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Missed Content To Review Flashcards

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1
Q

phases of the menstrual cycle

A

follicular phase
ovulation
luteal phase

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2
Q

follicular phase

A

FSH & LH secreted by anterior pituitary gland
FSH peaks –> LH surge
estrogen increase

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3
Q

ovulation

A

LH surge –> ovarian follicle matures –> oocyte released

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4
Q

luteal phase

A

FSH & LH cause follicle to turn into corpus luteum (produce progesterone)
progesterone causes thickening of endometrium (ready for implantation)
FSH & LH DROP

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5
Q

Progesterone & Estrogen levels if fertilization does not occur

A

sharply decline due to corpus luteum degeneration
(if pregnant, levels remain high)

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6
Q

epithelial tissue: precursor, function, examples

A

precursor: endoderm, mesoderm, & ectoderm
function: lines surfaces, protection, absorption, filtration, secretion
examples: skin, lining of organs

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7
Q

muscle tissue: precursor, function, examples

A

precursor: mesoderm
function: voluntary & involuntary movement
examples: skeletal, cardiac, smooth muscle

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8
Q

connective tissue: precursor, function, examples

A

precursor: mesoderm
function: support/protect, attachment of tissues, insulation, transport
examples: bone, blood, fat, tendons/ligaments, cartilage

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9
Q

nervous tissue: precursor, function, examples

A

precursor: ectoderm
function: transmission/reception of electrical signals, response to stimuli
examples: brain, spinal cord, nerves

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10
Q

what part of transcription is unique to eukaryotes?

A

spliceosome-mediated intron splicing

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11
Q

Ascribed vs achieved status

A

Ascribed = social position assigned by society (48 years old, female, black)
Achieved status = social position earned through merit (doctor, friend, volunteer)

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12
Q

Functionalism

A

Society = an organism & each part of society works to maintain dynamic equilibrium (homeostasis)
Macro perspective, Durkheim, Parsons

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13
Q

Conflict (sociological approach) Theory

A

Society = struggle for limited resources; inequality based on social class

Macro level, Marx & Webber

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14
Q

Social constructionism

A

Social actors define what is real;
ideas (such as knowledge about health and disease) are created through historical processes that are socially defined and culturally distinct
Macro or micro

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15
Q

Symbolic interactionism

A

Meaning and value attached to symbols; individual interactions based on these symbols (explains in terms of meaning that they hold when people interact with one another)
Micro level; Cooley & Herbert Mead

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16
Q

Rational choice / social exchange

A

Individual behaviors and interactions attempt to maximize personal gain and minimize personal cost
Micro level

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17
Q

Feminist perspective

A

Examines gender inequality in society
Macro or micro level

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18
Q

Looking glass self

A

Charles Cooley
Interactions serves as a mirror (looking glass) where the way an individual is treated/perceived by others is reflected in how they perceive themself
Identity develops through an individuals interpretation of what others think and feel about them

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19
Q

Representativeness heuristic

A

When encountering a new situation, individuals tend to rely on mental representations (of people, events) when drawing conclusions

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20
Q

Types of membership

A

Normative - based on shared goals or values
Utilitarian - membership is driven by compensation (money or diploma/certification)
Coercive - not freely chosen and/or maintained

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21
Q

Role strain

A

Competing expectations within a single role create tension
Ex: a student struggles to find enough time to complete homework (expectation 1) and attend student government meetings (expectation 2)

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22
Q

Role conflict

A

Competing expectations for two or more roles create tension
Ex: a student (role 1) who is employed part time (part 2) struggles to find enough time to complete homework and work late hours

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23
Q

Role exit

A

Individual disengages from a social role, often replacing it with a new social role
Ex: a college student (old role) graduates and begins full time employment (new role)

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24
Q

Immigration & Birth Rate ____ population size

A

Increase

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25
Q

Emigration & death rate ______ population size

A

Decrease

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26
Q

Types of population pyramids (and their shapes)

A

Expanding - triangle
Stationary - half oval
Contracting - half oval with curves toward x axis

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27
Q

Expanding population pyramid

A

Very high birth rate
High, but dropping death rate
Short life expectancy
Increasing population size

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28
Q

Stationary population pyramid

A

Low birth rate
Low death rate
Long life expectancy
Population size stable

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29
Q

Contracting population pyramid

A

Very low birth rate
Low death rate
Long life expectancy
Decreasing population size

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30
Q

Common sense theory

A

Stimulus
Subjective experience (fear)
Body response (arousal)
“My heart is pounding because I am afraid”

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31
Q

James-Lange Theory

A

Stimulus
Body response (arousal)
Subjective experience (fear)
“I am afraid because my heart is pounding”

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32
Q

Canon-Bard Theory

A

Stimulus
Body response (arousal) & subjective experience (fear)
“My heart is pounding and the wolf makes me feel afraid”

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33
Q

Schachter-Singer theory

A

Stimulus
Body response (arousal)
Interpretation
Subjective experience (fear)
“My pounding heart signifies fear because I have appraised the situation as dangerous”

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34
Q

Universal emotions

A

Happiness
Sadness
Fear
Anger
Disgust
Surprise

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35
Q

Components of human emotion

A

Cognitive, behavioral, and physiological

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36
Q

Cognitive component of human emotion

A

Mental processes accompanying an emotion and involved in appraisal of the situation
- thoughts, beliefs, expectations, rationalization

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37
Q

Behavioral component of emotion

A

Immediate outward reaction to an emotion that is involuntary and automatic
Ex: Smiling, gasping

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38
Q

physiological component of emotion

A

Bodily processes that accompany an emotion
Ex: heart rate changes, respiration rate changes, sweating

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39
Q

what are the codons and (any) anticodons at the beginning and end of translation of an mRNA molecule?

