMINAL CT WITH CONTRAST

Vesicular breath sounds are NORMAL (there’s bronchial and vesicular)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Person on mechanical ventilation for a few days.

“Ratio of the rate of carbon dioxide produced to the rate of oxygen uptake is 1.05. Why?”

A

This is the RESPIRATORY QUOTIENT and it’s >0.8 when the person is having too much dietary carbohydrate; inc their fats

*This is especially important in patients with preexisting lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Guy gets a CABG. 5 hours after the procedure his BP drops, no CP, no n/v/abdominal pain. Flat neck veins. Fluids barely help. What’s going on?

A

Retroperitoneal hematoma from bleeding from the ARTERIAL access site (eg. femoral)

Dx: NON-CONTRAST CT OF ABDOMEN/PELVIS,
or abdominal u/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Is low mag or low calcium the cause of tetany in this patient?

A

Low mag causes tetany but on the heart it has effects of HIGH calcium.

So you can look at EKG:
Hypocalcemia has prolonged QT, T wave inversion, heart blocks)
Hypermagnesima has prolonged QT, PR intervals; ST depression, torsades)

Correct the calcium:
Corrected calcium = Ca + 0.8 (4.0 - serum albumin), where 4.0 represents the average albumin level in g/dL.

MAG DEFICIENCY COMMON IN PATIENTS WITH LARGE GI LOSSES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Small bowel operation preop abx?

A

Single parenteral dose of antibiotic against aerobes/anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Guy with PVD, DM, htn needs hernia surgery. What needs to happen first?

A

PHARMACOLOGIC cardiac stress test and Echo

…exercise stress test not good bc he has symptomatic PVD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

They ask you to analyze a guy’s acid base abnormality. He has an NG tube…

A

Metabolic alkalosis… it’s sucking the acid out of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

HIT rx?

A

Stop heparin, start direct thrombin inhibitor (lepirudin or argatroban)…then convert to oral warfarin when appropriate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Guy with MI gets abdominal pain and generalized abd tenderness. Next step

A

Angiography. He probably has mesenteric ischemia. Skip the CT or whatever to ID the bleeder.

Then laparotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Sepsis

A

SIRS+source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Septic shock

A

SIRS + source + organ dysfunction + HYPOTENSION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Severe sepsis

A

SIRS + source + organ dysfunction or hypoperfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

If someone needs a massive transfusion, what else happens that you need to address?

A

Dilutional thrombocytopenia and deficiencies in factors V and VII.

GIVE FFP AND PLATELETS EARLY TO DEC MORTALITY!

FFP contains the labile as well as stable components of the coagulation, fibrinolytic and complement systems; the proteins that maintain oncotic pressure and modulate immunity; and other proteins that have diverse activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Jejunostomy when to start feeds?

A

Can start 24 hours later.

For colostomy it usually takes 3-4 days for colon to get working.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Starting TPN in a severely malnourished patient?

A

Slowly! Refeeding syndrome risk so replete magnesium, potassium, phosphate levels

104
Q

Hemophilia A mild vs. severe treatment?

A

DDAVP
Add aminocaproic acid in severe (this is an inhibitor of fibrinolysis)
Cryprecipitate also works

Cryoprecipitate is a source of fibrinogen. Fibrinogen is vital to blood clotting. It is usually used in the treatment of patients with reduced levels of, or poorly functioning, fibrinogen with clinical bleeding, an invasive procedure or trauma.

105
Q

Stop NSAIDs

A

3-4 days before surgery for platelets to come back

106
Q

Jehovah’s witness is bleeding out…

A

Give NS or lactated ringers in a ratio of 3:1 (of blood lost)

LR is better bc NS has a lot of chloride and can cause a non-anion gap metabolic acidosis

SODIUM BICARB EXCHANGER (BICARB EXCRETED)

107
Q

Fluids for 60 kg guy who has an NG tube and just had surgery?

A

D5 1/2 NS at a rate of

4x10=40
2x10=20
1x40=40

100mL/hr

108
Q

High output ileostomy electrolyte depletions?

A

Loss of bicarb, Na, K.
Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis

GIVING NORMAL SALINE AND KCL WILL EXACERBATE THE ACIDOSIS

REPLACE FLUIDS AND GIVE STOOL BULKING AGENT

109
Q

Stress factor (what you multiply daily calories by) in different conditions

A

Starvation- 50% body 2x

110
Q

Person with tracheostomy tube develops lots of bleeding at site. Next step:

A

Tracheo-inominate artery fistula!

