UW Flashcards

1
Q

Calcium correction based on albumin

A

For every 1 g/dL decrease in albumin, Calcium goes down by 0.8

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2
Q

BP management in ischemic stroke post-tPA and w/o tPA

A

During the first 24 hours, the patient needs frequent neurologic checks, no invasive testing or procedures, and strict blood pressure management to keep the blood pressure < 185/105 mm Hg but >140/90 mm Hg to maintain adequate perfusion to the ischemic penumbra and avoid hemorrhagic transformation. Strict blood pressure control is recommended with intravenous (not oral) drugs such as labetalol, nicardipine, and sodium nitroprusside. Hypertension up to a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg is generally permitted in patients with acute ischemic stroke who did not receive thrombolytic therapy.

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3
Q

Ddx for Painless hematochezia in a young child (eg 2 yo)

A

Painless hematochezia includes Meckel’s diverticulum as well as vascular malformations.

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4
Q

What Is A Funnel Plot And How To Read Them?

A

A funnel plot is helpful in assessing publication bias.
If there is no bias, any scatter between the study results should be due to sampling variation, and 95% of studies should lie within the triangle centered on the summary estimate and extending 1.96 standard errors on either side. Because a larger sample size is associated with increased precision, larger studies (more powerful) will be at the top and have a narrow spread whereas small studies will be scattered widely at the base of the triangle.

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5
Q

What is blepharospasm and how to you treat it?

A

Blepharospasm is a form of focal dystonia—involuntary eye closure that can be provoked by external stimuli (eg, bright light or irritants). Older women are particularly predisposed to this condition. A potential explanation is that dry eyes in postmenopausal women may serve as a trigger for blepharospasm. Botulinum toxin injections are the mainstay of treatment

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6
Q

Osteopenia T score

When are bisphosphonates indicated?

A

Osteopenia: t-score of -1.0 and -2.5

Bisphosphonates warranted for those with a risk of hip fracture ≥3.0% or combined major osteoporotic fracture ≥20%.

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7
Q

How is treatment resistant depression defined

A

Depression that doesn’t respond to adequate trial of 2 antidepressants

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8
Q

Biventricular pacing devices for patients in sinus rhythm who meet all of the following criteria:

A

biventricular pacing devices for patients in sinus rhythm who meet all of the following criteria:

LV ejection fraction <35%
NYHA class II, III, or IV heart failure symptoms (essentially the presence of any symptoms)
Left bundle branch block with QRS duration >150 msec.

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9
Q

What are complications of psoriasis? (2)

A

Potential complications include nail and joint involvement. Psoriatic arthritis requires systemic therapy (eg, methotrexate).
Arthritis can proceed skin findings

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10
Q

Preeclampsia; severe fts

A
Preeclampsia
Definition
New-onset hypertension (SBP >140 mm Hg &/or DBP >90 mm Hg) at >20 weeks gestation
plus
Proteinuria &/or end-organ damage
Severe features
SBP >160 mm Hg or DBP >110 mm Hg (2 times >4 hours apart)
Thrombocytopenia
↑ Creatinine
↑ Transaminases
Pulmonary edema
Visual or cerebral symptoms

Management
Without severe features: Delivery at >37 weeks
With severe features: Delivery at >34 weeks
Magnesium sulfate (seizure prophylaxis)
Antihypertensives

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11
Q

ECG with increased voltage in the precordial leads indicates…

A

LV hypertrophy

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12
Q

Asthma exacerbation in pregnant patients (step 1, 2 and SaO2 goal)

A

is similar to that in nonpregnant patients. An inhaled or nebulized short-acting beta agonist (albuterol is preferred during pregnancy) is given initially, usually in combination with inhaled ipratropium. In patients with persistent symptoms, the next step is the administration of systemic corticosteroids (eg, oral prednisone) without delay; although these drugs have been associated with a slightly increased risk of premature birth, low birth weight, and cleft palate, the benefits of effective asthma exacerbation management outweigh these risks. Supplemental oxygen should be given to maintain SaO2>95% (>90% in nonpregnant patients)

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13
Q

Attributable risk formula

A

= (Rexp-Runexp)/Rexp

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14
Q

Attributable risk in a population -formula

A

PARP= risk in population of exp - risk in unexposed/risk in population of exp

Risk in total pop= weighed average of the risk

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15
Q

Lyme disease tx in pregnancy (2)

A

14-21 days of amoxicillin or cefuroxime.

