UWorld D Flashcards

1
Q

78 y/oF p/w acute hypoxic RF requiring intubation, PNA treated and she’s extubated but then develops stridor and increased WOB

Cause of stridor?

A

Laryngeal edema, presents w/ post-extubation stridor

-occurs in up to 30% of intubated pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

We give magnesium sulfate to asthmatics?

A

In severe asthma exacerbation (peak expiratory flow under 40% of baseline): mag sulfate can be used as a parenteral bronchodilator if pt has already failed 1 hour of SABA and glucocorticoids

So pt w/ bad asthma comes in- you give SABA and IV steroids, 1 hr later worse, w/ PEF under 40, consider mg sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lung CA associated with

(a) SIADH
(b) PTHrP

A

(a) SIADH- small cell carcinoma

(b) PTHrP- squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

20 month old girl p/w cough and fever
Harsh, brassy coughing followed by mild inspiratory stridor

(a) Diagnosis
(b) CXR sign
(c) Tx

A

(a) Croup = laryngotracheitis = parainfluenza infxn of larynx and trachea
(b) CXR- steepe sign due to subglottic narrowing
(c) Single dose of corticosteroids can treat mild croup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Radiographic findings c/w benign pulmonary nodule

A
Popcorn calcification (hamartoma), concentric, diffuse homogeneous, laminated, central 
Basically popcorn calcification = hamartoma and is benign 

While eccentric, asymmetric, reticular, punctate raise suspicion for malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Aside from pressors, what other support may brain-dead pt need to manage organs for donation

A

Maintain euvolemia- may require IV fluids and desmopressin to combat central diabetes insipidus that can increase UOP to 1L/hr and cause volume depletion

Goals for managing brain-dead organ donor: maintain euvolemia, normotensive, normothermic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Large PE

(a) Possible conduction disturbance
(b) Valvular abnormality

A

(a) RBBB due to RV strain

(b) Tricuspid regurg due to dilation of RV that stretches the tricuspid valve annulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Chance that pt has lung cancer if CT chest if read as positive (noncalcified nodule over 4mm)

A

Chance of cancer is under 10%, super high false positive rate of 96% but study showed 20% relative mortality reduction in group that got screened

So counsel that screening is helpful but any positive finding needs to be confirmed by further workup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When to give Rhogam

A

Rh+ father, Rh- mother, baby has a chance of being Rh+

Prevent mother from making anti-Rh+ antibodies when maternal and fetal blood mix (through placenta and through maternal hemorrhage) for the next baby

So give

  1. 28 weeks
  2. within 72 hours post-partum

Standard dose (300 ug) given at 28 weeks, then have to do Rosette test to qualitatively test for fetomaternal hemorrhage.

negative: give standard dose anti-D immune globulin
positive: determine amount of hemorrhage by Kleihaur-Betke test and increase dose of anti-D immune globulin based on percentage of fetal RBC in maternal circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Gastroschisis vs. omphalocele

A

Gastroschisis = eviscerated bowel w/ no covering membrane

Omphalocele = sac containing multiple organs at umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

3 indications for GBS prophylaxis for mothers w/ unknown GBS status

A

GBS ppx in mothers w/ unknown status if (not just everyone w/ unknown status)

  1. preterm labor (under 37 weeks)
  2. intrapartum fever
  3. rupture of membranes for 18+ hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Neonatal jaundice- when do tbilis peak?

(b) When to stop phototherapy
(c) What is the danger to the baby?

A

Tbilis peak at day 5-7

(b) Continue phototherapy until bilis normalize (don’t just expect them to plateau then resolve)
(c) Kernicterus = bilirubin-induced encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When is exchange transfusion indicated for neonatal physiologic jaundice?

A

When tbilis are severe, above 20-25 = toxic, too high risk of kernicterus (bili encephlopathy) => exchange transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

3 causes of elevated maternal serum AFP

A

Elevated AFP

  1. multiple gestation (twins)
  2. open neural tube = anencephaly, open spina bifida
  3. ventral wall defect = omphalocele, gastrochisis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Association w/ reduced plasma maternal serum AFP

A

Trisomy- 18 and 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

31 y/oF at 35 weeks gestation, UA with glucose and 2+ protein, amniotic fluid index of 30 cm

Diagnosis?