Bleeding stopped: fiberoptic bronchoscopy

Still bleeding: inflate baloon cuff on trach to compress the artery

111
Q

When is it ok to attempt extubation?

A

Rapid shallow breathing index (RR:TV) between 60-105

Make sure PEEP is less than 5cmH2o

Minute ventilation (TV x RR)

112
Q

Rx during hemolytic transfusion rxn?

A

STOP IT IMMEDIATELY

Give mannitol (diuresis keeps the Hgb from precipitating in the renal tubules)

Sodium bicarb- alkalinze the urine bc the Hgb precipitation is INHIBITED IN AN ALKALINE ENVIRONMENT (ACID PROMOTES)

FLUIDS (unless there’s severe oliguria…then it’s too late, AKI happened and now you need to fluid restrict)

113
Q

ARDS diagnosing with clinical values?

A

Bilateral pulm infiltrates on CXR (duh)

PaO2/FiO2

114
Q

Low pO2, high PCO2 in an agitated patient w/ hematemesis. How to treat?

A

Intubate them.

They’re retaining too much CO2 and not oxygenating well. Intubation corrects both.

115
Q

Rx for TRALI?

A

It’s NOT from volume overload so DON’T DIURESE them!

Stop the transfusion, give supportive respiratory care like mechanical ventilation if needed

116
Q

Indicators of heart not pumping well? Rx?

A

Low cardiac output (normal is ~5)
High PCWP

DOBUTAMINE IS INOTROPIC AGENT OF CHOICE IN CARDIOGENIC SHOCK!

117
Q

Cardiac index?

A

=CO/BSA

So CI= (SV x HR)/ BSA

118
Q

Physiologic parameters of septic shock

A

Increased CO, decrease in PVR, relatively normal central pressures

119
Q

“Fam hx of prolonged paralysis during general anesthesia”

A

Should NOT get succinylcholine or mivacurium bc they probably have a pseudocholinesterase defiency

(Malignant hyperthermia is DIFFERENT it’s a mutn in the ryanodine receptor for calcium)

120
Q

Lab values with alveolar hypoventilation?

A

pH too low bc of pCO2 increase (poor gas exchange)

pO2 also low

121
Q

Weird thing associated with cholesterol atheroembolization? (ie. guy just had angiography study)

A

Eosinophilia

Elevated ESR, microscopic hematuria, proteinuria

122
Q

Vasopressor for septic shock?

A

Norepinephrine or dopamine

123
Q

Person getting an anesthetic develops dilated loops of bowel on xray. What was it?

A

Nitrous oxide.

Air trapping of it.

124
Q

Hypotensive shortly after induction. What was drug?

A

Morphine

125
Q

Bleeding time?

A

Assesses platelets + formation of platelet plug

126
Q

Thrombin time?

A

Fibrinogen qualitative abnormalities and inhibitors of fibrin polymerization

127
Q

Margins for

A

1cm

128
Q

Rx for pyoderma granulosum of Crohn’s?

A

SYSTEMIC steroids + immunosuppressants (eg. cyclosporine)

129
Q

Rx of frostbite?

A

Immersion in water up to 111 degrees. Elevate to minimize edema, abx and tetanus shot, debride necrotic skin

130
Q

Silver nitrate for burns. Side effects?

Silver sulfadiazine side effect?

Mafenide acetate side effect?

A

Hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, hypochloremia, methemoglobinemia

Neutropenia

Metabolic acidosis 2/2 inhibition of carbonic anhydrase

131
Q

Secondary intention

A

Leave wound open and it reapproximates on its own

132
Q

Margins for 1-4mm melanoma?

A

2cm, AND SENTINEL LYMPH NODE BIOPSY

If it’s positive THEN you do lymph node dissection

133
Q

Burn that didn’t require skin grafting when AA lady was a kid. There was a growth there subsequently and it was removed. Then it grew back- shaded purple with smooth top. What is it?

A

KELOID

134
Q

Dirty wound presents after 6 hours. Rx?

A

Local wound care but leave it OPEN. NO prophylactic abx, weirdly.