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16
Q

4Ts of HIT

A

The likelihood of type 2 HIT is calculated using the 4 Ts score, which includes the following:

Thrombocytopenia - platelets typically decline >30%-50%
Timing - onset 5-10 days after heparin initiation or ≤1 day with prior, recent heparin exposure
Thrombosis - new thrombosis, progressive thrombosis, or skin necrosis
AlTernate causes - no other sources for thrombocytopenia are present or likely

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17
Q

Light’s criteria— Transudative

A

transudative based on Light criteria, with fluid to serum total protein ratio <0.5, fluid to serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) ratio <0.6, and fluid LDH <2/3 the upper limit of normal for serum LDH.

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18
Q

When to suspect endometriosis?

A

When pt has pain with periods, penetration or BMs. Also infertility

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19
Q

Three indications for starting statin therapy

A

Diabetic pts 40 and above
LDL >190 or
Pts with 10-yr CVD risk of >7.5-10 (varying guidelines)

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20
Q

Vaccines contraindicated in pregnancy (4)

2 that are okay

A

HPV, MMR, Live attenuated influenza, varicella

Okay- inactivated flu, Tdap (tetanus toxoid-reduced diphtheria toxoid-acellular pertussis)

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21
Q

How does epiglotitis present? Tx?

A

Acute onset of fever, respiratory distress, dysphonia (difficulty speaking), stridor, drooling and sitting forward with his neck extended (tripod, sniffing position).
Tx- intubation and abx

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22
Q

Epiglottitis vs croup presentation and imaging

A

Presentation for croup— barking cough that’s worse w/ agitation and improves w/ cool air/warm shower. 1-few days of URI sx
epiglottitis- see other card. Very acute
Xray: epiglottitis- thumbprint sign
Croup- steeple sign

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23
Q

Stone management

A

If pt is septic, has ARF or complete obstruction—> consult urology

If not, then management is based on stone size. If <10 mm, gentle hydration, pain control, alpha blocker, and strain urine

For larger stones/uncontrolled pain/no stone passage in 4 weeks—>urology consult for possible surgical management

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24
Q

What is ATN and how do you distinguish it from pre-renal?

A

Acute tubular necrosis is responsible for most cases of acute renal failure in hospitalized patients. Generally involves a perfusion deficit due to hypovolemia, hypotension, shock, sepsis, or low cardiac output states. The typical presentation is oliguria following a hypotensive episode, with elevated BUN and Cr levels (the ratio is typically normal) and anion gap acidosis. Examination of the urinary sediment usually shows characteristic “muddy brown” casts.
Pre-renal BUN/Cr ration will be >20

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25
Q

Management of DKA

A

Tx of severe DKA begins with volume repletion with isotonic fluids (eg, NS, LR) given over an hour followed by initiation of an insulin drip. A small bolus given over an hour prior to initiating insulin therapy has been shown to minimize the risk of cerebral edema compared to starting an insulin drip immediately. Potassium-containing intravenous (IV) fluids should be administered simultaneously with the insulin drip for patients with normal or low potassium levels as insulin moves potassium intracellularly and causes hypokalemia.

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26
Q

What labs do you have to check before starting bisphosphates? 2

A

Bisphosphates can cause hypocalcemia due to decreased bone resorption; IV>po formulations.
So check serum calcium level and vitamin D (25-hydroxyvitamin D level).

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27
Q

How do you manage gestational DM after birth?

A

Pts with gestational diabetes are screened for 24-72 hours postpartum with fasting blood glucoses and at 6-12 weeks postpartum with a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test.

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28
Q

Lab abn in acute cholangitis

A

Cholestatic liver function abnormalities—↑ Direct bilirubin, Alk phosphatase
Mildly ↑ aminotransferases
Biliary dilation on abdominal ultrasound or CT scan

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29
Q

How to distinguish bell’s palsy from stroke?

Tx of bell’s palsy

A

Forehead wrinkle. If able to wrinkle forehead—> stroke. If it’s the whole half of face—> Bell’s palsy.
Corticosteroids are the treatment of choice for Bell’s palsy—within 3 days. Eye care is extremely important

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30
Q

What constitutes a high SAAG?