A

start: AUG –> UAC
stop codons: UGA, UAA, UAG (do not get translated, so 3 right before stop)

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40
Q

what forms mitotic spindles

A

microtubules

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41
Q

control variable

A

kept constant by researcher to prevent additional factors from affecting experimental results

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42
Q

independent variable

A

unaffected by other experimental factors and manipulated by researcher
(amount of sunlight each seed is exposed to)

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43
Q

dependent variable

A

measured outcome affected by change in independent variable
(number of seeds that grow into plants)

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44
Q

p value < 0.05 meaning

A

*statistically significant result
5% or lower probability that observed result is due to chance alone

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45
Q

p value > 0.05 meaning

A

not generally statistically significant
greater than 5% probability that observed result is due to chance alone

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46
Q

representativeness heuristic

A

individuals tend to compare things to an existing mental prototype when trying to decide the likeliness of something
when encountering a new situation, individuals tend to rely on mental representations of people/events when drawing conclusions

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47
Q

normative membership

A

membership is based on shared goals or values

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48
Q

utilitarian membership

A

membership is driven by compensation (money or certification/diplomas)

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49
Q

coercive membership

A

membership is not freely chosen/maintained

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50
Q

EEG

A

electrodes placed on scalp and connected to amplifier
measures electrical signals of the cortex below the skull

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51
Q

MEG

A

helmet like device placed over the head
measures magnetic fields produced by electrical brain activity

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52
Q

PET

A

scanner detects radioactive tracer attached to a glucose analog
measures glucose metabolism in the brain

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53
Q

fMRI

A

scanner detects the differential properties of oxyhemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin
measures blood oxygenation in the brain

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54
Q

in group

A

group to which an individual identifies & belongs
other in-group members viewed favorably

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55
Q

out-group

A

group to which an individual does not identify or belong
out group members viewed unfavorably

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56
Q

reference group

A

comparison group to which an individual compares self
individual may or may not belong to this group

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57
Q

primary group

A

group of individuals who are emotionally close
smaller in size, high degree of interaction (family)

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58
Q

secondary group

A

group of individuals who come together to accomplish something
larger in size, more impersonal (coworkers)

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59
Q

General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)

A

pre-chronic stress homeostasis
stage 1 - alarm (decreased resistance to stress)
stage 2 - resistance (increased resistance to stress, hyper adrenal function)
stage 3 - exhaustion (decreased resistance to stress)

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60
Q

Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)

A

attempts to change negative thoughts/beliefs (cognitions) and maladaptive behaviors
- desensitization, self talk, etc used to replace destructive thoughts/behaviors with healthy ones

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61
Q

psychoanalytic therapy (“talk therapy”)

A

attempts to uncover how unconscious conflicts rooted in childhood shape behaviors
- free association, dream analysis, etc used to analyze unconscious

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62
Q

humanistic therapy (person centered therapy)

A

attempts to empower individual to move toward self actualization
- unconditional positive regard and empathy used to encourage one to reach full potential

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63
Q

internal validity describes

A

causality
if a change in the IV is really causing a change in the DV

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64
Q

major threats to internal validity

A

confounding variables
selection bias
maturation
repeated testing
regression toward the mean

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65
Q

internal validity ______ as experiment becomes more tightly controlled and _________ as experiment becomes more like the real world

A

increases; decreases

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66
Q

external validity describes

A

generalizability
if the observed relationship applies outside the experiment to another situation or other people

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67
Q

major threats to external validity

A

artificial research environment
non-representative sample
measurement effects

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68
Q

external validity ______ as experiment becomes more tightly controlled and _________ as experiment becomes more like the real world

A

decreases; increases

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69
Q

absolute threshold

A

intensity value at which an individual is able to detect the stimulus 50% of the time

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70
Q

habituation

A

decreased response to a stimulus over time (no longer noticing a sweater feels scratchy after wearing it for a few minutes)

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71
Q

dishabituation

A

a renewed response to a previously habituated stimulus (after taking off the sweater and then putting it back on, it feels scratchy again)

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72
Q

sensitization

A

increased response to a stimulus over time (sweater’s scratchiness becomes more irritating until it is unbearable)

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73
Q

desensitization

A

decreased response to a previously sensitized stimulus over time (irritation from previously unbearable scratchiness diminishes over time)

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74
Q

confirmation bias - belief “confirmed”

A

ambiguous evidence interpreted as support
facts supporting belief
outweighs refuting belief coming from facts that refute the belief

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75
Q

McDonaldization - Realms of Effects

A

efficiency, calculability, predictability, control

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76
Q

McDonaldization - Efficiency

A

intends to increase optimization
unintentionally decreases individuality
- going to a minute clinic for specific concerns

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77
Q

McDonaldization - Calculability

A

increases quantity
unintentionally decreases quality
- increased number of patients can be seen

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78
Q

McDonaldization - Predictability

A

increases uniformity & standardization
unintentionally decreases uniqueness
- standardized patient checklists make appointments uniform

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79
Q

McDonaldization - Control

A

increases automation
unintentionally decreases skilled workforce
- electronic patient portals allow patients to see test results

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80
Q

Sapir-Whorf hypothesis

A

linguistic relativity
posits that language influences our perception and cognition
(color perception changes for two subjects whose native languages have different number of color names)

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81
Q

objects seen in the left hemifield are processed in the _____________, whereas objects seen in the right hemifield are processed in the ____________

A

right primary visual cortex
left primary visual cortex
(opposite sides)

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82
Q

Where are cones concentrated? What are they sensitive to?