135
Q

50% BSA burn in an 80kg man. At what rate should LR be given in first 8 hours?

A

4 x 80 x 50%= 16000

16000/2= 8000

8000/8hrs= 1000mL/hr

136
Q

How long do you have to save limb function in severe ischemia

A

6-8 hours

137
Q

Exploratory laparoscopy AKA diagnostic laparoscopy

A

Hemodynamically stable blunt/penetrating injuries with suspected intra-abdominal injuries

The main advantage of diagnostic laparoscopy over traditional open laparotomy is reduced morbidity, decreased postoperative pain, and a shortened length of hospital stay

138
Q

Acute injury/trauma. What happens to metabolism?

A

Immediate relase of catecholamines causes transient drop in insulin but then INSULIN INC SIGNIFICANTLY. Overall result is also hyperglycemia (there’s peripheral insulin resistance too)

Thyroid hormones REMAIN CONSTANT though.

139
Q

Trauma patient with a duodenal obstruction with no other injuries. “Coiled spring appearance of the 2nd and 3rd parts of the duodenum” Rx?

A

Duodenal hematoma

NG tube and observe.

She’s not getting a laparotomy bc we already ruled out any other injuries.

If she HAD other injuries and was getting an exlap, evacuate the hematoma to r/o perforation or injury to the head of the pancreas

140
Q

Tachycardic patient with increasing ICP. Best next step…

A

Hyperventilation NOT HOB elevation! Why? Because they haven’t been volume resuscitated yet and this can worsen their cerebral hypotension

141
Q

Knee dislocation but palpable pedal pulses in motorcycle accident next step?

A

Measure ABI…

IF

142
Q

Kid gets kicked in the kidney. Peri-renal hematoma. Next step?

A

Strict bed rest for 1-3 days with serial hemoglobins

He’s stable so he may not need surgery

143
Q

Enterocutaneous fistula

A

Happens from trauma and surgical repair. Womp.

Proximal small bowel fistulas are usually HIGHER OUTPUT than more distal ones in the ileum or colon.

GIVE TPN and hope for SPONTANEOUS closure of the fistula

If that fails you need surgery

144
Q

In what case would you actually surgically repair an EXTRAperitoneal bladder leak?

A

If you’re doing internal fixation of the pelvis, bc you don’t want it to infect the hardware

145
Q

How do you use u/s and DPL results

A

To decide about ex-laparotomy in an unstable patient.

RBC >100,000/ul
WBC > 500/ul
Elevated amylase, bilirubin, or alk-phos

146
Q

Neurogenic shock pt vs. hypovolemic shock pt?

A

Neurogenic and anaphylactic warm/pink

Hypovolemic cold and clammy

147
Q

Initial reuscitation actual calculation

A

20mL/kg body weight

148
Q

What finding in the pelvis mandates an ex lap?

A

Free fluid in the pelvis

This could be a small bowel or mesenteric injury

149
Q

Person has pericardial tamponade. What steps?

A

Needle decompression aka pericardial in ER (ideally in OR)

EMERGENT PERICARDIOCENTESIS or subxiphoid pericardial drainage in OR

150
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome done by which cell

A

CD8 T cells

151
Q

Positive cross match is…

A

BAD THAT’S WHEN YOU DON’T TRANSPLANT

152
Q

What does cyclosporine inhibit

A

IL-2 mostly

153
Q

What is grading and which cancers are guided by grade for prognosis?

A

Degree of anaplasia of the cells.

Soft tissue sarcoma, bladder cancer, astrocytoma, chondrosarcoma

154
Q

GI stromal tumor rx?

A

Imatinib bc it expresses c-kit

This is either for neoadjuvant or palliative chemo

155
Q

Lady w/ BRCA1 mutation doesn’t want prophylactic bilateral mastectomy. What do you do?

A

Clinical exams q 6 months starting at age 25

156
Q

You did a LEFT HEMICOLECTOMY for adenocarcinoma in the proximal sigmoid. It’s T3N1. What do you do next?

A

5-FU + leucovorin bc there’s a positive node

157
Q

Azathioprine side effect?

A

Bone marrow toxicity- monitor WBC and platelet counts immediately after transplant

158
Q

What does “multifocal disease” mean wrt breast cancer?