What conditions cause high vs. low SAAG?

A
High SAAG (>1.1 g/dL) include congestive heart failure, cirrhosis, and alcoholic hepatitis.  
Conditions associated with low (< 1.1 g/dL) albumin gradient include peritoneal carcinomatosis, peritoneal tuberculosis, nephrotic syndrome, pancreatitis, and serositis.
31
Q

When do you get CBC, blood cx for a baby born to mother who didn’t receive appropriate GBS management
Which abx are considered proper prophylaxis for GBS + mom

A

GBS + mom should receive penicillin, ampicillin or cefazolin 4 hrs before delivery.
If she didn’t, do labs, cultures, observe for a minimum of 48 hr if baby is premature and membrane ruptured >18 hrs ago

32
Q

When do you give abx as a prophylaxis in pts getting high risk cardiac surgery? 3

A

Procedures that warrant antibiotic prophylaxis for IE in patients with high-risk cardiac conditions in the absence of active infection include:

  1. Dental procedures that involve manipulation of gingival tissue or the periapical region of teeth (eg, routine dental cleaning) or perforation of the oral mucosa
  2. Respiratory tract procedures that involve incision or biopsy of the respiratory mucosa (eg, tonsillectomy, bronchoscopy with biopsy)
  3. Surgical placement of prosthetic cardiac material
33
Q

Adenomyosis — presentation

vs. endometriosis

A

Abn presence of endometrial tissue within the uterine myometrium—> heavy bleeding and uniformly enlarged uterus

Endometriosis presents w/ dysmenorrhea and heavy bleeding. Exam is d/t in that uterus is immobile and fixed

34
Q

Weber test result in conduction vs sensorineural hearing loss

A

Conductive hearing loss: BC > AC in affected ear, AC > BC in unaffected ear. Weber- Lateralizes to affected ear
Sensorineural hearing loss: AC > BC in both ears (normal). Weber- Lateralizes to unaffected ear, away from affected ear
Mixed hearing loss
BC > AC in affected ear, AC > BC in unaffected ear
Lateralizes to unaffected ear, away from

35
Q

Iikelihood ration formulas

A

LR+ = sensitivy/ (1-specificity)

LR- = (1- sensitivity)/specificity

The (1-) is what moves

36
Q

Indications for parathyroid surgery in primary hyperparathyroidism

A
  1. Age <50 (likely to have complications later in life)
  2. Symptomatic hypercalcemia
  3. Complications: Osteoporosis (T-score 1 mg/dL above
    normal (10.2), urinary calcium excretion >400 mg/day
37
Q

CHADSVASc score- what does each stand for? How many pts?

Total possible score?

A
CHA2DS2-VASc score
C- Congestive heart failure
H- Hypertension
A2- Age ≥75*
D- Diabetes mellitus
S2- Stroke/TIA/thromboembolism
V-Vascular disease (prior myocardial infarction, peripheral artery disease, or aortic plaque)
A- Age 65-74*
Sc- Sex category (ie, female)
Maximum score- 9
38
Q

Bronchiolitis in young infants— cause, presentation, tx

A

Causes uncomplicated congestion /rhinorrhea in adults. Babies, <2 yo tend to have upper and lower respiratory tract involvement (eg, bronchiolitis). Infants age <2 months or those with a hx of prematurity, congenital heart disease, and chronic lung disease are most susceptible to life-threatening apnea.
Tx- palivizumab for <29 wks, chronic lung disease of prematurity, hemodynamically sign heart disease

39
Q

Which stages of syphilis do you give one time IM penicillin for

A

Primary, secondary and early latent (within 1 yr of infection)

40
Q

Treatment for neurosyphilis

A

Aqueous penicillin G, IV for 10-14 days

41
Q

Congenital syphilis tx

A

Aqueous penicillin G, IV for 10 days

42
Q

Which stage of syphilis do you use Benzathine penicillin G IM weekly for 3 weeks?

A
Late latent (>12 months of infection), unknown duration or 
Gummatous/CV syphilis
43
Q

Child’s arm being pulled, think—

treatment?

A

Radial head subluxation

Hyperpronation

44
Q

How do you treat close contacts for N. Meningitides (miningiccal)?

how about the pt?

