UWorld Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Complications of acute pancreatitis

A

Effusion, ileus, pseudocyst, abscess, necrosis, renal failure, ARDS

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2
Q

Immediate treatment for CRAO/amarousis fugax

A

Ocular massage, high flow oxygen

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3
Q

Treatment for Prinzmetal’s angina

A

Cardizem

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4
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by

A

HHV-8

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5
Q

Ventricular arrhythmias 2/2 AMI Type IA vs IB

A

1A: re-entrant
1B: abnormal automaticity

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6
Q

HBV treatment indicated when… Treat with…

A

Cirrhosis, CTX/IS, acute liver failure. Tenofovir

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7
Q

Tinnitus, hearing loss, acoustic neuroma, cafe-au-lait spots

A

NF

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8
Q

Which fungal infection mimics sarcoid?

A

Histoplasmosis

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9
Q

NC granulomas are characteristic of which fungal infection?

A

Histoplasmosis

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10
Q

The 2 fungal infections that mimic TB

A

Histo-cough/nodosum/NC gran; and Blasto

Blasto: skin lesions, osteolytic, prostate

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11
Q

This fungal infection is endemic to SW USA.

A

Coccidocymycosis

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12
Q

What types of screening should be performed in patients with compensated cirrhosis?

A

U/S, EGD, AFP q 6 months

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13
Q

Medical therapy for variceal hemorrhage

A

Beta blockers

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14
Q

Treatment for ascites

A

Paracentesis, Na restriction

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15
Q

Oligoclonal bands in CSF

A

MS

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16
Q

Albuminocytologic dissociation in CSF

A

GBS

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17
Q

Decreased FEV1:FVC

A

Obstructive lung disease; decreased DLCO: COPD vs . non-decreased=asthma

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18
Q

Normal FEV1:FVC

A

Restrictive lung disease; Decreased DLCO: ILD vs. non-decreased: OHS, MG, ALS, chest wall

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19
Q

Winter’s formula

A

Determines appropriate respiratory compensation

PaCO2 = (1.5 x HCO3) + 8 +/-2

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20
Q

Polyarthralgias, tenosynovitis, vesiculopustular lesions

A

Disseminated gonococcal infection

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21
Q

Erythema migrans

A

Lyme

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22
Q

What type of rash in disseminated meningococcal infection/

A

Petechial

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23
Q

The major blood transfusion reactions

A

Immediate: IgA, anaphylactic
1-hour: Acute hemolytic 2/2 ABOi, fever/flank/DIC
Urticarial: 2-3 hours, IgE
Febrile: 1-6 houts 2/2 WBC releasing cytokines (leukocyte reduced)
2-10 days: Delayed hemolytic; anamestic Ab/sensitized
ALI: donor anti-leukocyte Ab; respiratory distress

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24
Q

Which nephrotic syndrome a/w AA’s, HIV, heroin?

A

FSGS

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25
Q

Which nephrotic syndrome a/w HBV?

A

MN

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26
Q

Differentiate between 2 types of esophageal ca.

A

Adenoca: GE junction 2/2 Barrett’s
Squamous: Anywhere, smoking/EtOH

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27
Q

Low risk vs high risk for esophageal cancer studies

A

Low risk: Barium esophagram

High risk: Endoscopy

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28
Q

Initial treatment of a prolactinoma with no visual symptoms.

A

Cabergoline, bromocriptine

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29
Q

Beck’s triad

A

Hypotension, JVD, muffled heart sounds

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30
Q

Pulsus paradoxus

A

Decrease in SBP by 10 with inspiration

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31
Q

Leukemoid reaction vs. CML

A

L: 50,000, high LAP
CM: 100,000 bcr-abl; basophilia

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32
Q

Most ideal treatment for HTN

A

Weight loss

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33
Q

Live attenuated vaccines

A

MMR, VZV, Yellow fever, IN influenza, Oral polio, Rota

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34
Q

Klinefelter has high or low FSH/LH

A

High

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35
Q

What combination of drugs can be used to correct K abnormalities in treatment of CHF?

A

Lasix, ACEi

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36
Q

Anti-topoisomerase Ab

A

Scleroderma

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37
Q

Anti-mitochondrial Ab

A

PBC

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38
Q

Anti-smooth muscle Ab

A

AI hepatitis

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39
Q

What is ichthytosis

A

Dry and rough skin with horny plates on the limbs

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40
Q

CYP Inducers

A

Phenobarbital, Carbamzepine, Rifampin, OCP, Ginsing, St. Johns

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41
Q

CYP Inhibitors

A

Tyl, Flagyl, NSAIDS, Amiodarione, Cranbery, SSSI, Omeprazole

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42
Q

What drug relieves symptoms of diffuse esophageal spasm?

A

NG

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43
Q

Where is angiotensinogen made?

A

Liver

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44
Q

Why should you avoid NSAID’s in acute kidney injury?

A

PG’s help dilate the afferent arteriole

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45
Q

Pulmonary hypertension in obesity hypoventilation syndrome is 2/2

A

Hypoxic vasoconstriction

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46
Q

Major potential adverse effect of PTU/Methimazole

A

Agranulocytosis

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47
Q

Broca’s aphasia vs. Wenicke’s aphasia

A

Broca’s: Expressive

Wernicke’s: Comprehension

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48
Q

Greatest risk factor for CVA

A

Hypertension

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49
Q

What converts angiotensinogen into A1?

A

Renin

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50
Q

Where is ACE enzyme located?

A

Lung

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51
Q

What infection is common to gardeners?

A

Sporothrix

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52
Q

Hepatic hydrothorax can lead to R or L effusion?

A

R

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53
Q

Do you need a contrast CT for nephrolithiasis?

A

No

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54
Q

Does lupus anti-coagulant leads to increased or decreased PTT?

A

Increased

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55
Q

What is d-dimer

A

It is cross-linking fibrin, when the clot dissolves, d-dimer goes up

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56
Q

A potential complication of mono, besides splenic rupture.

A

AIHA (Cold, IgM)

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57
Q

How do you treat severe uremic pericarditis?

A

Dialysis

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58
Q

Long-term use of NSAIDS can lead to…

A

Peptic ulcers

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59
Q

What is the FDA approved drug to use in cancer cachexia?

A

Progesterone analogues: megestrol

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60
Q

For what is Marinol approved?

A

AIDS wasting

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61
Q

Does hyper or hypothyroid predispose to carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Hypothyroid

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62
Q

Differentiate Mobitz 1 vs 2

A

1: Increasingly long PR interval –> dropped
2: Dropped QRS every x-time

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63
Q

What skin findings is a/w glucagonoma?

A

Necrolytic migratory erythema

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64
Q

Differentiate Boerheave from MW.

A

Boerheave: painful, perforation

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65
Q

Reactive arthritis

A

Can’t pee, see, climb a tree

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66
Q

What substance is indicated in hepato-renal syndrome?

A

NO; try to induce splanchnic vasoconstriction

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67
Q

HIT is 2/2

A

Conformational change of PF4 –> IgG platelet activation, thrombosis and thrombocytopenia

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68
Q

CMV ppx

A

Valgancyclovir

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69
Q

PCP ppx

A

Bactrim

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70
Q

Smudge cells are pathognomic for…

A

CLL

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71
Q

3 major AE’s of Amiodarone

A

TFT, LFT, PFT

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72
Q

Where is angiodysplasia most likely to be located in colon?