A

It’s multiple tumors WITHIN one quadrant so they can STILL do a partial mastectomy

“Diffuse microcalcifications” is MORE THAN 1 QUADRANT

159
Q

DCIS vs. LCIS?

A

DCIS needs total simple mastectomy (which LEAVES AXILLARY NODES IN). Bc high rate of recurrence if just local excision is done.

LCIS just needs frequent self exams and yearly mammograms

160
Q

You have someone severely symptomatic with hypercalcemia. What do you do?

A

IV fluids to prevent renal calculi

Diuresis should be done with furosemide NOT THIAZIDES bc thiazides cause hypercalcemia

Hemodialysis should be considered, in addition to the above treatments, in patients who have serum calcium concentrations in the range of 18 to 20 mg/dL (4.5 to 5 mmol/L) and neurologic symptoms but a stable circulation, or in those with severe hypercalcemia complicated by renal failure.

161
Q

Cushing disease?

A

Pituitary tumor and subsequent bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

162
Q

Adrenocortical carcinoma?

A

More likely when mass is BIG. En bloc resection of tumor and involved adjacent structures.

163
Q

When to start alpha blockade before pheo removal?

A

1-3 weeks before. They’ll also need volume expander.

164
Q

Nipple itching and ulceration? Next step? Rx?

A

Paget dz of breast.

50% have an associated breast mass (usually infiltrating ductal carcinoma)

Do mammogram and biopsy.

Then modified radical mastectomy

165
Q

How to decrease risk of thyroid storm post-op?

Rx of thyroid storm after it happens?

A

Lugol iodine solution 10 days before surgery

Fluids, beta blockers, PTU/methimazole, iodine solution, steroids

166
Q

Lady has a 3cm ductal carcinoma and palpable axillary LNs but WANTS BREAST CONSERVING RX

A

Do wide local excision w/ axillary LN dissection

167
Q

ITP rx upon diagnosis?

A

Steroids + IVIG

168
Q

Bleeding esophageal varices medical rx?

A

Octreotide dec splanchnic blood flow- used for ppl who are hemodynamically unstable

Beta blockers prevent RECURRENT bleeding

169
Q

Gallstone ileus rx?

A

Ileotomy for removal of the stone + cholecystectomy

170
Q

Surgical indications for diverticulitis?

A

Recurrent episodes
Intractable to medical rx
COMPLICATED DIVERTICULITIS EG. PERFORATION (HARTMAN PROCEDURE), ABSCESS (resection w/ primary anastomosis)!!

171
Q

Acute mesenteric ischemia vs. Ischemic colitis

A

Acute mesenteric ischemia is SMALL BOWEL and requires EMERGENT INTERVENTION

Ischemic colitis is colon and RARELY REQUIRES SURGERY- only if there’s full thickness necrosis, perforation, or refractory bleeding.
Manage expectantly with IVF, bowel rest, and supportive care

172
Q

Do you resect a hepatic adenoma?

A

Actually YES. Small but real risk of turning into hepatocellular carcinoma! The other liver tumors don’t

173
Q

Acute hemorrhage of gastric varicies that caused splenic vein thrombosis (seen with pancreatitis). Rx?

A

Splenectomy. They’re hemorrhaging.

Splenic vein thrombosis LEADS to gastric varicies

174
Q

How do you determine the T stage of esophageal carcinoma?

A

Endoscopic ultrasound. Also lets you biopsy.

CT and MRI less accurate

175
Q

You did a LEFT HEMICOLECTOMY for adenocarcinoma in the proximal sigmoid. It’s T3N1. What do you do next?

A

5-FU + leucovorin bc there’s a positive node

Nigro protocol for SCC of ANUS is 5-FU and mitomycin

176
Q

How do you determine the T stage of esophageal carcinoma?

A

Endoscopic ultrasound. Also lets you biopsy.

CT and MRI less accurate

177
Q

Apple core lesion on transanal contrast study?

A

Large bowel obstruction

Needs surgical resection and prox colostomy

178
Q

Super distended loops of bowel in old man with excruciating abdominal pain

A

Most likely cecal or sigmoid volvulus.

Need to rule out sigmoid volvulus with a proctosigmoidiscope WHICH WILL ALSO ALLOW RECTAL TUBE DECOMPRESSION

179
Q

What is neostigmine

A

Adrenergic antagonist to get bowels moving

NOT for ppl with bradycardia, bronchospasm, free perf

180
Q

Old lady has AAA repair then develops acute abdominal pain and distention. Kidney bean shaped structure in LUQ. Rx?