A

the fovea (central point of the retina)
colors

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83
Q

Where are rods located? What are they sensitive to?

A

in the periphery of the retina
responsible for night vision because they are sensitive to low levels of light

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84
Q

Parvo pathway

A

“what” pathway - ventral (inferior temporal) pathway
form and color

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85
Q

Magno pathway

A

“where” pathway - dorsal (parietal pathway)
depth and motion

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86
Q

Randomized Controlled Trial

A

experimental
- random allocation into treatment & placebo groups
- can determine efficacy of the intervention

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87
Q

nonrandomized design

A

experimental
- nonrandom allocation into treatment and placebo groups
- can determine efficacy of the intervention

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88
Q

longitudinal study

A

observational study
- data gathered at multiple time points
- can assess risk factors or outcomes

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89
Q

cross sectional study

A

observational study
- data gathered at one point in time
- can determine prevalence of an outcome in a population

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90
Q

case-control study

A

observational study
- data gathered from individuals with the condition of interest (cases) and compared to individuals without the condition (controls)

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91
Q

case study

A

observational study
- detailed information gathered about one individual (or a small group of individuals)

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92
Q

Meta-Analysis study

A

review study
- data from multiple studies are statisically combined and analyzed

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93
Q

defining features of bureaucracies

A

division of labor
hierarchical organization
standardization
impersonal

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94
Q

division of labor

A

specialized employees increase efficiency

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95
Q

hierarchical organization

A

centralized authority and clear chain of command

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96
Q

standardization

A

formal procedures and rules increase uniformity and unity

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97
Q

impersonal

A

same impersonal criteria applied to all increase equality

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98
Q

positive reinforcement

A

positive (adds stimulus)
reinforcement (encourages behavior)
desirable stimulus added to encourage behavior (toddler gets candy for using the toilet)

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99
Q

positive punishment

A

positive (adds stimulus)
punishment (discourages behavior)
undesirable stimulus added to discourage behavior (toddler gets spanked for running into the street)

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100
Q

negative reinforcement

A

negative (takes away stimulus)
reinforcement (encourages behavior)
undesirable stimulus taken away to encourage behavior (teenager doesn’t have to do chores after getting all A’s)

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101
Q

negative punishment

A

negative (takes away stimulus)
punishment (discourages behavior)
desirable stimulus taken away to discourage behavior (teenager gets grounded for getting bad grades)

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102
Q

fixed ratio reinforcement schedule

A

fixed (consistent) ratio (based on responses)
reinforcement after consistent number of behaviors
rapid response rate, short pause after reinforcement

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103
Q

fixed interval reinforcement schedule

A

fixed (consistent) interval (based on time)
reinforcement after consistent amount of time passes
slower response rate after reinforcement, faster response rate right before

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104
Q

variable ratio reinforcement schedule

A

variable (inconsistent) ratio (based on responses)
reinforcement after inconsistent number of behaviors
rapid, steady response rate, most resistant to extinction

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105
Q

variable interval reinforcement schedule

A

variable (inconsistent) interval (based on time)
reinforcement after inconsistent amount of time passes
slow, steady response rate, resistance to extinction

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106
Q

primary reinforcer

A

primary (innate) reinforcer (encourages behavior)
innately desirable reward (food, praise)

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107
Q

primary punisher

A

primary (innate) punisher (discourages behavior)
innately undesirable consequence (spanking, electric shock)

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108
Q

secondary reinforcer

A

secondary (learned) reinforcer (encourages behavior)
learned reward (money, good grades)

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109
Q

secondary punisher

A

secondary (learned) punisher (discourages behavior)
learned consequence (bad grades, speeding ticket)

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110
Q

taste aversions are what kind of endurance?

A

long-enduring associations

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111
Q

autocommunication

A

occurs when a message sender is also the receiver
ex: dolphins echolocate by perceiving how the click sounds they sound out come back to them
not the same as predator warning calls

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112
Q

Mechanoreceptor

A

detects movement
stimuli - sound waves, touch
ex: hair cells in the ear

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113
Q

Chemoreceptor

A

detects chemicals
stimuli - molecules, solutes
ex: taste buds (tongue)

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114
Q

Thermoreceptor

A

detects temperature
stimuli - heat, cold
ex: skin

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115
Q

photoreceptor

A

detects light waves
stimuli - visible light
ex: rods, cones (retina)

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116
Q

Piaget’s theory of Cognitive Development

A

sensorimotor
pre-operational
concrete operational
formal operational

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117
Q

sensorimotor stage

A

<2
- experiencing the environment via senses and actions
- hallmark: object permanence, stranger anxiety

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118
Q

preoperational stage

A

~2-7
- representing real things with words and images
- hallmark: pretend play, egocentrism, language development

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119
Q

concrete operational stage

A

~7-11
- thinking logically about concrete events, grasping concrete analogies, performing arithmetic
- hallmark: conservation, mathematical transformation

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120
Q

formal operational stage

A

> 12
- thinking about hypothetical scenarios, grasping abstract thoughts
- hallmark: abstract logic, moral reasoning develops

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121
Q

place theory

A

states that specific wavelength frequencies generate vibrations at specific loci on the basilar membrane of the cochlea
- hair cells located at the base of the basilar membrane are activated by high frequency sounds
- hair cells located at the apex of the basilar membrane are activated by low frequency sounds