A

Right colon

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73
Q

Anti-glutamate decarboxylase Ab

A

DM1

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74
Q

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

A

Fever, AMS, abdominal pain

PMN’s > 250; +CX; Protein 1.1

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75
Q

T/F Angiodysplasia is a/w aortic stenosis

A

True; AS –> VW disease/renal disease

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76
Q

FAP is AD/AR. What is the colon cancer risk? When is total proctocolectomy indicated?

A

AD; risk is 100%; at the time of diagnosis

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77
Q

T/F Any patient with an acute, severe illness may have abnormal thyroid function tests

A

True

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78
Q

The pathogenesis of ACEi induced cough…

A

Increase in circulating inflammatory mediators: bradykinin, substance P, PG’s

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79
Q

Rapidly progrssive dementia, myoclonus, sharp, triphasic synchronus discharges on EEG

A

Creutzfeld-Jakob disease

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80
Q

Dementia caused by a defect in AD gene on ch 4

A

Huntington’s: striatal neuro-degeneration

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81
Q

Histopathological findings of neurfibrilary tangles and amyloid plaques

A

Alzheimer’s

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82
Q

Neurodegeneration of frontal and temporal lobes

A

Pick’s disease

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83
Q

Bitter almond breath indicates inhaled…

A

CN

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84
Q

This toxin, when inhaled, results in a pinkish-red skin hue

A

CO

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85
Q

This inhalation results in cyanosis and bluish discoloration of skin and mucus membranes

A

MethHgb

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86
Q

This syndrome is caused by excessive intake of Ca and absorable alkali

A

Milk Alkali Syndrome

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87
Q

Major effect of Angiotensin 2 in the renal artery…

A

Preferential vasoconstriction of the efferent arterioles, resulting in increased intra-glomerular pressure

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88
Q

A young obese female with headaches and shrunken ventricles…

A

Pseudotumor cerebri

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89
Q

Examples of first generation anti-histamines

A

Diphenhydramine, doxepin, hydroxyzine

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90
Q

T/F Acyclovir can result in crystal-induced kidney injury

A

True, along with sulfonamides, MTX, protease inhibitiors

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91
Q

The most common cause of isolated aortic regurg in young adults in developed countries… And in developing countries

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

- Rheumatic heart disease

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92
Q

Wide, fixed and split S2

A

ASD

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93
Q

Harsh creschendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at apex

A

HOCOM (Valsalva and standing decrease PL and increase intensity of murmur)

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94
Q

Treatment of stable VT (wide complex, fusion beats)

A

IV Amiodarone (procainamide, sotalol, lidocaine)

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95
Q

Treatment of paroxsysmal SVT

A

Carotid massage

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96
Q

Upper vs. lower lip; BCC vs. SCC

A

Basal cell: upper lip; SCC: lower lip

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97
Q

Most common cause of esophageal rupture

A

Endoscopy

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98
Q

What is the best study to demonstrate esophageal perforation?

A

Contrast esophagram with water soluble contrast (barium has higher sensitivity, but is second line)

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99
Q

Acute chest pain, subcutaenous emphysema, left-pleural effusion classically represents

A

Esophageal perforation

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100
Q

Major complication of pseudotumor cerebri

A

Blindness

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101
Q

The pathophysiology of pseudotumor cerebri

A

Impaired absorption of CSF by arachnoid villi

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102
Q

Medical treatment of pseudotumor cerebri

A

Weight reduction and acetazolamide

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103
Q

Surgical treatment of pseudotumor cerebri

A

Shunting or optic nerve sheath fenestration

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104
Q

Complications of pneumonia

A

Complicated parapneumonic effusions, empyema

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105
Q

Do complicated parapneumonic effusions have positive or negative pleural fluid gram stain?

A

Negative

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106
Q

This tick-borne illness is a/w leukopenia and thrombocytopenia, elevated LDH and transaminitis

A

Ehrlichia; treat with doxy (SE US)

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107
Q

CT scan after TBI that shows numerous minute punctate hemorrhages with blurring of grey-white interface

A

DAI

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108
Q

T/F Heterophile Ab can be negative early in the course of infectious mononucleosis

A

True

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109
Q

Common cause of false positive VDRL in pregnant women

A

Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome

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110
Q

Is Warfarin contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

Yes

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111
Q

Anti-thyroid peroxidase Ab

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

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112
Q

This type of skin cancer arises from an enlargening nodule, and can display early perineural invasion

A

SCC

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113
Q

Which skin cancer is especially common in patients on chronic IS therapy?

A

SCC

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114
Q

The most popular treatment for hyperthyroidism in the USA

A

Radioactive I.

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115
Q

The greatest risk of developing hypothyroidism following radioactive I treatment is seen in patients with…

A

Graves disease

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116
Q

Contact-lens keratitis is usually secondary to…

A

Gram negative organisms, i.e Pseudomonas

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117
Q

In keratitis, is the cornea spared?

A

No. Whereas in conjunctivitis, it is spared

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118
Q

Pityriasis rosea vs. Pityriasis versicolor

A

Rosea: Xmas tree herald patch
Versicolor: Malassexia, hypopigmented, don’t tan

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119
Q

Spaghetti and meatball pattern on KOH

A

Pityriseas versicolor

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120
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can lead to…

A

Lymphoma of the thyroid

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121
Q

Thyroid cancer of C cell origin

A

MTC

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122
Q

Initial treatment of severe hypovolemic hypernatremia? What about less severe?

A

IV NS; less severe are treated with D51/2NS

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123
Q

Treatment for euvolemic/hypervolemic hypernatremia

A

D5W

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124
Q

Treatment of hypernatremia based on volume status

A

Hypovolemic-Severe: IV NS
Hypovolemic-Mild: D5 1/2 NS
Euvolemic/Hypervolemic: D5W

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125
Q

Anti-histone Ab

A

Drug-induced lupus

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126
Q

Anti-CCP

A

RA

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127
Q

Triad of inflammatory arthritis, splenomegaly and neutropenia

A

Felty syndrome (patients with long-standing RA)

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128
Q

What is the anion gap?

A

Na - (Cl+HCO3)

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129
Q

MGUS vs. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulimemia

A

MGUS: no end organ anemi, HSM, LAD, systemic symptoms

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130
Q

Overdose: hyperthermia, dilated pupils, intestinal ileus, QRS prolongation

A

TCA

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131
Q

QT prolongation 2/2 TDP is treated with

A

Mg

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132
Q

Overdose: Bradycardia, miosis, salivation

A

Cholingergic toxicity - treat with atropine

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133
Q

Crohn’s vs. UC: bloody diarrhea, pseudopolyps, non-rectal sparing, no skip lesions, mucosal/SM involvement, crypt absecess

A

UC

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134
Q

T/F Tick borne paralysis usually progresses over hours

A

True

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135
Q

Descending paralysis and CN involvment

A

Botulism

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136
Q

Rapidly progressive ascending paralysis (asymmetrical), absence of fever/sensory abnormalities, normal CSF

A

Tick-borne paralysis

* Remove the tick!

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137
Q

Trihexyphenidyl

A

Anti-cholinergic used in younger Parkinson’s patients for whom tremor is the predominant symptom

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138
Q

First-line treatment for essential tremor

A

Propranolol

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139
Q

Treatment of Warm AIHA

A

CS

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140
Q

Treatment of Cold AIHA

A

Rituxan

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141
Q

Butterfly appearance of a brain tumor

A

GBM

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142
Q

Treatment of Nocardia vs. Actinomyces

A

Nocardia: Bactrim
Actinomyces: PCN

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143
Q

Anaerobic, filamentous branching bcteria that colonizes the oral cavity

A

Actinomyces

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144
Q

Aerobic cs. Anaerobic: Nocardia/Actinomyces

A

Nocardia: Aerobic
Actinomyces: Anaerobic

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145
Q

Cervicofacial involvement in a diabetic patient undergoing dental procedure

A

Actinomyces

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146
Q

Describe how a patient with a PE can experience signs/symptoms of hypocalcemia.