A

This is a cecal volvulus and she needs a R HEMICOLECTOMY.

Colonoscopy for decompression has a HIGH RISK OF RECURRENCE

181
Q

Echinococcal cysts in liver?

A

Could give mebendazole to shrink them but they NEED TOTAL PERICYSTECTOMY or they’ll recur

182
Q

Does paraesophageal hernia or sliding hiatal hernia need surgery?

A

Only paraesophageal bc there’s a high risk of strangulation and obstruction

(Thats the one where there’s a little bulge stuck up top above diaphragm)

SLIDING HIATAL MORE COMMON though

183
Q

Rx for MAJOR hemobilia from a liver procedure?

A

Transarterial embolization

Minor bleeding can be treated more conservatively with correction of the coagulopathy and biliary drainage if needed

184
Q

Stress ulceration = acute gastric or duodenal erosive lesions following shock, sepsis, major surgery, trauma, burns. What do they look like?

A

Multiple shallow lesions w/ discrete areas of erythema along with focal hemorrhage. Body or fundus and spare antrum.

Chronic benign ulcers are found along lesser curvature or in antrum

185
Q

End stage cancer patient needs cholecystectomy. Best option?

A

Tube cholecystostomy. They shouldn’t be operated on.

186
Q

Incidental hemangioima in liver on CT scan. What do you do?

A

Observe. The risk of rupture and hemorrhage is extremely low.

187
Q

Toxic megacolon seen in UC or Crohn’s?

A

Subtotal colectomy w/ end ileostomy

188
Q

Aortic stenosis in healthy vs. not patients?

A

Healthy- aortic valve replacement

Not healthy- percutaneous aortic balloon valvuloplasty

189
Q

You perf’d the esophagus of a lady with distal esophageal cancer. What do you do?

A

Thoracotomy and esophagectomy…

She has CANCER.

Pay attention to the underlying disorder. You fix the perf AND THAT when you open.

190
Q

You perf’d the esophagus of someone who was going routine screening for Barrett’s. What do you do?

A

Repair the perforation and drain the mediastinum

191
Q

Initial rx of lung abscess

A

Systemic abx against causative agent

If it fails to resolve with this, THEN you surgically or percutaneously drain it

192
Q

Initial treatment of a descending aortic dissection?

A

Beta blockers to reduce shear on aortic wall

193
Q

You knicked the thoracic duct and it’s started draining chyle into the mediastinum. Rx?

A

Tube thoracostomy and low fat diet

If it keeps draining for like 2 weeks, THEN you need to go in and ligate the duct

194
Q

Bronchial carcinoid that is in lower lobe and ipsilateral mediastinal LNs rx?

A

Lobectomy and mediastinal LN dissection

CHEMO HAS NO ROLE

195
Q

Reiter syndrome cardiac abnormality?

A

Aortic regurg

196
Q

Septic shock vasopressors?

A

Norepinephrine and dopamine

197
Q

Neurogenic shock vasopressor?

A

Phenylephrine

Can also be used for refractory hypotension in the setting of tachycardia

198
Q

When is epi used?

A

Short-term IV boluses during cardiac arrests and in patients with cardiac dysfunction refractory to dobutamine

199
Q

When is nitroglycerin used?

A

For acute myocardial ischemia

200
Q

When is nitroprusside used?

A

Arterial AND venous vasodilator; need to monitor serum cyanate levels bc it could cause cyanide toxicity (see ACIDOSIS)

Severe cardiogenic shock to reduce afterload OR to treat severe hypotension

201
Q

Dopamine at different doses?

A

Low- dopamine receptor binding for renal vasodilation so inc urine output

Medium- Beta1 receptors in heart to inc myocardial contractility

High- alpha receptors to vasoconstrict which inc bp

202
Q

Who gets carotid endarterectomy

A

70-80% stenosis asx

203
Q

Which popliteal aneurysms get repaired

A

Symptomatic and >2cm

Ligate the aneurysm and leave it in situ

204
Q

Claudication in lower extremity. Where is the obstruction?

A

COMMON OR SUPERFICIAL FEMORAL (1 level above where sx!)

