Use of inhalers (Drugs and drug delivery) Flashcards

1
Q

How much of the drug is delivered with good inhaler technique (and how much with poor?)

A
  • 20-50% with good inhaler technique

- 5% with poor inhaler technique

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2
Q

What other factors contribute to poor drug delivery?

A
  • Large drug particles; deposited at the back of the throat/pharynx (oropharynx)
  • Speed breathing in; has to be at the right pace so drug particle does not hit throat
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3
Q

What are the advantages of pMDIs (pressurised metered dose inhaler)?

A
  • Compact
  • Portable
  • Multidose delivery
  • Suitable for emergency
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4
Q

What are the disadvantages of pMDIs?

A
  • Requires co-ordination
  • High oropharyngeal drug deposition
  • Difficult to determine remaining dose
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5
Q

What are the advantages of breath-actuated MDIs?

A
  • No co-ordination issues as per pMDIs

does not require co-ordination of device and inhalation

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6
Q

What are the disadvantages of breath-actaued MDIs?

A
  • Requires sufficient inspiratory flow to trigger the device
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7
Q

What are the counselling points for pMDIs?

A
  • Shake (gently) before use (so propellent and drug are sufficiently mixed)
  • Spray inhaler one or twice to prime device
  • Take normal breath in, out, and then…
  • Take breath in, SLOWLY, GENTLY AND DEEPLY
    (“device produces aerosol for you so you don’t need to do the hard work”)
  • Hold breath for as long as is comfortable (gravity allows drug deposition in airways)
  • Leave about a minute between puffs (ensuring adequate drug/propellent is expelled; pressure issues with over-use = less drug sprayed out)
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8
Q

What are the advantages of DPIs (dry powder inhaler)?

A
  • Breath actuated (instead of finger)
  • Less co-ordination required
  • Compact (like pMDI)
  • Portable (like pMDI)
  • Higher lung deposition of drug than pMDI
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9
Q

What are the disadvantages of DPIs?

A
  • Poor efficacy if insufficient inhalation
  • Need to prime dose (twist bottom/pierce capsule etc) each time
  • Most are MOISTURE SENSITIVE (counselling point; do not keep in bathroom cabinet etc)
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10
Q

What are the counselling points for a DPI?

A
  • Shake before use
  • Prime device (twist bottom/pierce capsule)
  • Inhale and exhale normally..
  • Breathe in forcefully, hardly and deeply
    (dry powder clumps together; powerful inhalation required to aggregate the particles)
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11
Q

What are spacers, their advantages and why are they used?

A
  • Removes need for coordination; tidal breathing is effective (taking several breaths giving a couple of seconds to inhale the drug)
  • Reduces risk of oral infection (thrush) from ICS
  • Suitable for managing mild/moderate acute asthma/COPD
  • pMDI w/spacer equivalent to nebuliser
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12
Q

What are nebulisers and when are they used?

A
  • Vaporised/mist drug inhaled via a mask through a machine
  • Used when distressing/disabling breathlessness is present despite maximum inhaler therapy
  • Used mainly in hospitals (less education and cooperation required)
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13
Q

What are the disadvantages associated with nebulisers?

A
  • Low efficiency (about 10% of drug reaches lungs)
  • Susceptible to microbiological contamination (replace mouthpiece/tubing ever 3-4 months, wash w/warm water and detergent and dry overnight with normal use)
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14
Q

What are SABAs and what do they do?

A
  • Short acting beta2 agonists
  • Reduce breathlessness
  • RELIEVER/rescue medication (does not prevent/control airway inflammation > preventer)
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15
Q

What adverse effects are associated with SABAs/LABAs?

A
  • Tachycardia due to action on beta-1 adrenoceptors in the heart
  • Tremor and muscle cramp; action on beta-2 adrenoceptors in the skeletal muscle
  • Results in potassium uptake thus potentially hypokalaemia (beware of patients on nebuliser for extended time)
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16
Q

What is the difference between a SABA and a LABAs onset of action?

A

SABA: Effective within 5 minutes or less, lasts for 4 to 6 hours.