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122
Q

operant conditioning

A

occurs when the likelihood of repeating a behavior is influenced by the outcome of that behavior

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123
Q

classical conditioning

A

occurs when a stimulus that did not previously elicit a meaningful response takes on the properties of a biologically arousing stimulus after being paired

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124
Q

observational learning

A

occurs as a result of watching others engage in a behavior

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125
Q

steps of operant conditioning

A
  1. increase motivational state (deprive of desirable stimulus)
  2. shaping (rewarding successive approximations of desirable behavior)
  3. continuous reinforcement (rewarding desirable behavior every time it occurs)
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126
Q

fluid intelligence

A

ability to apply logic and creative thinking to new situations

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127
Q

crystallized intelligence

A

ability to apply facts and acquired knowledge to situations

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128
Q

selective attention

A

ability to focus on one stimulus or task despite distractions

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129
Q

divided attention

A

ability to attend to two or more tasks or stimuli simultaneously

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130
Q

Recall memory

A

retrieval of information from memory
(fill in the blank tests)
without a prompt = free recall
with prompt = cued recall

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131
Q

Recognition memory

A

identification of previously learned information/target (multiple choice tests)

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132
Q

Relearning memory

A

re-encoding of information learned but forgotten (relearning algebra as an adult)

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133
Q

episodic memory examples

A

buying first car, first day of college
declines with age, autobiographical information

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134
Q

flashbulb memory examples

A

where one was when the 9/11 terrorist attacks were announced
declines with age

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135
Q

source memory examples

A

what news source reported the story, who announced the information
declines with age

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136
Q

semantic memory examples

A

names of people, colors, vocabulary
stable with aging

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137
Q

procedural memory examples

A

riding a bike, driving a car, serving a tennis ball
stable with aging

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138
Q

proactive vs retroactive inference

A

proactive (remembers the first person met of two people)
retroactive (remembers the second person met of two people)

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139
Q

myoglobin

A

substance that holds oxygen in muscles and organs

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140
Q

what vessels control blood pressure?

A

arterioles

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141
Q

reflex arc pathway

A

stimulus –> sensory neuron –> motor neuron –> reflex muscle movement

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142
Q

neuromuscular junction

A

area where neuron sends signal to muscle

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143
Q

defining characters of eukaryotic cells

A

membrane bound nucleus
membrane bound organelles
undergo mitosis resulting in two daughter cells with same number and kind of chromosomes

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144
Q

when do the centromeres split in mitosis & meiosis?

A

mitosis - anaphase
meiosis - anaphase II

145
Q

increased GFR does what to urine output

A

increase GFR (glomuler filtration rate) = increased urine output

146
Q

high blood pressure & urine output

A

higher blood pressure increases urine output

147
Q

what are two factors that normally determine blood pressure?

A

cardiac output
resistance to blood flow

148
Q

vasoconstriction is important in what situation? vasodilation is important in what situation?

A

vasoconstriction - restricting blood flow to an organ/hemorrhage
vasodilation - increasing blood flow to muscles during exercise

149
Q

role of albumin

A

protein that maintains osmotic pressure & keeps fluids from leaking out of bloodstream
made by the liver
increased serum albumin = higher BP

150
Q

how does the liver regenerate?

A

mitosis

151
Q

what metabolic processes do eukaryotes and prokaryotes share?

A

glycolysis, fermentation, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain

152
Q

osteoblast activity with PTH, Calcitonin, Calcitriol increase

A

osteoblasts will
PTH: decreases
Calcitonin: increases
Calcitriol: decrease

153
Q

osteoclast activity with PTH, Calcitonin, Calcitriol increase

A

osteoclasts will
PTH: increases
Calcitonin: decreases
calcitriol: increases

154
Q

Intestinal/Renal Calcium Absorption with PTH, Calcitonin, Calcitriol increases

A

intestinal/renal calcium absorption will:
PTH: increase
Calcitonin: decrease
Calcitriol: increase

155
Q

blood calcium levels with PTH, Calcitonin, calcitriol increases

A

blood calcium will
PTH: increase
calcitonin: decrease
calcitriol: increase

156
Q

parathyroid hormone restores homeostasis in what context of calcium?

A

when blood calcium levels are low, PTH increases osteoclast activity to increase blood plasma calcium levels

157
Q

what is a key determining factor of being considered a species?

A

ability to successfully interbreed and produce offspring
consisting of similar individuals

158
Q

aldosterone deficiency would cause what changes in blood pressure and volume? why?

A

decrease in volume, decrease in pressure
aldosterone stimulates Na+ (water follows sodium) reabsorption by the kidneys - less reabsorption by kidneys = more sodium & water excreted in the urine

159
Q

where does transcription occur? translation?

A

nucleus; cytoplasm

160
Q

the ectoderm gives rise to

A

epidermis & its derivatives
epithelium of mouth and anus
cornea/lens of eye
nervous system (including brain)
sensory receptors of skin
adrenal medulla
tooth enamel
epithelium of pineal and pituitary glands

161
Q

the mesoderm gives rise to

A

notochord
skeletal system
muscular layer of stomach/intestine
excretory system
circulatory/lymphatic system
reproductive system (NOT germ cells)
dermis
lining of body cavity
adrenal cortex

162
Q

the endoderm gives rise to

A

epithelium of digestive tract
epithelium of respiratory system
lining of urethra, bladder, and reproductive system
liver
pancreas
thymus
thyroid & parathyroid glands

163
Q

what metabolic pathways are anaerobic?