A

https://www.google.com/url?sa=i&url=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.pinterest.com%2Fpin%2F474144666995547115%2F&psig=AOvVaw2A25ld0HG2E8wTO5MZ0eWQ&ust=1618525231896000&source=images&cd=vfe&ved=0CAIQjRxqFwoTCKjC473i_u8CFQAAAAAdAAAAABAJ

— Rifampin (the guy w/ riffle keeping close contacts out). Can also give a single po dose of ciprofloxacin or a single IM injection of ceftriaxone (in pregnancy)
Guy carrying three axes- tx = ceftrixaxone

45
Q

How do you know if a tap is traumatic?

A

A high RBC count (usually above 6000) without xanthochromia is characteristic.
**Should also rule out SAH (which would have xanthochromia and discoloration)

46
Q

What’s the most common congenial heart condition in adults?

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

47
Q

How do you interpret ROC (receiver-operating characteristic)?

A

The larger the area under the curve, the better the test is (better diagnostic discrimination and accuracy)

48
Q

Preterm labor management before 32 weeks vs after

A

<32—Betamethasone, Tocolysis to delay labor (eg, indomethacin), Magnesium sulfate
32 0/7 to 33 6/7—Betamethasone, Tocolysis (eg, nifedipine)
34 0/7 to 36 6/7 ± Betamethasone

In all stages, penicillin if GBS positive or unknown.
Between 32 and 34 weeks gestation, corticosteroids, tocolytics. Intramuscular betamethasone is indicated at <37 weeks gestation as it decreases the risk of respiratory distress syndrome, necrotizing enterocolitis, intraventricular hemorrhage, and neonatal mortality. Tocolysis between 32 and 34 weeks gestation is with nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker.

49
Q

Two and three SD’s equate what percentage?

A

2 SD = 95%

3 SD = 99.7%

50
Q

Define primary, secondary and tertiary prevention of MI for example

A

Primary— before pt develops MI. life style changes, starting statin
Secondary— halt the progression of a disease at its initial stage before irreversible pathological changes take place, thus preventing complications. Starting statin in a pt with hx of angina, positive stress test, would constitute secondary prevention of MI.
Tertiary prevention— used when the disease process has advanced beyond the early stages.

51
Q

What’s considered a positive screen for glucose tolerance test after 50 g of oral glucose

A

GLucose 140 mg/dl or above.

Then have to do 3-hr GTT

52
Q

What happens to parathyroid hormone in CKD?

A

CKD—> secondary hyperparathyroidism characterized by elevated PTH levels, low/low-normal calcium levels, and low 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D levels (despite adequate 25-hydroxyvitamin D stores). Over time, this can lead to autonomous PTH secretion unresponsive to rising calcium levels, resulting in hypercalcemia with very high PTH levels. This tertiary hyperparathyroidism can be associated with metabolic bone disease with bone pain and an elevated bone-specific alkaline phosphatase (due to high bone turnover).

Parathyroidectomy may be indicated

53
Q

Tamoxifen/Raloxifene indication and SE

A

Indication of high risk breast cancer. Tamoxifen— adjunct therapy for breast cancer. Raloxifene— for post-menopausal osteoporosis

Hot flashes
Venous thromboembolism
Endometrial polyps (in pre-m), hyperplasia & carcinoma (tamoxifen only)
Uterine sarcoma (tamoxifen only)

54
Q

Treatment of C trachomatis infection is with (2)

A

Treatment of C trachomatis infection is with azithromycin or doxycycline.

Test for other STIs (HIV, syphilis), treat partner, and ppl should abstain from sex for 7 days after abx.
Screen ppl <25 yo

55
Q

Do ACEi and ARBs carry the same risk of angioedema?

A

No, ARBs no!
Angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs) do not affect the bradykinin system and otherwise have the same general benefits. Some patients may have a recurrence of angioedema during the first few months after discontinuing the ACE inhibitor and still need monitoring on the ARB

56
Q

positive antithyroid peroxidase antibodies think___

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

57
Q

CLL presents presents with

A

Severe lymphocytosis (>5000),
lymphadenopathy, organomegaly, and
anemia/thrombocytopenia, last 4 associated with a worse prognosis.

58
Q

sensitivity formula

A
Follow the test in the table:
                Disease.       No disease 
\+ test
- test
                  SN
59
Q

Treatment options for otitis external?