205
Q

Sliding hiatal hernias are MORE COMMON reasons to have GERD sx and nausea and vomiting and strictures…

A

…so don’t pick paraesophageal hiatal hernia if it asks most common

206
Q

Chronic occlusion of L iliac and femoral veins and they’re going to surgery. Anticoagulation?

A

LOW DOSE PROPHYLACTIC heparin

207
Q

12h after undergoing drainage of pancreatic abscess, 52 yoM with alcholism becomes bradycardic and hypoxic and requires intubation and mechanical ventilation. Weighs 70kg. Ventilator is set at an FiO2 of 100%, tidal volume of 1000 mL, and positive end-expiratory pressure of 2.5cm H2O. Arterial blood gas analysis shows:
pH 7.36
PCO2 40 mmHg
PO2 48 mmHg
Which is most appropriate next step?
a) begin IV acetazolamide therapy, b) begin IV furosemide therapy, c) begin IV heparin therapy, d) begin IV sodium bicarb, e) begin IC urokinase, f) Decrease FiO2, g) decrease tidal volume, h) increase PEEP, i) increase tidal volume

A

ABG shows patient is hypoxemic. 2 ways to increase PO2 are increasing FiO2 (already at 100%) and increasing PEEP. Peep of 2.5 is pretty low, so you’ve got some room to maneuver. As an aside, tidal volume of 1000 for 70kg man is way high, especially for likely ARDS (which you usually treat with low tidal volume/increased PEEP ventilation). But monkeying with tidal volume will not correct the patient’s hypoxemia.

208
Q

Nuclear inclusion bodies in colon biopsy from HIV lady with bloody diarrhea and perforated cecum

A

CMV colitis

209
Q

Opening snap, mid-diastolic rumble?

A

Mitral stenosis

Valve replacement vs. balloon valvuloplasty vs. open commisurotomy

210
Q

Loud holosystolic, high pitched, radiating to axilla

A

Mitral regurg.

211
Q

Loud crescendo-decresendo systolic ejection murmur, radiates to carotids. Louder with squatting, softer with valsalva. Pulsus parvus et tardus.

A

Aortic stenosis

212
Q

Holosystolic murmurs

A

Tricuspid regurg, mitral regurg, VSD

213
Q

Eaton lambert a/w…

A

Small cell lung ca (but an equal % who have it don’t have cancer at all)

214
Q

What is a “dissection”

A

Tear in the INTIMA

215
Q

Major complication of thoracic aortic aneurysm repair

A

Paraplegia. Avoid perioperative hypotension

216
Q

How angiography works

A

Depending on the type of angiogram, access to the blood vessels is gained most commonly through the femoral artery, to look at the left side of the heart and at the arterial system; or the jugular or femoral vein, to look at the right side of the heart and at the venous system

217
Q

How do you diagnose acute arterial insufficiency and what next?

A

If diagnosis is certain, STRAIGHT TO OR.

Cold, newly pulseless, painful extremity

Muscles soft–>doughy–>hard

218
Q

When is ABI normal in someone who totally has claudication sx?

A

Diabetics bc ABI is falsely elevated (ie. closer to normal) bc their vessels are less compressible from the disease

219
Q

Explain subclavian steal?

A

Subclavian occlusion makes blood flow RETROGRADE through the vertebral arteries so there’s dec flow to the PCAs

220
Q

BKA contraindicated when

A

Gangrene is more proximal than the ankle (like in our guy who got the AKA)

221
Q

When is ABI normal in someone who totally has claudication sx?

A

Diabetics bc ABI is falsely elevated (ie. closer to normal) bc their vessels are less compressible from the disease (calcification

222
Q

What do you often find with popliteal artery aneurysm?

A

AAA

223
Q

Which vessel is never involved if the cause is atherosclerosis?

A

External iliac

224
Q

Carotid injury with hematoma. Which CN affected?

A

IX-XII

225
Q

Cyclosporine MOA

A

Calcineurin inhibitor. Prevents transcription of genes needed for T cell activation (IL-2 inhib)

226
Q

What should you never use in liver transplant for immunosuppression?

A

Azathioprine

227
Q

What should you never use in liver transplant for immunosuppression?