LABA: Effective within 15-40 minutes, lasts for > 12 hours.

17
Q

What are SAMAs and what do they do?

A
  • Short acting muscarinic antagonists
  • Antagonise ACh-mediated contribution to bronchospasm
  • RELIEVER (smooth muscle relaxation)
18
Q

What adverse effects are associated with SAMAs/LAMAs?

A
  • Dry mouth
  • Blurred vision
  • Constipation
  • Nausea
  • Urinary retention
  • Tachycardia
    (Ipratropium blocks all muscarinic receptors without sub-type selectivity whilst M3 is main target)
19
Q

What is the difference between SAMA/LAMA onset of action?

A

SAMA: 30 to 40 minutes, duration of action: 3 to 6 hours
LAMA: 1 - 2 hours, duration of action: 24 hours

20
Q

What are LAMAs and what are their significance?

A
  • Long acting muscarinic antagonists
  • For patients who remain breathless despite short acting bronchodilators
  • Tiotropium reduces exacerbations and hospitalisations (superior to ipratropium)
21
Q

Why are corticosteroids used in asthma?

A
  • Reduces airway inflammation (acts on eosinophilic inflammation as present in asthma)
  • Regular use reduces exacerbations
  • …ones
22
Q

What adverse effects are associated with corticosteroids?

A
  • Oropharyngeal candidiasis (inhaled)
  • Adrenal suppression
  • Osteoporosis
  • Growth suppression
  • Cataracts
  • Glaucoma
  • Pneumonia
23
Q

What cautions are there between the ICS’ Clenil and QVAR?

A

Both are beclomethasone however QVAR is twice as potent.

24
Q

When are leukotriene receptors antagonists used? (name one)

A
  • Particularly useful in exercise-induced asthma
  • Blocks the effect of leukotrienes
  • E.g. Montelukast
25
Q

What are the adverse effects associated with leukotriene receptor antagonists?

A
  • Churg-Strauss syndrome

- Hepatic disorders

26
Q

What is theophylline/aminophylline and what must be taken account with its use?

A
  • Last line bronchodilator therapy
  • Phosphodiesterase inhibitor (reduces histamine release)
  • Clearance increased by smoking (higher dose req.)
  • Clearances reduced in heart failure/liver disease/COPD (lower dose/more caution)
  • Drug interactions
  • Dose varies by brand
  • Narrow therapeutic window
27
Q

What adverse effects are associated with theophylline?

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Palpitations
  • Nausea
  • Headache
28
Q

When is aminophylline used and how does it differ to theophylline?

A
  • Theophylline given as IV (amine group increases solubility in water so drug does not precipitate in blood)
  • Used in patients with near fatal asthma/life threatening acute asthma where poor response to initial therapy is seen
  • MAY gain additional benefit
  • Only used when failure to respond to other treatments
  • Not effective in exacerbations of COPD
29
Q

What factors decrease clearance of aminophylline?

A
  • Cimetidine, ciprofloxacin, macrolides, O/C pill,
  • Viral infection, heart failure, cirrhosis,
  • Elderly

(reduce dose/use with caution)

30
Q

What factors increase clearance of aminophylline?

A
  • Carbamazepine, phenytoin, St. John’s Wort,
  • Smoking, chronic alcholism

(increase dose)

31
Q

When is magnesium sulfate used and what is its mode of action?

A
  • For life threatening/near fatal asthma, acute w/o good initial response to inhaled bronchodilators
  • Action: smooth muscle relaxation in vitro (weak bronchodilator)
  • IV 1.2-2g over 20 minutes
32
Q

What is the role of the pharmacist with asthma therapy?

A
  • Accurate drug histories and medication reviews (wary of correct brand thus dose)
  • Concordance; suitability and manageability of inhalers (combination?), patient understanding, inhaler technique
  • Appropriate inhaler combination
  • Stepping down and review inappropriate agents
  • Steroid courses (and titrating down regimes)
  • Antibiotic management
  • Gastro/bone protection when on steroids (PPI/Ca2+)
  • Management of steroid induced diabetes
  • Theophylline levels
  • Lifestyle advice; smoking cessation, weight management