A

glycolysis
fermentation

164
Q

what is the size difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic ribosomal subunits?

A

eukaryotes: 80S (40S & 60S subunits)
prokaryotes: 70S (30S & 40S subunits)

165
Q

equal fitness of genotypes means

A

neither genotype is being selected FOR or AGAINST

166
Q

describe how a neuromuscular junction forms (and what happens if a signal is propagated through it)

A

motor neuron attaches to myocyte at a motor end plate
action potential of neuron releases Ach into synaptic cleft
Ach binds membrane receptors on motor end plate, activating ion channels and triggering muscle movement

167
Q

what muscles of the body contain striated muscle?

A

skeletal and cardiac muscle

168
Q

average body temperature in celcius and fahrenheit

A

celcius - 37˙C
fahrenheit - 98.6˙F

169
Q

vasodilation can also be referred to as

A

radiation

170
Q

what is the role of the gallbladder?

A

to store and concentrate bile, then release it to the small intestine to digest and absorb fats

171
Q

histones package dna into ______ that are ______ nm in size

A

nucleosome complexes
30 nm

172
Q

how can a physician tell from an x-ray that a child is still growing?

A

presence of growth plates - cartilaginous areas in the long bones
ossification (bone growth) - converting cartilage to bone

173
Q

how are we able to sweat if the epidermis, covered in keratin and oil, is relatively impermeable to water?

A

the presence of sweat glands

174
Q

actor-observer bias

A

actor - attribute it to external causes
observer - attribute someone else’s mistake or event to their own internal causes
(blaming the sidewalk when self trips vs blaming another person when they trip)

175
Q

central route vs peripheral route of persuasion

A

central route - based on the content itself (disease itself)
peripheral route - based on another factor (prestige of the physician)

176
Q

diathesis stress model

A

predisposition and stress can lead to mental disorder or state

177
Q

absorption of UV light by organic molecules always results in what?

A

excitation of bound electrons

can lead to bond breaking, but ALWAYS excitation of bound electrons

178
Q

why must a person either lean forward or push their feet back to stand up out of a chair?

A

to keep the body in equilibrium while rising
feet = pivot point, want to move the pivot point in line with center of mass to estaeblish rotational equilibrium

179
Q

what is a coordinate covalent bond?

A

a covalent bond in which the electrons came from one atm (ammonia and copper)

180
Q

electronegativity differences in ionic vs covalent bonds

A

covalent bonds = smaller electronegativity differences
ionic bonds = larger electronegativity differences

181
Q

coordination number

A

number of atoms, molecules, or ions bonded to a central atom (NH4 has coordination number of 4)

182
Q

what cell types are the most proliferative?

A

stem cells
epithelial tissue of internal organs (like GI tract)
skin cells
endothelium of blood vessels
smooth muscle cells

183
Q

what metabolic pathways produce ATP?

A

glycolysis
citric acid cycle
oxidative phosphorylation
electron transport chain
beta oxidation
fermentation

184
Q

the electron transport chain ________ reactions

A

couples

185
Q

inhibition of phosphofructokinase-1 by ATP is what kind of regulation?

A

feedback inhibition
allosteric regulation

186
Q

proteins that act in the nucleus typically have ?

A

a nuclear localization sequence

187
Q

what are some common covalent modifications?

A

phosphorylation (and dephosphorylation)
acetylation
ubiquitination

188
Q

Ubiquitination

A

marking of a protein for degradation by a proteosome

189
Q

Western Blot

A

used to detect post-translational modifications in proteins

190
Q

Southern Blot

A

detects specific DNA sequences (using restriction enzymes)

191
Q

Northern Blot

A

separates RNA sequences

192
Q

RT-PCR

A

analyzes changes in protein expression at the transcriptional level

193
Q

vasopressin increases the water permeability of what structure?

A

the collecting ducts

194
Q

prion

A

misfolded variants of a protein that can cause misfolding when interacting with normally folded variants of the same protein

195
Q

proteins are translated from __ terminus to __ terminus

A

N to C

196
Q

how long does it take sperm to develop? how long does it take eggs to develop?

A

sperm: at puberty, takes 3 months
eggs: prior to birth until after fertilization

197
Q

microtubules come from

A

the centrosome

198
Q

T cells require what to perform immune system functions?

A

viral antigens

199
Q

where do sperm become motile and capable of fertilization?

A

epididymis

200
Q

Reducing SDS Page vs Nonreducing SDS Page vs Native SDS Page

A

REDUCING: using DDT, it reduces disulfide bonds and breaks quaternary structure

NONREDUCING: disulfide bonds intact, breaks quaternary structure

NATIVE: disulfide bonds intact, quaternary structure intact, separates proteins by mass, charge and polarity

201
Q

what region of the retina has the highest visual acuity?

A

fovea (most cones)

202
Q

What historical factor primarily accounts for the projected increase in the population of 65+ year olds?

A

increase in fertility rate after WWII

203
Q

dependency ratio

A

number of people below the age of 14 and above the age of 65 that are not part of the workforce compared to the people ages 14-65 that are part of the workforce

204
Q

operant conditioning

A

a form of learning which occurs when changes in behavior occur due to previously experienced outcomes for that behavior. Behaviors which are rewarded increase in frequency

205
Q

fundamental attribution error

A

tendency to attribute other people’s behavior to internal, stable traits, rather than situational factors

206
Q

Freud psychosexual development

A

oral (0-1)
anal (1-3)
phallic (3-6)
latency (7-11)

207
Q

individual version of groupthink

A

confirmation bias

208
Q

right brain controls more ____
left brain controls more ____

A

creative processes
logical processes

209
Q

interference

A

information in memory interferes with the encoding, consolidation, or retrieval of other information
- study new material, any new information introduced between the initial learning (i.e., encoding) and retrieval, such as viewing a movie, will interfere with memory consolidation

210
Q

what type of intelligence involves delaying gratification in pursuit of long term rewards?