A

Respiratory alkalosis results in albumin letting go of H+, and then it picks up Ca.

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147
Q

Three forms of Ca in the blood

A

Ionized (active), albumin, inorganic anions

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148
Q

TRAP+, CD11a+ leukemia

A

Hairy cell leukemia

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149
Q

Reed-Sterberg cells are characteristic of…

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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150
Q

Vagal maneuvers can abolish PSVT by…

A

Decreasing AV nodal conductivity (also adenosine)

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151
Q

Activated charcoal within X hours of Tylenol ingestion

A

4

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152
Q

What is the toxic dose of Tylenol ingestion?

A

7.5 g

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153
Q

When do you I&D a stye?

A

After 48 hours of non-improvement with warm compresses

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154
Q

Bird-beak narrowing on barium swallow

A

Achalasia

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155
Q

Foul smelling sputum along with an indolent course of fever, malaise, cough

A

Aspiration pneumonia caused by anaerobes

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156
Q

Drug of choice for PCP pneumonia

A

Bactrim

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157
Q

3 options for anaerobic coverage from oral pathogens

A

Amoxicillin, Augmentin, Clinda

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158
Q

Diastolic decrescendo murmur with widened pulse pressure

A

Aortic regurgitation

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159
Q

Pulsus parvus and tardus

A

Aortic stenosis

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160
Q

Valve surgery is indicated in native valve bacterial endocarditis when…

A

Valvular dysfunction resulting in CHF, infection persistent or difficult to treat medically, recurrent septic embolization

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161
Q

Causes of microscopic hematuria

A

Renal (cancer, nephropathy), Ureteral (stricture, stone), bladder (cancer, cystitis), prostate/uretheral (BPH, prostate cancer, uretheritis)

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162
Q

Most important risk factor for bladder cancer

A

Cigarette smoking

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163
Q

Rectal sparing: UC or Crohn’s

A

Crohn’s

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164
Q

Intestinal complications of Crohn’s vs. UC

A

Crohn’s: Fistulas, strictures, abscesses

UC: Toxic megacolon

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165
Q

Crohn’s vs. UC: Absence of perianal abnormalities

A

UC

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166
Q

Crohn’s vs. UC: Continuous inflammation

A

UC

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167
Q

Crohn’s vs. UC: Bloody diarrhea

A

UC

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168
Q

Crohn’s vs. UC: Rectal inflammation

A

UC

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169
Q

Crohn’s vs. UC: Pseudopolyps

A

UC

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170
Q

Crohn’s vs. UC: NC granulomas

A

Crohn’s

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171
Q

Crohn’s vs. UC: Cobblestoning

A

Crohn’s

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172
Q

Reduced spermatogenesis, gynecomastia, mood disturbances, aggressive behavior

A

Androgen abuse

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173
Q

Immediate synchronized direct current cardioversion is indicated when patients p/w

A

Tachyarrhythmia causing hemodynamic instability (hypotension, shock, AMS, pulmonary edema)

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174
Q

A patient with RA with a soft, tender mass in the popliteal fossa

A

Baker’s cyst (2/2 excessive fluid production by inflamed synovium)

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175
Q

The hallmark of frostbite treatment

A

Rapid rewarming in a warm water bath

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176
Q

Overdose: dry as a bone, blind as a bat, hot as a hare, full as a flask

A

Anti-cholinergic

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177
Q

Hypotension, pigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, eosinophilia, high ACTH, and low corisol

A

Primary adrenal insufficiency

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178
Q

Most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency in developed countries

A

Autoimmune adrenalitis

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179
Q

Lambert-Eaton Syndrome is 2/2

A

Auto-antibodies to presynaptic membrane voltage-gated Ca channels: diminished or absent deep-tendon reflexes

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180
Q

Dematomyositis is a paraneoplastic syndrome resulting from

A

Muscle fiber injury

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181
Q

Gottron papules, heliotrope rash

A

Dermatomyositis

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182
Q

All patients with CRF and HCT

A

Fe deficiency

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183
Q

Most common AE’s of EPO therapy

A

Worsening of hypertension, headache, flu-like, red cell aplasia

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184
Q

Leading cause of ESRD in US

A

DM: glomerular hyperperfusion/hypertrophy; GBM thickening; microalbuminuria–> nephropathy

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185
Q

Bence-Jones proteinuria

A

MM

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186
Q

________________ common in travelers in tropical regions, characterized by pruritic, serpiginous lesions on the skin; contact with sand

A

Cutaneous larva migrans

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187
Q

Lateral chest leads

A

I, avL

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188
Q

Anterior chest leads

A

V1-V4

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189
Q

Inferior chest leads

A

2, 3, avF

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190
Q

Strongest predictor of cardiac stent thrombosis within 12 months

A

Premature discontinuation of (dual) anti-platelet therpay

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191
Q

T/F Tylenol potentiates the anticoagulant effect of Warfarin

A

True

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192
Q

What is prothrombin complex concentrate?

A

Kcentra’ contains vitamin K dependent clotting factors (2, 7, 9, 10)

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193
Q

To reverse Coumadin immediately

A

Kcentra, FFP, (Vitamin K)

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194
Q

Urgent reversal of heparin

A

Protamine sulfate

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195
Q

Pulmonary infection PLUS impaired bacterial clearance (obstruction of airway, impairment of drainage, defect in immune response)

A

Bronchiectasis

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196
Q

Lower lobe emphysema is c/w

A

Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

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197
Q

Periodic febrile paroxysms coupled with nonspecific malaise, headache, n/v, abdominal pain, HSM

A

Malaria (Plasmodium falciparum)

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198
Q

First line treatment for Alzheimer’s

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine)

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199
Q

Side effect of high-dose niacin for severe hypertriglyceridemia; how do you prevent it?

A

Cutaneous flushing and intensive generalized pruritis 2/2 peripheral vasodilation. Can be prevented with ASA

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200
Q

What is doxazosin? Caution should be used in prescribing this with what other drug?

A

Alpha-blocker; caution in Rx with Viagra

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201
Q

First line treatment for Giardia

A

Flagyl

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202
Q

Valsalva, abrupt standing, and NG effect on HOCM murmur

A

Increase intensity 2/2 decreased preload

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203
Q

Two most common mutations in HOCM

A

Cardiac myosin binding protein C gene; cardiac beta-myosin heavy chain gene

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204
Q

AE Methotrexate

A

Purine antimetabolite; hepatotoxicity, stomatitis, cytopenias

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205
Q

AE Leflunomide

A

Pyridine synthesis inhibitor; hepatotoxicity, cytopenias

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206
Q

AE Hydroxychloroquine

A

TNF/IL-1; Retinopathy

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207
Q

AE TNF inhibitiors: Adalimumab, Etanercept, Infliximab

A

Anti-cytokine agents; Infection, demylination, CHF, malignancy

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208
Q

The conversion of homocysteine to methionine requires

A

B12/Folate

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209
Q

To differentiate between folate or B12 deficiency, order the blood level of this substance

A

MMA

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210
Q

Most common primary immune deficiency

A

IgA deficiency

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211
Q

Patients with IgA deficiency p/w these 2 types of infection

A

Sinopulmonary, GI (Giardia)

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212
Q

Syndrome: recurrent sinopulmonary infections, eczema, thrombocytopenia

A

Wiskott-Aldrich

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213
Q

Symptoms of theophylline toxicity

A

CNS stimulation (ha, insomnia, seizures), GI disturbances, arrhythmia

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214
Q

Beta vs. Alpha thal geography

A

Beta: Mediterranean
Alpha: SE Asia

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215
Q

HIV: White plaques in esophagus

A

Candida

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216
Q

HIV: Large linear ulcers in esophagus (intranuclear and intracytoplasmic)

A

CMV/Gancyclovir

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217
Q

HIV: Vesicles; round; ovoid ulcers

A

HSV/Acyclovir

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218
Q

Mild oral thrush in HIV can be empirically treated with

A

Fluconazole

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219
Q

Scrombroid p/w

A

Flushing, urticria

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220
Q

Listeria p/w

A

meningitis

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221
Q

Ciguateriap/w

A

Paresthesia

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222
Q

On flow cytometry, absence of CD55 and CD59

A

PNH; these proteins normally inhibit the activation of complement

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223
Q

Treatment of PNH

A

Fe, Folate; Eculizumab (Mab that inhibits complement activation)

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224
Q

Hemolysis, Cytopenia, Portal Vein Thrombosis

A

PNH

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225
Q

Third most common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

Hypertriglyceridemia

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226
Q

Three most common causes of AS

A
  1. Bicuspid
  2. Senile plaques
  3. Rheumatic
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227
Q

Most common valvular manifestation of rheumatic fever

A

MS

228
Q

What type of diuretic can decrease the amount of Ca excreted in the urine?

A

Thiazide

229
Q

In areas with chloroquine resistant malaria, which drugs are preferred for chemoppx?

A

Mefloquine, atovaquone-prograunil, doxy

230
Q

Name the bug: Periorbital edema, myositis, eosinophilia (with GI complaints)

A

Trichinellosis

231
Q

In PCP pneumonia, what is characteristically elevated in the blood?

A

LDH

232
Q

Progressive and bilateral loss of central vision; peripheral fields maintained

A

Macular degeneraation

233
Q

Gradual loss of peripheral vision over a period of years and consequent tunnel vision

A

Open angle glaucoma

234
Q

Do cataracts recur?

A

No

235
Q

Visual hallucinations and spontaneous Parkinsonism

A

Lewy body dementia

236
Q

Most frequent location of ectopic foci that cause atrial fibrillation? Atrial flutter

A

Pulmonary veins

- Flutter: tricuspid annulus

237
Q

How is a myasthenic crisis treated?

A

Intubation; plasmapheresis/IVIG and corticosteroids

238
Q

Inherited disease causing recurrent renal stone formation; hard/radioopaque stones showing hexagonal crystals with + cyanide nitroprusside test

A

Cystinuria

239
Q

Most common etiologies of cirrhosis

A

HBV/HCV, EtOH, NAFLD, Hemochromatosis

AI, PBC, PSC, A1AT, cardiac cirrhosis, MTX/INH, Wilson disease

240
Q

How often should women 50-75 years old get mammograms?

A

q 2 years

241
Q

Post-stroke sensory pain syndrome can be seen with strokes in this area of the brain

A

Thalamus (PCA)

242
Q

Two possible agents for diabetic gastroparesis.

A
  1. Reglan

2. Erythromycin

243
Q

Reglan AE

A

EPS // tardive dyskinesia

244
Q

Acute unilateral painless loss of vision

A

Central retinal vein occlusion 2/2 thrombosis

245
Q

Underlying pathophysiology behind G6PD leading to hemolysis

A

Oxidative stress

246
Q

Most common valve effected in endocarditis

A

Mitral (MVP/MR)

247
Q

IVDU’s have endocarditis of this valve

A

TCV

248
Q

Preferred therapy for central DI

A

Desmopressin (Intranasal)

249
Q

SIADH treatment

A

Demeclocycline

250
Q

Preferred therapy for nephrogenic DI

A

HCTZ

251
Q

Treatment of Toxoplasmosis

A

Sulfadiazine, pyrimethamine (plus leucovorin)

252
Q

PPX Toxo

A

Bactrim

253
Q

Multiple ring-enhancing lesions on MRI w/ CD4 count

A

Toxo

254
Q

Treatment of neurocysticercosis

A

Albendazole

255
Q

Treatment of cryptococal meningitis

A

Amphoteracin B, flucytosine

256
Q

Treatment of MAC

A

Clarithromycin, ethambutol

257
Q

Severe retinitis in AIDS patients (keratitis and conjunctivitis followed by rapidly progressive visual loss)

A

Herpes (HSV/VZV)

258
Q

T/F CMV retinitis in AIDS patients is painless

A

True

259
Q

What is coronary steal?

A

Dipyridamole is used during myocardial perfusion scanning to reveal areas of restricted myocardial perfusion. The redistribution is called steal b/c vessels distal to the obstruction are already maximally dilated

260
Q

T/F Patients with cirrhosis are itnravascularly depleted and impressive salt retainers

A

True

261
Q

AD disorder characterized by diffuse teleangiectasias, recurrent epistaxis and widespread AVM’s

A
Hereditary teleangiectasis (Osler-Weber-Rendu)
- AVM's in the lungs can shunt blood from the right to left heart causing hypoxemia and reactive polycythemia
262
Q

> 20 mm Hg variation in SBP arms

A

Acute aortic dissection

263
Q

Hemi-neglect syndrome is caused by a stroke to which brain cortex?

A

Parietal

264
Q

Succs is a depol/non-depol NM blocker

A

Depolarizing

265
Q

Succs shouldn’t be used in which patients for RSI…

A

Hyperkalemia

266
Q

Alpha-1 antagonist that relaxes ureteral muscle and decreases intra-ureteral pressure

A

Tamsulosin

267
Q

Does PSGN have low C3?

A

Yes

268
Q

Malignant necrotizing otitis externa in DM patients caused by… What is the treatment of choice?

A

Pseudomonas (Cipro = treatment of choice)

269
Q

2 anti-cholinergics used for PD

A

Benztropine/Trihexyphenidyl

270
Q

MAC PPX

A

Azirthromycin

271
Q

Most common middle ear pathology in patients with AIDS

A

Serous otitis media

272
Q

Demyelinating disease seen in AIDS patients

A

PML 2/2 JC virus

273
Q

Sensory ataxia, lancinating pains, neurogenic incontinence, Argyll Robertson pupil

A

Tabes dorsalis

274
Q

These types of testicular tumors secrete testosterone and are capable of estrogen production 2/2 markedly increased aromatase expression

A

Leydig

275
Q

Patients with HOCM have this abnormality to the Mitral Valve

A

Abnormal mitral leaflet motion

276
Q

Ascites

  • Bloody
  • Milky
  • Turbid
  • Straw
A

Bloody: trauma, malignancy
Milky: chylous, pancreatic
Turbid: infection
Straw: benign

277
Q

What is SAAG?

A

Serum-to-ascites albumin gradient
Serum albumin minus peritoneal fluid albumin
(>1.1 = portal HTN)

278
Q

Pneumonia w/ high fever, relative bradycardia, hyponatremia, hepatitis. Treatment?

A
  • Legionella pneumonia

- ML/FQ

279
Q

Management of cocaine-induced chest pain. Are beta-blockers indicated?

A

Benzo’s

- Beta-blockers contraindicated

280
Q

Complications of acute diverticulitis

A

Abscess, obstruction, fistula, perforation

281
Q

Risk factors for diverticular disease

A

Chronic constipation, high-fat diet

282
Q

Watery diarrhea, c-scope shows dark brown discoloration of the colon with lymph follicles shining through as pale patches [melanosis coli]

A

Factitious diarrhea/laxitive abuse

283
Q

History of gastrectomy and presence of glossitis is c/w

A

B12 deficiency

284
Q

In _____, there is an accessory pathway (bundle of Kent) that directly connects the atria to the ventriclces bypassing the AV node.

A

WPW Syndrome

* Short PR, delta wave (slurred upstroke QRS), QRS widening

285
Q

Empiric antibiotics for HAP/VAP

A

Gram positive, negative/pseudomonal, MRSA

286
Q

Solid liver mass: a/w anomolous arteries; arterial flow and central scar on imaging

A

FNH

287
Q

Solid liver mass: women on LTM OCP’s; possible hemorrhage or malignant transformation

A

Hepatic adenoma

288
Q

Tumor marker for HCC

A

AFP

289
Q

Most common malignancy of the liver

A

Mets from another primary

290
Q

Where is Zn digested? What are the symptoms of its deficiency?

A

Jejunum; lopecia, abnormal taste, bullous lesions, impaired wound healing

291
Q

Vitamin deficiency: blindness, dry skin, impaired immunity

A

Vitamin A

292
Q

AE of PTU

A

Agranulocytosis, hepatic failure, ANCA-associated vasculitis

293
Q

Ramsay Hunt syndrome

A

A form of herpes zoster that causes Bell’s palsy

294
Q

MEN 1

A

Pituitary, parathyroid, pancreas

295
Q

MEN 2A

A

MTC, pheo, parathyroid

296
Q

MEN 2B

A

MTC, pheo, marfanoid

297
Q

First two treatments for SIADH

A

Fluid restriction; Demeclocycline

298
Q

Triad of fever, leukocytosis, LUQ pain

A

Splenic abscess (Staph, strep, Salmonella)

299
Q

Methanol vs. Ethylene glycol ingestion

A

Methanol: Visual blurring

Ethylene glycol: Flank pain; Ca oxalate crystal

300
Q

Treatment of choice Ethylene glycol poisoning

A

Fomepazole

301
Q

Treatment for methemoglobinemia

A

Methylene blue

302
Q

Antidote for CN poisoning

A

Sodium thiosulfate

303
Q

Treatment for PMR

A

Low dose glucocorticoids

304
Q

Toxic ingestion: optic disk hyperemia and high anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

Methanol

305
Q

Tropical infection: high fever, severe polyarthralgia, headahe, rash, lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia

A

Chikungunya

306
Q

High urobilinogen is indicative of C or UC bilirubin

A

UC

307
Q

Positive urine bilirubin assay is indicative of C or UC bilirubin

A

C

308
Q

Can TB cause pericarditis?

A

Yes

309
Q

Most common cause of constrictive pericarditis in developing countries

A

TB

310
Q

Common etiologies of contrictive pericarditis in the US

A

Viral, cardiac surgery, chest radiation

311
Q

Osteoclast dysfunction is characteristic of what disease?

A

Paget disease

312
Q

80% of all carcinoids are in what location…

A

Small intestine

313
Q

Zollinger Ellison Syndrome

A

Gastrinoma, multiple gastric ulcers

314
Q

Pancreatic cholera, watery diarhea, hypokalemia

A

VIPoma

315
Q

Which class of antibiotics is a/w tendinopathy/tendon rupture?

A

FQ

316
Q

Sudden loss of vision and onset of floaters in a patient with diabetic retinopathy

A

Vitreous hemorrhage

317
Q

Upper, lower respiratory symptoms, renal GN, skin non-healing ulcers

A

Wegener’s granulomatosis with polyangiitis

* ANCA+

318
Q

In HD stable patients with WPW and rapid Afib, the ideal treatment is…

A

Procainamide

319
Q

What is the mutation in polycythemia vera?

A

JAK2

320
Q

Mainstay treatment for polycythemia vera?

A

Phlebotomy

321
Q

What IV medication is used for suspected variceal hemorrhage?

A

IV octreotide (Somatostatin analogues inhibit release of vasodilator hormes, which leads indirectly to splanchnic vasoconstriction and decreased portal flow)

322
Q

What do these medications have in common? Beta-blockers, ACEi, ARB’s, K-sparing diuretics, digoxin, NSAIDS

A

Can cause hyperkalemia

323
Q

Amebic liver abscess p/w RUQ pain and colitis. Treatment?

A

Enantomeba histolytica; Flagyl

324
Q

Areflexic upper extremity weakness and dissociated sensory loss following a cape-like distribution

A

Syringomyelia

325
Q

Rapidly progressive bilateral cellulitis of the submandibular and sublingual spaces

A

Ludwig angina

326
Q

AE nitroprusside gtt. Treatment?

A

CN toxicity; sodium thiosulfate

327
Q

What shortens the QRS interval in TCA overose?

A

Biacarb

328
Q

Most significant environmental risk factor for pancreatic cancer

A

Cigarette smoking

329
Q

T/F Serotonin syndrome has myoclonus and hyperreflexia

A

True

330
Q

T/F Thyroid storm can be precipitated by iodinated contrast

A

True

331
Q

Drug approved for ALS

A

Riluzole/Glutamate inhibitor

332
Q

Post-cataract eye pain/decreased visual acuity, swollen eyelids, conjunctivaa

A

Post-operative endopthalmitis; vitreous infection

333
Q

Chronic low back pain and limited chest expansion w/ elevated ESR

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

334
Q

Normal or decreased DLCO: Chronic bronchitis, asthma

A

Normal

335
Q

Normal or decreased DLCO: Sarcoid, Asbestosis, ILD

A

Decreased

336
Q

Subacute onset of AMS and multifocal neurological deficits in a transplant recipient

A

PML

337
Q

Examples of saline resistant metabolic alkalosis

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism, Cushing’s syndrome

338
Q

Name the gait: Ataxic, staggering, wide-based gait

A

Cerebellar

339
Q

Name the gait: Foot drop, excessive hip and knee flexion while walking, slapping quality, falls

A

Steppage (Motor neuropathy)

340
Q

Name the gait: Unsteady/falling to one side

A

Acute labyrinthitis, Menieres disease

341
Q

Can S4 be heard during AMI?

A

Yes

342
Q

MOA Zofran

A

Serotonin receptor antagonist

343
Q

Definition of neutropenia

A

ANC

344
Q

Second line agents for nausea/vomiting after Zofran

A

Dopamine antagonists, i.e. Reglan; prochlorperazine

345
Q

Type of neuropathy found in diabetics

A

Symmetrical distal polyneuropathy

346
Q

Low Hgb, elevated retics, increased LDH, decreased haptoglobin

A

Intravascular hemolytic anemia

347
Q

MEN2A+B are caused by a gain of function mutation involving which proto-oncogene on which chromosome?

A

RET/Ch 10

348
Q

In suspecting acromegaly, the best first test to order is…

A

IGF-1 (GH can fluctuate throughout the day)

349
Q

What is the confirmatory test in patients with elevated IGF-1?

A

75g oral glucose suppression test; will normally suppress GH to

350
Q

Definition of acute liver failure

A

Severe liver injury without underlying liver disease; transaminitis, encephalopathy, synthetic dysfunction (INR > 1.5)

351
Q

Most common cause of death in acute liver failure

A

Brain stem herniation 2/2 cerebral edema

352
Q

In a cirrhotic patient, decreased glomerlar filtration in the absence of shock, proteinuria, or other cause of renal dysfunction and failure to respond to 1.5L NS bolus

A

Hepatorenal syndrome (Type 1 rapidly progressive, Type 2 3-6 months)

353
Q

Most common causes of death from hepatorenal syndrome

A

Infeciton, hemorrhage

354
Q

Aminoglycoside toxicity

A

Ototoxicity/Vestibulopathy

355
Q

Most common cause of peptic ulcer in the developed world?