A

Maternal gestational diabetes (glucosuria, proteinuria) w/ polyhydramnios (amniotic fluid index over 24)

Maternal diabetes => fetal hyperglycemia that causes osmotic diuresis => polyhydramnios

17
Q

Explain the amniotic fluid index- what determines it?

(b) What can cause high vs. low

A

Amniotic fluid index = measures of amniotic fluid around baby, determined by how much produced (baby swallows it, then kidneys process it) and resorption (by placenta)

(a) High- unable to swallow it (duodenal atresia, anencephale), making too much (maternal diabetes), congenital infection (placental insufficiency

Low- not making enough (kidneys stink)

18
Q

Explain how the following cause oligohydramnios

(a) Preeclampsia
(b) NSAID

A

Oligohydramnios = low amniotic fluid index (under 5cm)

(a) Preeclampsia causes placental insufficiency => intrauterine growth restriction and vasoconstriction to kidneys
(b) NSAIDs also reduce renal blood flow

19
Q

Amniotic fluid index

(a) in oligohydramnios
(b) in polyhydramnios

A

AFI

(a) Oligohydramnios- under 5cm
(b) Polyhydramnios- over 24cm

20
Q

Explain how the following cause polyhydramnios

(a) maternal diabetes
(b) duodenal atresia

A

Too much amniotic fluid

(a) Maternal diabetes causes fetal hyperglycemia then fetal glycosuria => osmotic diuresis
(b) Baby can’t swallow amniotic fluid => can’t give it back to placental to resorb into maternal circulation

21
Q

28 y/oF treated for asymptomatic GBS at 14 weeks

Screen again?
Does she need peripartum ppx?

A

Regardless of when, if treated during pregnancy assumed that rectovaginal flora concentration is high enough and still give PCN ppx peripartum

So at 14 weeks: give amox to treat, then PCN ppx during labor

22
Q

28 y/oF in 2nd stage of labor noticed to have multiple hyperpigmented 1-2cm sessile lesions on labia manjora/majora

C-section? vaginal birth?

A

Condyloma accuminata from HPV

C-section doesn’t reduce rate of vertical transmission => vaginal delivery

23
Q

38 y/oF at 27 weeks gestation in MVA presenting w/ dull abdominal pain, no vaginal bleeding

What should you be worried about?

A

Abruptio placenta = placental detachment from uterine wall prior to fetal delivery

24
Q

Clinical features of abruptio placenta

A

Abruptio placenta = detachment of placenta from uterine wall before fetal delivery

Clinically can present w/ vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, frequent low-intensity contractions, rigid uterus

25
Q

28 y/oF BMI of 20, 6 weeks gestation, h/o severe preeclampsia in prior pregnancy

Anything she can do to decrease risk of recurrent preeclampsia?

A

Yes- low-dose ASA starting at 12 weeks gestation to reduce risk of preeclampsia

Mechanism = thought to inhibit platelet aggregation and help prevent placental ischemia

26
Q

Medications ok to acutely lower BP in pregnant F w/ preeclampsia

A

Hydralazine, labetalol are first line

27
Q

Which babies require CBC, blood culture, 48 hrs observation when born to a GBS positive mother who got PCN prophyalxis

A

GBS mother- always observe for 48 hours (for signs of infection), then also get CBC and blood culture if

  • premature (before 37 weeks)
  • prolonged rupture membranes (over 18 hrs)
28
Q

Define postpartum hemorrhage

A

EBL 500cc in vaginal delivery

1000cc in C-section

29
Q

Treatment of postpartum hemorrhage

(a) First line
(b) Second line
(c) Third line

A

Postpartum hemorrhage treatment- MC cause is uterine atony

So (a) First: uterine massage and oxytocin

(b) Second- uterotonics = misoprostol
(c) Third- other like uterine balloon tamponade, uterine artery embolization etc