A

Azathioprine

228
Q

Hyperacute rejection done by

A

Antibodies

Complement mediated lysis. Procoagulant effect–> thrombosis of graft

Happens from presensitization to donor antigen…from pregnancy, transfusion, or prior transplant

229
Q

Kidney transplant pt seen in ED with abdominal pain, fever, and creatinine bump…

A

Likely acute rejection.
Confirm with u/s guided BIOPSY.
Pulse steroid rx.

230
Q

Graft thrombosis rx?

A

Immediate reoperation to salvage

231
Q

What should you never use in liver transplant for immunosuppression?

A

Azathioprine

Tacrolimus is used

232
Q

Cremasteric reflex spinal cord levels?

A

L1-2 or injury of the ilioinguinal nerve during hernia repair

Can also see loss in testicular torsion

233
Q

Assist-control

A

set TV and rate but if pt takes a breath, vent gives the volume

234
Q

Pressure support

A

pt rules rate but a boost of pressure is given (8-20)

IMPORTANT FOR WEANING

235
Q

CPAP

A

pt must breathe on own but + pressure given all the time

236
Q

PEEP

A

USED IN ARDS OR CHF

pressure given at the end of cycle to keep alveoli open (5-20)

237
Q

Low PaO2

A

Increase the FiO2

238
Q

High PaCO2

A

Increase RR or tidal volume! (Tidal volume more efficient to change)

239
Q

AT III deficiency key concept?

A

Heparin WON’T WORK

240
Q

Normal platelets, inc BT and PTT

A

vWD

241
Q

INTUBATE ANYONE WITH A GCS

A
242
Q

Intubated. Next step?

A

Check bilateral breath sounds

If decreased on L..you intubated the R main stem bronchus.
Pull back your tube. Check pulse ox and keep it >90

243
Q

Neurogenic shock

A

A form of vasogenic shock where spinal cord injury, spinal anesthesia, or adrenal insufficiency (suspect in pts on steroids encountering a stressor) causes an acute loss of sympathetic vascular tone

244
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis

A

IV PCN, Go to OR and debride skin until it bleeds

Gaspy or Clostridium perfringens

Dantrolene blocks ryanodine receptor and DEC INTRACELLULAR CA.

245
Q

Pressure ulcers

A

Stage 1-2 get special mattress, barrier protection
• Stage 3-4
get flap reconstruction surgery
– Before surgery, albumen must be >3.5 and bacterial load must be

246
Q

Lung abscess

A

Tx initially w/ abx- IV PCN or clinda
– Indications for surgery = abx fail,
abscess >6cm, or if empyema is present.

247
Q

–Pt

A

CXR or CT scans q2mo to look for growth

248
Q

Characteristics of malignant lung nodules?

A

(smoker, old), If >3cm, eccentric

calcification

249
Q

Dysphagia worse with hot and cold liquids, chest pain that feels like MI, NO REGURG

A

DES

Rx: CCBs or nitrates (can also give these for achalasia)

250
Q

Gastric cancer

A

Blummers shelf, virchow’s node

Lymphoma- HIV
MALT lymphoma- H pylori

251
Q

Bilious vomiting, post-prandial pain, and recently lost 200lbs?

A

SMA syndrome.

Can do roux-en-y

252
Q

Choledochal cyst

A

Roux-en-Y anastomosis to the biliary duct.

253
Q

15 year old boy with a small pleural effusion

A

Small spontaneous pneumothoraces typically resolve without treatment and require only monitoring.

254
Q

Diagnostic/confirmatory test for carpal tunnel?

A

Nerve conduction studies

NOT EMG THAT’S OLD SCHOOL

255
Q

Sedation/induction

A

Thiopental
Etomidate
Midazolam
Ketamine

256
Q

Paralyze patient

A

Succinylcholine, vecuronium

257
Q

Chalazion vs. hordeolum

A

Chalazia and hordeola (styes) are sudden-onset localized swellings of the eyelid. A chalazion is caused by noninfectious meibomian gland occlusion, whereas a hordeolum usually is caused by infection. Both conditions initially cause eyelid hyperemia and edema, swelling, and pain. With time, a chalazion becomes a small nontender nodule in the eyelid center, whereas a hordeolum remains painful and localizes to an eyelid margin. Diagnosis is clinical. Treatment is with hot compresses. Both conditions improve spontaneously, but incision or, for chalazia, intralesional corticosteroids may be used to hasten resolution.

Surgery (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions