Uworld discreet facts Flashcards

1
Q

What clotting factors are in fresh frozen plasma?

A

all coal factors and other proteins: Factors II, VII, IX, X

used in the warfarin (or rodenticide) toxicity

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2
Q

Vitamin K given in warfarin toxicity when

A

PTT and PT are prolonged but no bleeding

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3
Q

Coag factors in cryoprecipitate?

A

Factors VIII, XIII, vWF, fibrinogen

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4
Q

Why is desmopressin used in the context of hemophilia A or von willebrand disease?

A

It increases plasma levels of vWF and Factor VIII

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5
Q

What is a common finding in gallstone lieus (mechanical obstruction of cholesterol gallstone that erode into the intestinal lumen?)

A

Pneumobilia (air in the biliary tract)

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6
Q

What adrenergic receptor when stimulated inhibits uterine contractions?

A

Beta 2

Drugs: Isoproterenol, Terbutaline, Ritodrine

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7
Q

flow of fetal circulation

A

umbilical vein–>liver–>inferior vena cava–>heart–>pulm/shunted to the left side via foramen ovale–>some might bypass the pulm circuit via shunting through the ductus arteriosus then go into the descending aorta–>

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8
Q

What does the prenatal quadruple test consist of

A

alpha fetoprotein
unconjugated estriol
beta-hCG
Inhibin A

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9
Q

When do you see an increase in alpha fetoprotein on a prenatal quadruple test?

A

Open neural tube defects
ventral wall defects
multiple gestation

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10
Q

Decrease in alpha fetoprotein is see in

A

Aneuploidies–>Trisomy 21

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11
Q

Decerebrate posturing is from damage at or below the level of the

A
red nucleus (midbrain tegmentum, pons)
because the red nucleus controls the flexors so a lesion here would cause the vestibulospinal tract to dominate (this means the extensors predominate)
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12
Q

Decorticate is from

A

a lesion above the red nucleus in the cerebral cortex or the internal capsule causes decorticate posturing because that usually inhibits the red nucleus so flexors and extensors predominate and the arms curl up

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13
Q

Where does DNA ligase exert the most work?

A

On the Okazaki fragments to join the gaps together, also requires repetitive action of the DNA primase to start and stop the segmental joining

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14
Q

Someone withdrawing who is yawning a lot w/ lacrimation and dilated pupils is withdrawing from

A

heroin

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15
Q

PCP is a NMDA agonist or antagonist

A

NMDA antagonist

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16
Q

NMDA agonists

A

glutamate, aspartate, D-cycloserine

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17
Q

Acetylcholine, shear stress, and bradykinin exerted on the vascular endothelium leads to increased

A

increased calcium which increases eNOS which facilitates Arginine and oxygen to be converted to NO and citrulline. The NO dissipates into the smooth muscle and causes guanylate cyclase to convert GTP into cGMP this dissipates into the vascular lumen to cause vasodilation

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18
Q

Rinne test where you bang the tuning fork and place it behind the ear and then in front of the acoustic meatus is normal when which sound is detected?

A

When you bring the tuning fork off the bone and close to the ear and the person can still hear it despite not being able to hear it on the mastoid–> that is normal. If you can’t hear it in front of your ear then you have conductive hearing loss. if you can’t hear it on the bone it is sensorneural

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19
Q

The Weber test lateralizes sensorineural hearing loss to the unaffected ear and conductive hearing loss to the

A

affected ear because the conductive hearing loss makes it so that you can’t hear the ambient room noise so you hear the tuning fork on your head best.

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20
Q

What immune cells are in the :
paracortical
germinal center

A

paracortical: dendritic cells and T cells

germinal centers and primary lymphoid follicles: mature B cells

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21
Q

What must be ligated to prevent excessive bleeding of the ovary during an oophorectomy

A

The suspensory ligament of the ovary. The ureter is close to this ligament and must be identified before ligation.

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22
Q

Which cholesterol drug lowers LDL significantly?