A

emotional intelligence

211
Q

CBT

A

addresses maladaptive behaviors through behavior therapy to systematically modify a person’s behavior - then sessions designed to foster cognitive change through self-assessments

212
Q
A
213
Q

Tautomerism

A

migration of a hydrogen atom from an α-carbon atom to an oxygen atom - hybridization of the α-carbon atom and oxygen atom change during the process

214
Q

Alpha vs beta glucose

A

Alpha glucose: C1 hydroxyl is pointed down
Beta glucose: C1 hydroxyl is pointed up

215
Q

group polarization

A

process that affects attitudes towards a topic
when people who agree on a topic are allowed to discuss, they become more polarized in their opinion

216
Q

uncontrollable exposure to an aversive stimulus results in ______________

A

learned helplessness

217
Q

sleep stages and brain waves associated with them

A

NREM1 - theta waves
NREM2 - theta waves
NREM3 - delta waves (deep sleep)
REM - resembles consciousness, where dreaming occurs

218
Q

the humanistic perspective explains behavior through

A

self concept and incongruence
(girl normalizes not doing her homework bc her friends dont do it to minimize incongruence between her ideal self and her actual self)

219
Q

changes in brain size as a function of environmental influences is an example of

A

neural plasticity

220
Q

encoding specificity

A

enhanced memory when testing takes place under the same conditions as learning

221
Q

habituation

A

loss of response to a repeating stimulus

222
Q

binocular depth cues

A

convergence and retinal disparity

223
Q

race vs ethnicity

A

ethnicity classifies by culture
race classified by physical characteristics

224
Q

social stigma

A

calls attention to how certain individuals or groups face social disapproval - usually associated with an attribute that is devalued

225
Q

anomie

A

alienation that individuals feel when social norms and social bonds are weak, associated with rapid social change

226
Q

rational choice perspective

A

theoretical framework that assumes people are rational beings who make decisions based on a cost-benefit analysis to achieve their goals

227
Q

demographic transition

A

suggests that economic changes, specifically industrialization, affect the relationship between the fertility and mortality rates in a society

228
Q

dramaturgical approach to social interaction

A

uses the metaphor of theater to understand social interactions - When interacting, people are assumed to act in accordance with the expectations of their audience

229
Q

there are issues with ______ if there is a variable that would better assess the phenomenon

A

validity

230
Q

ethnographic research

A

involves observing social interactions in real social settings

231
Q

atomic number

A

number of protons

232
Q

mass number

A

number of protons and neutrons

233
Q

changes in frequency and wavelength are dependent on

A

variation in speed

234
Q

reflected angle when surfaces are parallel

A

light ray is reflected perfectly and exits medium at the same angle (θ = θ’)

235
Q

a charged particle does what in an electric field?

A

accelerates

236
Q

kinetic vs thermodynamic product

A

kinetic = fastest to form (lowest transition state)
thermodynamic = most stable product, no matter activation energy or time it takes
“thermodynamic mixture” = thermodynamic control = higher yield product is thermodynamic

237
Q

doppler effect

A

move closer to frequency emission = higher frequency (pushing sound waves together)
move farther from frequency emission = lower frequency

238
Q

what property would be useful to indicate relative thermodynamic stability?

A

heat of combustion (boiling point = because of INTERmolecular forces, not INTRAmolecular)

239
Q

if labeling a molecule to track it, you would want to label it at what point?

A

a point where the molecule does not interact with anything else (carbon in water solvent)

240
Q

porphyrin is composed of

A

4 pyrroles (5 membered rings containing one nitrogen atom)

241
Q

fast twitch muscle fibers have a

A

greater calcium pumping capacity

242
Q

convergent evolution

A

organisms that aren’t closely related evolve similar features or behaviours, often as solutions to the same problems
(bird and butterfly both have wings to fly in their environments but no common ancestors)

243
Q

proteases are what kind of enzyme?

A

hydrolases

244
Q

genes encoded on the same operon will share

A

the same promoter and mRNA fragment

245
Q

histone acetylation has what affect on transcription?

A

activates transcription by reducing attractive forces between histone proteins, opening it up

246
Q

DNA methylation has what effect on transcription?

A

decreases transcription because of steric hindrance of methylation on A & C nucleotides

247
Q

restriction enzymes cut

A

palindromic sequences

248
Q

parent specific transmission of genes is due to

A

gene imprinting (imprinting gene from one parent, other parent gene gets expressed)

249
Q

RNA viruses replicate themselves by

A

inserting themselves into host genomes and transcribe their RNA using REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE

250
Q

what portion of the nephron filters circulating proteins?

A

glomerulus

251
Q

enzymes are typically most active at what temperature?

A

body temperature (37˚C)

252
Q

what kind of cells secrete mucus?

A

Goblet cells (epithelial cell)

253
Q

order that filtrate passes through nephron

A

Bowman’s capsule → proximal tubule → loop of Henle → distal tubule → collecting duct

254
Q

neuroticism

A

personality trait that describes a tendency to experience negative emotions, such as anxiety, anger, guilt, and depression

255
Q

emotional arousal has what effect on attention?