A

H. pylori

356
Q

T/F Sialadenosis is commonly found in patients with advanced liver disease

A

T

357
Q

Straight lines appear wavy in what ocular disorder?

A

Macular degeneration

358
Q

Most common cause of back pain

A

Lumbrosacral strain

359
Q

T/F Straight leg raise is usually positive in a herniated disk

A

True

360
Q

Following an MI, sharp, pleuritic pain that is worse in the supine position and improved by siting up and leaning forward

A

Acute pericarditis

361
Q

PEA and pericardial tamponade 3-7 days after an MI

A

Ventricular free wall rupture

362
Q

New systolic murmur following an MI

A

Papillary muscle rupture

363
Q

RV infarction following what type of MI

A

Inferior wall MI; p/w hypotension

364
Q

Is phenytoin a teratogen?

A

Yes; causing fetal hydantoin syndrome (orofacial clefts, microcephaly, nail/digit hypoplasia, cardiac defects)

365
Q

What AE for the fetus are a/w valproate?

A

NTD’s

366
Q

A tea and toast diet is a/w deficiency…

A

Folate deficiency

367
Q

Primary vs secondary adrenal insufficiency

A

Primary: glucocorticoid, mineralocorticoid, adrenal
Secondary: glucocorticoid and adrenal androgen (mineralocorticoid – RAA – not the pituitary)

368
Q

SCC lung is a/w what paraneoplastic syndrome?

A

Hypercalcemia (2/2 PTHrP)

369
Q

Small cell lung cancer is a/w which paraneoplastic syndromes?

A

ACTH/SIADH

370
Q

P-ANCA is positive in which IBD?

A

UC

371
Q

Anti-endomysial Ab

A

Celiac

372
Q

Anti-TTG Ab

A

Celiac

373
Q

Soap-bubble tumor of bone

A

Giant cell tumor (benign)

374
Q

RLS treatment

A

Dopamind Ag (pramipexole)

375
Q

INO in MS p/w

A

Dysconjugate horizontal gaze

376
Q

Giving folate to a B12 deficient patient will correct the anemia, but…

A

Rapidly deteriorate neurological symptoms

377
Q

T/F Hypercalcemia can occur in prolonged immobilization

A

True

378
Q

Tenderness to gentle percussion over spinous processes

A

Vertebral osteo

379
Q

Severe odynophagia without dysphagia or thrush

A

Viral esophagitis

380
Q

Postural hypotension

A

> 20/10 decrease in SBP/DBP

381
Q

Murmur that gets louder with squatting (PL) & handgrip (AL)

A

AR, MR, VSD

382
Q

A dehydrated patient with hyponatremia and elevated urine sodium

A

Salt wasting, i.e diuretics, CSW, adrenal insufficiency

383
Q

What lab value is increased in PCP pneumonia?

A

LDH

384
Q

When are CS indicated in the treatment of PCP pneumonia?

A

PaO2 35

385
Q

Definition of SPN

A

Rounded opacity

386
Q

Large anterior mediastinal mass with elevated beta-HCG and AFP

A

Nonseminomatous germ cell tumor

387
Q

Mode of inheritance: Wilson’s disease. Why neuro s/s?

A

AR; 2/2 copper deposition in the basal ganglia

388
Q

Confirmation of Wilson’s disease

A

Low serum cerruloplasmin + increased urine copper + KF rings

389
Q

PAS+, diastase-resistant liver biopsy

A

A1AT

390
Q

Parkinsonism, Autonomic dysfunction (postural hypotension, abnormal sweating, bowel/bladder, abnormal salivation, impotence), Widespread neurological signs (cerebellar, pyramidal, LMN)

A

Shy-Drager Syndrome/MSA

391
Q

Treatment for MSA

A

Fludrocortisone, salt supplementation, alpha-Ag, constrictive garments

392
Q

3 medication classes that reduce mortality in CHF

A

Beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, Mineralocorticoid receptor antag

393
Q

Low Ca and elevated PTH causes

A

Endo (Vitamin D deficiency, CKD), Inflammatory (Pancreatitis, sepsis), Oncology (tumor lysis)

394
Q

Which kidney is easier to palpate, L or R

A

R: it lies lower than the L kidney

395
Q

Multiple renal cysts, intermittent flank pain, hematuria, UTI, nephrolithiasis

A

ADPKD

396
Q

Most common cause of macrocytic anemia in a patient with SCD

A

Folate deficiency

397
Q

Severe anemia with reticulocytosis in SCD

A

Hyperhemolytic crisis

398
Q

What type of glomerular nodules are pathognomonic for diabetic GN?

A

Kimmelstein-Wilson nodules

399
Q

Bright red, firm, friable, exophytic nodules in an HIV+ patient

A

Bacillary angiomatosis

400
Q

Most common cancer diagnosed in patients with asbestos exposure?

A

Bronchogenic carcinoma

401
Q

US findings in acute cholecystitis

A

GBWT, pericholecystic fluid, sludge

402
Q

In alcoholic hepatitis, how high are AST/ALT?

A
403
Q

Anti-Jo Ab

A

Polymyositis

404
Q

Triad: headache, focal neurological signs and fever. Bugs?

A

Brain abscess; S virians > Staph in ethmoid sinutitis

405
Q

Cerebral infection in patients with poorly controlled DM

A

Rhizopus (Mucormycosis)

406
Q

Can pulsus paradoxus be seen in severe asthma?

A

Yes

407
Q

In HIV+ patient: pancytopenia, transaminitis, reticulonodule infliltrate, constitutional symptoms, HSM/LAD in Midwest USA

A

Disseminated histo

408
Q

Treatment of disseminated histoplasmosis

A

Amphotericin B

409
Q

Colon cancer screening recommendations

A

q annual FOBT; flex sig q 5 years with FOBT q3; C-scope 1 10 years

410
Q

Colon cancer screening recommendations with cancer in a first-degree relative

A

Age 40 or 10 years before the age of the relative’s diagnosis

411
Q

UMN or LMN: Fasiculations

A

LMN

412
Q

Most common cause of spontaneous brain lobar hemorrhage in adults > 60 years old

A

Amyloid angiopathy

413
Q

Most common cause of SVC syndrome?

A

Malignancy, i.e. lung ca (SCLC), NHL

414
Q

H’s and T’s

A

Hypoxia, Hypovolemia, Hypoglycemia, Hyper/Hypokalemia, H acidosis
Tension PTX, Tamponade, Toxins (Narc/Benzo), Trauma, Tbx (PE, MI)

415
Q

Initial management of gastric outlet obstruction

A

NGT, IVF, endoscopy

416
Q

Succussion splash

diagnoses…

A

Gastric outlet obstruction

417
Q

Primary LTM treatment for asthma vs. COPD

A

Asthma: ICS; COPD: Anti-cholinergics

418
Q

Most common renal stones

A

Ca

419
Q

Treatment of choice for trigeminal neuralgia? AE?

A

Carbamazepine; AE aplastic anemia

420
Q

Electrical alternans with sinus tachy is pathognomic finding in…

A

Varying amplitudes of QRS complexes; seen in pericarditis

421
Q

Reactive precancerous lesion that represents hyperplasia of oral squamous epithelium; risk of progression to SCC?

A

Leukoplakia (1-20% progress to cancer)

422
Q

Is Clinda effective against gram negatives?

A

No

423
Q

Drug of choice for dog bites.

A

Augmentin

424
Q

When do you begin screening colonscopy in IBD? FAP? HNPCC?

A

8 years post-diagnosis (12-15 years if disease only in left colon); q 1-2 years; FAP-10-12 y.o.; HNPCC-20-25 y.o..

425
Q

Most common presentation of a Pancoast tumor.

A

Shoulder pain

426
Q

Definition for ARDS

A

Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, PaO2 to FiO2 ratio

427
Q

Severe agitation, combativeness, psychosis, delerium, myoclonus for a prolonged duration of time

A

Bath salts

428
Q

Multi-directional nystagmus toxic ingestion

A

PCP

429
Q

Trousseau’s syndrome

A

Hypercoagulable disorder p/w unexplained superficial venous thrombosis. Mucin is released from the tumor cells, which react with platelets to form platelet-rich microthrombi

430
Q

The hallmark of shock liver, or ischemic hepatic injury

A

Rapid and massive increase in the transaminases with modest accompanying elevations in TBili and ALP.

431
Q

Chronic malabsorptive diarrhea, protein-losing enteropathy, weight loss, migratory non-deforming arthritis, LAD, low-grade fever. Classic histology?

A

Whipple’s disease; PAS+

432
Q

Where are 80% of cardiac myxomas located?

A

Left atrium

433
Q

2 major AE of INH

A

Peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity

434
Q

Timing to recognize B12 vs. Folate deficiency w/ dietary deficiency

A

B12: 4-5 years; Folate: 4-5 months

435
Q

Syndrome with keratoconjunctivitis, xerostomia. What Ab?

A

Sjogren’s syndrome; Anti-SSA (Ro)/ SSB (La)

436
Q

Most common cause of death in acromegaly

A

congestive heart failure

437
Q

Bleeding stops spontaneously in what % of patients with MW tear?

A

90%

438
Q

Pathogenesis of contrast-induced nephropathy

A

Renal vasoconstriction and tubular injury

439
Q

Disseminated MAC is prophylaxed with…

A

Azithromycin

440
Q

T/F There is an 18-fold increased risk of secondary cancers in patients initially treated for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

True

441
Q

Accumulation of alpha-synuclein within the neurons of the substantia nigra

A

Parkinson disease

442
Q

Indications for CEA

A

Men: Asx 60+; Sx: 70+
Women: 70+

443
Q

Causes of hemopytiss

A

Pulmonary, Cardiac, Infectious, Coagulopathy, PE/AVM, Coagulopathy, trauma, cocaine

444
Q

What kind of scan detects carcinoid mets?

A

Octreotide

445
Q

Order of incerased mets-to-the-brain cancers

A

Lung, breast, unknown, melanoma, colon (Solitary- breast, colon, RCC); multiple (lung, melanoma); rare (prostate, esophageal, oral, HCC, skin ca)

446
Q

Warfarin induced skin necrosis

A

Decrease in Protein C to 50% within first day, while factors 2, 7, 9, 10 decline more slowly; increased risk for Warfarin-induced skin necrosis with underlying protein C deficiency

447
Q

Majority of superficial erysipelas are caused by…

A

GAS

448
Q

Triad of encephalopathy, ocular dysfunction, and gait ataxia

A

WE; treat with thiamine before gluocse

449
Q

Most common extra-renal manifestation of ADPKD

A

Hepatic cysts; MVP/AR; diverticula; hernia

450
Q

First serologic marker in acute hep B infection

A

HBsAg

451
Q

Panendoscopy

A

Esophagoscopy, bronchoscopy, larngoscopy

452
Q

T/F Optic glioma occurs with NF-1

T

A

T

453
Q

T/F Panacinar = Lower Lobes in A1AT

A

T

454
Q

Action tremor in the absence of additional neurological signs

A

Essential tremor

455
Q

First line treatment of essential tremor

A

Propranolol

456
Q

> 5, >10, >15 mm induration of PPD

A

> 5: HIV, contacts, IS
10: immigrants, IVDU, high-risk employees
15: healthy individuals

457
Q

Treatment for latent TB

A

INH+Rifapentine q weekly for 3 months
INH monotherapy for 6-9 months
Rifampin for 4 months
INH+Rifampin for 4 months

458
Q

Active TB requires treatment for 4 drugs for how many months?

A

2 months; combo therapy for 4 months

459
Q

Infection of the lacrimal sac

A

Dacryocystitis

460
Q

Abscess lovated over the upper or lower eyelid

A

Hordeolum

461
Q

Abrupt onset fever, proptosis, restriction of EOMI and swollen, red eyelids

A

Orbital cellulitis

462
Q

What color does Rifampin turn urine?

A

Red/Orange

463
Q

HPV vaccine age recommendations for men vs. women

A

Men: 11-21
Women: 9-26

464
Q

Leuk esterase vs. Nitrates

A

LE: pyuria
Nitrates: Enterobacteria (convertes urinary nitrates to nitrites)

465
Q

T/F A negative dipstick in a patient with symptoms of UTI should have urine cultures

A

T

466
Q

Microcytic hypochromic anemia simulating iron-deficiency anemia

A

Acquired sideroblastic anemia (2/2 pyrodixine-B6/INH)

467
Q

Weight gain, fatigue, constipation, hoarseness, memory changes

A

Hypothyroidism

468
Q

When can you push TPA?

A

Within 3.5-4 hours of onset of stroke

469
Q

Chronic phenytoin therapy can cause

A

Megaloblastic anemia

470
Q

Which 3 drugs can cause megaloblastic anemia?

A

Bactrim, MTX, Phenytoin

471
Q

INH can deplete…

A

Vitamin B6

472
Q

Caudia equina syndrome is 2/2 compression of…

A

Spinal nerve roots

473
Q

Cauda equina vs. Conus medularis syndromes

A

CE: LMN; asymmetric
CM: Upper and lower motor neuron; symmetric

474
Q

Pseduoappendictis bug

A

Campylobacter

475
Q

Stroke: Unilateral motor impairment, no sensory/cortical deficits, no visual field abnormalities

A

Posterior limb of IC (lacunar)

476
Q

Contralateral somatosensory; motor deficit (face, arm, leg), conjugate eye deviation toward side of infarct, aphasia/hemineglect

A

MCA stroke

477
Q

Contralateral somatosensory and motor; predominantly in lower extremity

A

ACA stroke

478
Q

Alternate syndromes with contralateral hemiplegia and ipsilateral CN involvement, ataxia

A

Vertebrobasilar system

479
Q

GI, neuro symptoms (neuropathy/psych) + anemia with basophilic stippling on peripheral smear

A

Lead poisoning

480
Q

Most common cause of PTH-independent hypercalcemia

A

Humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy

481
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome electrolyte abnormalities

A

Hpocalcemia, Hyperphosphatemia, Hyperuricema, Hyperkalemia (Phosphate binds Ca)

482
Q

Treatment of CO poisoning

A

100% oxygen

483
Q

Alternative to IM penicillin for syphillis

A

Doxy x 14 days (unless pgx, CNS)

484
Q

In a patient with a DVT 2/2 homocystinuria, what vitamin should be administered in addition to AC?

A

Vitamin B6

485
Q

T/F Atropine should be avoided in acute glaucoma

A

True (Use mannitol, Diamox, Pilocarpine, Timolol)

486
Q

T/F MS can p/w bilateral trigeminal neuralgia

A

T

487
Q

Erythema nodosum is a/w

A

Sarcoid, TB, IBD

488
Q

Anti-dote to Beta-blocker overdose? Refractory cases?