A

statins

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23
Q

which cholesterol drug lowers serum triglycerides significantly

A

Fibrates (fenofibrate, gemfibrozil) PPARgamma activators

mainly used to prevent pancreatitis

24
Q

most effective at Increasing HDL

A

Niacin (B3)

associated with hyperglycemia and flushing

usually used when other drugs have failed

25
Q

slight decrease in LDL by inhibiting cholesterol uptake in the GI tract

A

Exetimibe

used in patients who can’t take statins because of hepatotoxicity or myopathy or who have high levels of LDL despite statin tx

26
Q

exercise and weight loss has its main effect on what aspect of lipid lowering

A

Triglycerides

27
Q

Cationic exchange resins used in the tx of cholesterol lowering interfere with

A

enterohepatic circulation of bile acids

28
Q

Meyer’s loop (damage to is can cause upper quadrantanopia) is located in the

A

temporal lobe

29
Q

The optic tract synapse in the ______ but also projects to the

A

Lateral geniculate nucleus and then go on to the meyer’s loop and the dorsal optic radiation

Also projects to the superior colliculus for reflex gaze

pretectal area for light reflex

suprachiasmatic nucleus to regulate circadian rhythm

30
Q

beta blockers decrease blood pressure via the kidneys via

A

blocking renin release

31
Q

stages of lyme disease

A

Early localized phase days to weeks following exposure–flu-like symptoms and target lesion

Early disseminated phase: weeks of months later, CNS (facial palsy), cardiac block (AV nodal block)

Late lyme disease: months to years; asymmetric arthritis, encephalopathy (decreased memory, somnolence, mood changes)

32
Q

Tx of lyme disease

A

Doxycycline or ceftriaxone

33
Q

Where does the facial nerve (CNVII) exit

A

Stylomastoid foramen

34
Q

A tumor of the parotid would cause facial drooping because

A

It could impinge upon the motor nerve CN VII

35
Q

Branches of the facial nerve

A

Temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, cervical

36
Q

Psoriasis is associated with

A

nail pitting

psoriatic arthritis

37
Q

In psoriasis there is an increased in and decrease in stratum ________

A

Increase in stratum corneum

Decrease in stratum Granulosum

there are still nuclei within the stratum corneum; acanthosis w/ parakeratotic scaling, munro microabscesses.

38
Q

single layer of epithelial cells with cavernous blood filled vascular spaces

A

the most common benign liver tumor–> cavernous hemangioma

39
Q

which vessels are spared in the small to medium vessel vasculitis polyarteritis nodosa?

A

Pulmonary arteries and bronchial arteries

segmental, transmural, necrotizing inflammation of the arteries

Kidneys, heart, liver GI typically affected and pt/s present with livedo reticularis purplish network of discoloration

40
Q

synaptophysin is found in

A

transmembrane glycoprotein found on presynaptic neurons, neuroendocrine, neuroectodermal cells

41
Q

GFAP positive brain neoplasms

A

Astrocytomas, oligodendrogliomas, ependymomas (gliomas)

42
Q

Brain tumors of adults vs children

A
adults= supratentorial (above the cerebellum)
children= below the tentorium (below the cerebellum)
43
Q

types of kidney stones

A

calcium oxalate, phosphate
Magnesium Ammonium Phosphate
Uric Acid
Cystine

44
Q

octahedron kidney stones

A

calcium oxalate, phosphate

45
Q

Kidney stones that are elongated, wedge shaped, form rosettes

A

calcium phosphate

46
Q

Kidney stones that are rectangular, form coffin lids

A

Magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite or triple phosphate)

47
Q

Yellow or red-brown, rhombus/diamond

A

uric acid

48
Q

cystine

A

flat, yellow, hexagonal

49
Q

test to detect the presence of urinary cystine (other dibasic amino acids such as lysine, ornithine and arginine are soluble in urine and don’t form crystals)

A

this will detect aminoaciduria and the test is sodium cyanide-nitroprusside

50
Q

Treatment of cystinuria

A

Acetazolamide–>alkalinizing the urine

51
Q

hypercalciuria can be from

A

sarcoidosis

52
Q

hyperoxaluria can be from

A

Crohn’s disease

53
Q

hyperuricosuria can be from

A

Gout

54
Q

Hypocitraturia can be from

A

distal renal tubular acidosis

55
Q

confirmatory test for Type I diabetes mellitus

A

Fasting glucose or HgbA1C