A

emotional arousal causes a restriction on focus of attention (focus attention on a central point)

256
Q

what part of the eye is responsible for color vision?

A

cones in the retina

257
Q

REM rebound

A

the body will attempt to make up for lost REM (interrupt REM night before = more REM the next night)

258
Q

a person’s socioeconomic status is usually determined by their

A

income, occupational prestige, wealth, and educational attainment

259
Q

extinction

A

the loss of behavior associated with operant conditioning when reinforcement is removed

260
Q

associative learning refers to

A

operant and classical conditioning

261
Q

NMDA receptors are

A

glutamate receptors

262
Q

self verification

A

refers to the tendency to seek out (and agree with) information that is consistent with one’s self-concept

263
Q

latent vs manifest function

A

manifest - intended outcome
latent - unintended outcome (not explicitly acknowledged)

264
Q

example of sensory interaction

A

some people cannot balance on one foot with their eyes closed, they have to open their eyes to do so

265
Q

ionic substances are ________ in polar substances

A

soluble

266
Q

if equilibrium shifts to the right to produce more ionized products, the degree of ionization will

A

be greater

267
Q

why does water not need to be included in the equilibrium expressions?

A

the concentration of water stays relatively constant

268
Q

empirical formula

A

ratio of molecules in a compound
(H2O2 is HO)

269
Q

the reducing agent ________ electrons

A

donates

270
Q

the focal length of a mirror only depends on

A

the radius of the curvature

271
Q

why does light slow down when it enters a denser medium?

A

As light moves in a medium, it encounters atoms of which the medium is made up of. Upon its interaction, light is being absorbed by the atoms and is then re-emitted

272
Q

what circuit elements store energy?

A

capacitor and batteries
given by equation .5CVc^2

273
Q

path of sperm cells for fertilization

A

epididymis
vas deferens
urethra
vagina
cervix
uterus
fallopian tube

274
Q

complete pathway of a neural impulse during knee jerk reaction

A

sensory neuron, motor neuron

275
Q

a molecule with high electron affinity will do what with an electron

A

readily accept it (get reduced)

276
Q

in a sarcomere, what does NOT change length?

A

myosin filaments

277
Q

the appendix is in close contact with

A

the colon

278
Q

what is shadowing in auditory tests in psychology?

A

repeating the stimulus word for word in one ear while hearing stimuli in both ears

279
Q

why is continuous reinforcement best for subjects during the acquisition phase of operant conditioning?

A

the schedule unambiguously informs the subject which behavior is correct

280
Q

instinctual drift

A

phenomenon whereby established habits, learned using operant techniques, eventually are replaced by innate food-related behaviors

281
Q

primary agents of socialization

A

family, school, peers, media

282
Q

front stage self

A

acting a certain way in front of an audience knowing you are subject to judgement from them in order to influence their perception of you

283
Q

back stage self

A

acting a different way than front stage self when there is no audience, but just a group of people you are interacting with

284
Q

proximal vs distal stimulus

A

distal stimulus = physical stimulus
proximal stimulus = stimulus image that falls on the retina

285
Q

What methodology will best show how perceptual illusions impact our judgments of the nature of stimuli?

A

psychophysical discrimination testing

286
Q

higher positive reduction potential means:
larger negative reduction potential means:

A

higher + = more easily reduced, better oxidizing agent (more likely to gain electrons)
larger - = more easily oxidized, better reducing agent (more likely to lose electrons)

287
Q

basic ions are more soluble in ______ solution

A

acidic

288
Q

what increases the rate of an electrolytic cell?

A

increasing the current

289
Q

positive hydropathy index indicates that amino acids are ________

A

hydrophobic (located in the transmembrane region in the plasma membrane)

290
Q

Michaelis Menten dependent variable

A

initial velocity

291
Q

what event occurs when a GPCR is activated?

A

the alpha subunit binds GTP

292
Q

damage to nearby cells caused by lysis is due to

A

necrosis

293
Q

what type of transport is the Na+ K+ ATPase?

A

active transport

294
Q

what amino acid has the highest isoelectric focusing point?

A

Arginine (most basic)

295
Q

which amino acids can form hydrogen bonds?

A

serine, threonine, tyrosine, glutamine, asparagine

296
Q

specific activity

A

the enzyme units per milligram of total protein in solution

297
Q

surfactant

A

reduce the surface tension of a liquid (ex: pulmonary surfactant decreases surface tension of liquid and total force resisting expansion, making it easier to breathe)

298
Q

relative ionization energies of orbitals

A

s > p > d > f
(closer to nucleus = higher ionization energy)

299
Q

photos emitted from what energy levels will produce visible light?

A

anything above n=3 to n=2

300
Q

electrons with the most ___ character have the highest energy

A

s

301
Q

sn1 preferences

A

3˚ alkyl halide > 2˚ > 1˚

stability of carbocation !

302
Q

what group 17 acid is NOT a strong acid?

A

HF (due to unusually high degree of covalent bonding to hydrogen)

303
Q

phosphoric vs phosphorous acid

A

phosphoric = H3PO4
phosphorous = H3PO3

304
Q

transduction

A

form of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria in which bacteriophages (viruses that infect bacteria) transmit genomic material

305
Q

what cell type is least likely to be found in the G0 phase?

A

epithelial cells
constantly reproducing, often not in cell growth arrest phase

306
Q

what is the role of malonyl CoA in the context of beta oxidation?

A

it prevents beta oxidation of newly synthesized fatty acids

307
Q

what solvents do sn1 and sn2 prefer?