A

For mild OE (minimal discomfort as in no real pain, erythema and edema) —topical acidifiers (eg, acetic acid, Domeboro solution) for 7-10 days are usually adequate.
For moderate OE— more significant pain, erythema, and edema, topical antibiotics (eg, ciprofloxacin, neomycin/polymyxin) are recommended.
Invasive/malignant (intense pain, complete canal occlusion from edema, fever, lymphadenopathy) in pts w/ immunosuppression/DM, use systemic abx +/- detriment

60
Q

What’s a Kleihauer-Betke test

A

Detects and quantifies the amount of fetomaternal hemorrhage by calculating the percentage of fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation. This test determines the amount of Rho(D) immune globulin that needs to be administered to decrease the risk of alloimmunization.
Do this if you’re worried about alloimmunization in a preg pt whose Rh status is unknown

61
Q

Abruptio placenta (RFs, presenation, tx, complications)

A

Risk factors— HTN, preeclampsia, abd trauma, prior hx, cocaine, tobacco.
Clinical presentation—Sudden-onset vaginal bleeding, Abdominal/back pain, High-frequency, low-intensity contractions, Rigid, tender uterus
Complications— Fetal hypoxia, preterm birth, mortality
Maternal hemorrhage, disseminated intravascular coagulation

62
Q

When do you transfuse in a pt with active GI bleed?

A

Most hemodynamically stable patients, including those with upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding, have better outcomes with restrictive red blood cell transfusion (eg, transfusion for a hemoglobin level <7 g/dL) than with liberal transfusion (transfusion for a hemoglobin level <9 g/dL)

63
Q

cremasteric reflex —which nerves?

A

The cremasteric reflex is regulated at the L1-L2 level of the spinal cord.

64
Q

When do you consider antibiotic prophylaxis UTI in women?

A

Antibiotic prophylaxis can be considered in young female patients who have had at least two UTIs in six months or three in a year.

65
Q

Warfarin interactions (5 that increase warfarin’s effect)

A

Mechanism
Examples
↑ Warfarin effect- ↑ INR.—Metronidazole, quinolones, Azoles, amiodarone, Acetaminophen (think mostly As)

↓ Warfarin effect (↓ INR)
Rifampin, phenytoin, St. John’s wort, Oral contraceptives, Green leafy vegetables, NSAIDs, clopidogrel, Ginkgo biloba

66
Q

Candidal diaper rash vs irritant/contact diaper dermatitis

A

Candidal diaper dermatitis— presents with “BEEFY”-red plaques, satellite lesions, and involvement of SKINFOLDS.
Tx- topical nystatin

Contact dermatitis— zinc oxide, petrolatum

67
Q

Which type of hernia is more likely to strangulate?

A

A femoral hernia is much more predisposed to strangulation than an inguinal hernia.
— F for For sure will strangulate

68
Q

Who needs an earlier colon cancer screening? (2)

A
  • First-degree relative age 2 first-degree relatives with colon cancer or adenomatous polyps at any age
69
Q

How does cervical cancer present?

A

The most common presenting features of invasive cervical cancer are irregular vaginal bleeding and a friable, exophytic cervical mass. Other features of cervical cancer include postcoital bleeding; watery, mucoid vaginal DISCHARGE; and ulcerative cervical lesions.

70
Q

Certain patterns of calcification within the pulmonary nodule are strongly suggestive of benign lesions: 5

A

including popcorn, concentric or laminated, central, and diffuse homogeneous calcifications

Eccentric calcification (area of asymmetric calcification), as well as reticular or punctate calcification raise suspicion for malignancy

71
Q

What’s Nelson’s syndrome?

A

Nelson’s syndrome is characterized by pituitary enlargement, hyperpigmentation, and visual field defect following bilateral adrenalectomy. Usually, these tumors are rapidly growing and can be treated with surgery and/or local radiation.

72
Q

Ovarian mass features that suggest malignancy

A

Complex, persistent appearance (eg, septations) of a mass increases the likelihood of malignancy, and the large size (>10 cm) increases the risk of torsion, rupture, and labor obstruction.

73
Q

Treating psychosis in Parkinson

A

he complex, persistent appearance (eg, septations) of the mass increases the likelihood of malignancy, and the large size (>10 cm) increases the risk of torsion, rupture, and labor obstruction.