A

Atropine followed by Glucagon

489
Q

Negatively birefringent

A

Yellow when parallel to polarizing axis, and blue when lying perpendicular

490
Q

T/F Patients with large anterior STEMI are at highest risk of LV thrombus and anteroapical aneurysm formation

A

T

491
Q

T/F Folate deficiency is the most common cause of megaloblastic anemia is alcoholics

A

T

492
Q

Bouchard and Heberden nodes are a/w

A

a/w OA

493
Q

Systolic hypertension in thyrotoxicosis is 2/2

A

Hyperdynamic circulation resulting from increased myocardial contractility and HR

494
Q

Acute renal failure and malignant hypertension in a patient with systemic sclerosis…

A

Cutaneous systemic sclerosis

495
Q

Two primary manifestations of Chagas disease

A

Megacolon/megaesophagus; cardiac disease

496
Q

Antidote to organophosphate poisonoing

A

Atropine; Achesterase is non-functional

497
Q

Straight leg raise tests positive for

A

Sciatica

498
Q

MOA: Cyclosporine. AE?

A

IL-2 inhibitor; nephrotoxicity, HTN, neurotoxicity, glucose intolerance, infection, malignancy, gingival hypertrophy

499
Q

Major AE MMF

A

Bone marrow suppression

500
Q

Major AE Azathioprine

A

Diarrhea, leukopenia, hepatotoxicity

501
Q

Decreased ADAMSTS13 activity

A

TTP; large vWF multimers and resulting in diffiuce thrombi

502
Q

TTP pentad

A

TBOpenia, Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, renal insufficiency, fever, neuro s/s

503
Q

Approved for the treatment and PPX of amyloidosis

A

Colchicine

504
Q

T/F Fluphenazine is a typical anti-psychotic that can cause hypothermia by inhibiting the body’s shivering mechanism

A

True

505
Q

EtoH withdrawal peaks during what day?

A

Second day following cessation

506
Q

T/F Radioactive I ablation can worsen opthalmopathy

A

True

507
Q

T/F Spinal stenosis is better with spine flexion

A

True

508
Q

T/F Thiazide diuretics can lead to glucose intolerance

A

True

509
Q

The d-xylose test is for…

A

Celiac disease/proximal small intestinal mucosal disease and cannot absorb D-xylose.

510
Q

T/F PBC is a/w cholestasis, hepatomegaly, severe hyperlipidemia

A

True

511
Q

Feared complication of temporal arteritis

A

Aortic aneurysm

512
Q

Arrhythmia most specific for digitalis toxicity

A

Atrial tachycardia w/ AV block

513
Q

Common causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

Sarcoid, amyloid, hemochromatotis, fibrosis, idiopathic

514
Q

Etiology of diabetic oculomotor neuropathy

A

Ischemic

515
Q

Treatment of Legionella pneumonia

A

Levaquin

516
Q

MMSE score lower than this number is indicative of dementia

A

24

517
Q

Neuroimaging demonstrating atrophy which is more prominent in the temporal and parietal lobes

A

Alzhemiers

518
Q

Ulcers in this area are indicative of ZES

A

Jejunum

519
Q

What is triple therapy treatment for H. pylori?

A

Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, PPI

520
Q

Dense intramembranous deposits that stain for C3 is a characteristic microscopic finding for…

A

MPGN (Persisent activation of alternative complement)

521
Q

Atrophy of the caudate is a/w

A

Huntington’s disease

522
Q

Antibiotic class of Amikacin

A

Aminoglycoside

523
Q

3 major mechanical complications of MI

A

Papillary muscle rupture: Soft systolic
LV free wall rupture: Tamponade
IV septum rupture: pansystolic

524
Q

Life threatening complication of metformin

A

Lactic acidosis

525
Q

AE TZD’s

A

CHF

526
Q

Best diabetic drug for weight loss

A

Exenatide, GLP-1 receptor agonist

527
Q

AE Amantadine

A

Livedo reticularis

528
Q

To treat the psychomotor agitation a/w PCP ingestion

A

Benzos

529
Q

To differentiate CML from leukemoid reaction

A

LAP; basophilia

530
Q

Auer rods

A

AML

531
Q

Most common extraskeletal manifestation of AS

A

Episcleritis

532
Q

Extrahepatic manifestations of HCV

A

Essential mixed cryoglobulinemia, MPGN, PCT, DM

533
Q

A disorder of the inner ear characterized by increased volume and pressure of endolymph

A

Meniere disease

534
Q

Does MG improve with ice pack?

A

Yes

535
Q

Order of use of anti-HTN agents in acute dissection

A

Beta-blocker followed by nitroprusside

536
Q

Anterior Mediastinum mass
Middle Mediastinum mass
Posterior Mediastinum mass

A

A: Thymoma, retrosternal thyroid, teratoma, lymphoma
M: Bronchogenic cyst, tracheal tumor, pericaridal cyst, LN, aneurysm
P: Neurogenic tumors, hernias

537
Q

Drug of choice in PBC

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

538
Q

Hypok/Hyperkalemia potentiates the AE of digoxin

A

Hypokalemia

539
Q

Most common type of radioopaque stone

A

Ca oxalate

540
Q

PBC patients at risk of developing

A

Osteomalacia

541
Q

Vertigo, nystagmus, loss pain/temp ipsilateral face/contralateral limb, hoarseness, Horner’s syndrome

A

Lateral medullary syndrome

542
Q

Tongue deviation toward side of lesion and contralateral paralysis

A

Medial medullary

543
Q

Severe sore throat with odynophagia, drooling and airway obstruction

A

Epilogttis (H. flu/GAS)

544
Q

Actinomyces vs. Nocardia

A

A: G+, Anerobic – PCN
N: G+, AF – Bactrim

545
Q

Cyclophosphamide is a/w … Prevent with

A

Hemorrhagic cystitis (Take MESNA)

546
Q

Anti-RNP, anti-Jo-1, anti-Mi2

A

Dermatomyositis

547
Q

In otherwise healthy patients who develop CHF, what should be considered high on the differential?

A

Viral myocarditis

548
Q

Activated protein C resistance

A

Factor 5 Leiden

549
Q

HIV PPX therapy with low CD4

A

Bactrim (PCP, Toxo), Azithro (MAC

550
Q

Polyp a/w most pre-malignant condition

A

Villous adenoma

551
Q

Multiple demyelinating, non-enhancing lesions with no mass effect in HIV+

A

PML/JC

552
Q

Condition affecting new mothers who hold their infants with thumb outstretched

A

De Quervain tenosynovitis

553
Q

3 major liver functions

A

Synthetic, metabolic, excreatory

554
Q

Most common pathogen causing PNA in nursing home patients

A

S. pna

555
Q

High pH on UA is concerning for infection with what bug?

A

Proteus

556
Q

Can pseudotumor cerebri be caused by isotretinoin?

A

Yes

557
Q

Palpable purpura, proteinuria, hematuria in HCV+

A

Mixed cryoglobulinemia

558
Q

Treatment of Paget disease

A

Bisphosphonates

559
Q

Very low MCV is seen in which microcytic anemia?

A

Thalassemia

560
Q

Measles vs. Mumps

A

Measles: higher fever, no arthritis
Mumps: w/in 24 hours cranial-caudal spread

561
Q

6 P’s

A

Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, pokilothermia

562
Q

Pathogenesis Zenker diverticulum

A

Sphincter dysfunction and esophageal dysmotility

563
Q

Which bug causes bacillary angiomatosis?

A

Bartonella henselae/quintana

564
Q

T/F Positive H+ ion breath test in lactose intolerance

A

T

565
Q

Untreated hyperthyroid patients at high risk for…

A

Bone disease