A

sn1: polar protic (H2O, ROH)
sn2: polar aprotic (acetone)

308
Q

what is the blood brain barrier primarily composed of?

A

endothelial cells with tight junctions

309
Q

unconditioned stimulus

A

stimulus that triggers a natural response
(shock automatically triggers fear)

310
Q

unconditioned response

A

automatic response
response that naturally occurs (fear)

311
Q

conditioned stimulus

A

neutral stimulus that illicits a response over time

312
Q

conditioned response

A

behavior that is learned from a neutral stimulus pairing

313
Q

self serving bias

A

attribute good outcomes with internal factors and bad outcomes with external factors

314
Q

what kind of neurons are motor neurons, sensory neurons, and interneurons?

A

motor neurons = efferent
sensory neurons = afferent
interneurons = neither

315
Q

ratio level measurement vs interval/ordinal level measurement

A

ratio level - can be 0
interval/ordinal - scale that cannot be 0

316
Q

wernicke’s vs broca’s aphasia

A

wernicke’s = trouble comprehending words (difficulty connecting meaning to language)
broca’s = trouble producing words

317
Q

moderating vs mediating variable

A

moderating variable = changes the strength between variables (higher for one gender)
mediating variable = explains why the IV affects the DV

318
Q

self efficacy vs self esteem

A

self esteem = respect and self worth of oneself
self efficacy = how competent one believes they are to complete a task

319
Q

confabulation

A

symptom of Korsakoff’s syndrome
making up memories to fill in the gaps and believing those memories are true

320
Q

the hippocampus is responsible for

A

memory

321
Q

phosphatase vs phosphorylase

A

phosphatase dephosphorylates
phosphorylase phosphorylates

322
Q

actin is composed of

A

microfilaments

323
Q

what amino acids can be phosphorylated?

A

serine, threonine, tyrosine (OH)

324
Q

if you want to observe something to see if it binds to something else, what conditions should you run gel electrophoresis under?

A

NATIVE because youre testing if it binds to something, AKA DOING ITS JOB, AKA its native state

325
Q

hill coefficient value meanings

A

above 1 = positive cooperativity
below 1 = negative cooperativity
~ 1 = independent

326
Q

what is the major component of the bacterial cell wall?

A

peptidoglycan

327
Q

the ganglia of the SNS and the ganglia of the PNS differ in the sense that

A

the ganglia of the SNS are interconnected, while the ganglia of the PNS are not interconnected

328
Q

what is the direction of alpha, beta, and gamma rays in the presence of an external magnetic field?

A

gamma rays travel straight
alpha and beta particles are bent but travel in opposite directions

329
Q

what happens the concentration of a solute exceeds its solubility limit?

A

a precipitate forms

330
Q

the speed of sound is greatest in what medium?

A

solid (strong IMF and proximity of molecules)

331
Q

what is NOT included in the equilibrium expression?

A

solids and liquids

332
Q

is a long chain fatty acid or short chain fatty acid more soluble in water?

A

short chain

333
Q

how many hydrogen bonds are there in an AT base pair and a GC base pair

A

AT = 2
GC = 3

334
Q

As blood passes through actively contracting skeletal muscle tissue, the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen in the muscle tissue

A

decreases as pH decreases

335
Q

Henry’s Law

A

C=kP
c = concentration
k = henrys constant
P = partial pressure

336
Q

what happens to the inactive X chromosome in mammalian females?

A

it is one of the very last to get replicated in order to avoid duplicates

337
Q

what controls the flow of digestive juices into the small intestine?

A

hepatopancreatic sphincter

338
Q

a lower blood osmolarity (/a higher blood volume) indicates what?

A

the body is acting to conserve water

339
Q

cardiac output =

A

stroke volume * heart rate

340
Q

when oxygen is running low, especially during exercise, what does the body do?

A

use lactic acid fermentation to regenerate NAD+ to go into glycolysis

341
Q

reverse transcriptase converts

A

RNA to DNA

342
Q

microglia

A

phagocytotic innate immune cells specific to the brain
- initiate immune response in meningitis

343
Q

the blood brain barrier has what kind of junctions?

A

tight junctions

344
Q

what can cause hyperpolarization

A

influx of Cl- ions
efflux of K+ ions

345
Q

amber codon

A

UAG (stop codon)

346
Q

nondisjunction

A

failure of chromosomes to separate

347
Q

discriminating stimuli

A

when an organism learns to respond differently to various stimuli that are similar

348
Q

behaviorism

A

holds that only actual outcomes are determinant of behavior

349
Q

relationship between extrinsic motivation and external motivation

A

extrinsic = broader term, includes external motivation

350
Q

role of the retina

A

detect light rays and convert them into a signal that the brain can use

351
Q

glass escalator

A

structural advantage that males possess in female-dominated occupations that tend to enhance their careers

352
Q

cultural capital

A

accumulation of outlooks, knowledge, preferences, skills

353
Q

maladaptiveness

A

behavior interferes with everyday life

354
Q

parkinsons pathology

A

too little dopamine

355
Q

overextension

A

child calling a moth a butterfly because she applies one class of objects onto another

356
Q

medicalization

A

considering behaviors that weren’t previously medical conditions to be medical conditions

357
Q

self efficacy

A

refers to a person’s belief in his or her ability to accomplish tasks
can be described in terms of predicting one’s coping ability

358
Q

in bernoullis principle, if viscosity is neglected, the relationship b/w P & velocity is _______ and the relationship b/w P & A is _________

A

inverse
direct

359
Q
A

MCAT Prep (5 decks)

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