Urology / Renal Flashcards

1
Q

What does a scrotal swelling that you cant get above indicate?

A

Inguinal hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What may be present with an inguinal hernia causing a scrotal swelling?

A

Cough impulse

May be reducible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Presentation of testicular tumour

A

Often discrete testicular nodule (may have associated hydrocele)
Symptoms of mets may be present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Investigations of testicular tumour

A

USS scrotum
Serum AFP
BHCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Presentation of acute epididymo-orchitis

A

Dysuria
Urethral discharge
Swelling - tender and may be eased by elevating testis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are most cases of acute epididymo-orchitis due to?

A

Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Presentation of Epididymal cysts

A

Scrotal swelling
May contain clear or opalescent fluid (Spermatoceles)
Painless
Lie above or behind testis
Single or multiple cysts
Usually possible to get ‘above the lump’ on examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What age usually gets epididymal cysts?

A

> 40 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Presentation of hydrocele

A

Non painful, soft, fluctuant swelling
Often possible to “get above it” on examination
Usually contain clear fluid
Will often transilluminate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What may the presence of hydrocele be an early indicator of in young men?

A

Testicular cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Presentation of testicular torsion

A

Severe sudden onset testicular pain

Tender tesits - not eased by elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Who does testicular torsion usually effect?

A

Adolescents and young males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Risk factor for testicular torsion

A

Abnormal testicular lie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a varicocele?

A

Varicosities of the pampiniform plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where do varicoceles typically occur and why?

A

On the left

Because the testicular vein drains into the renal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What may a varicocele be a presenting feature of?

A

Renal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What may the affected testis in varicocele look like?

A

Smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What may bilateral varicoceles do?

A

Affect fertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Commonest subtype of testicular tumours

A

Seminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Average age of diagnosis of seminoma

A

40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tumour markers in seminoma

A

AFP normal
HCG elevated in 10%
Lactate dehydrogenase elevated in 10 - 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the other non seminomatous germ cell tumours?

A

Teratoma
Yolk sac tumour
Choriocarcinoma
Mixed germ cell tumours (10%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Age of presentation of non seminomatous germ cell tumours

A

20 - 30 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of a seminoma or non seminomatous germ cell tumours carry a worse prognosis?

A

Non Seminomatous germ cell tumours worse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Tumour markers in non seminomatous germ cell tumours

A

AFP elevated 70%

HCG elevated in 40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Risk factors for testicular cancer

A
Cryptorchidism 
Infertility 
FH
Kleinfelters syndrome
Mump orchitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Presentation of testicular cancer

A

Painless lump most common presenting symptom
Pain in a minority
Hydrocele
Gynaecomastia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Diagnosis of testicular cancer

A

USS 1st line
CT
Tumour markers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Management of testicular cancer

A

Orchidectomy (inguinal approach)
Chemo and radio depending on stage
Abdo lesions > 1cm following chemo may require retroperitoneal lymph node dissection

30
Q

Prognosis for testicular cancer

A

Excellent

31
Q

Definition of priapism

A

Persistent penile erection, typically defined as lasting over 4 hours and is not associated with sexual stimulation

32
Q

Types of priapism

A

Ischaemic

Non ischaemic

33
Q

Pathology of ischaemic priapism

A

Due to impaired vasorelaxation and therefore reduced vascular outflow resulting in congestion and trapping of de-oxygenated blood within the corpus cavernosa

34
Q

Pathology of non ischaemic priapism

A

Due to high arterial inflow, typically due to fistula formation often as a result of congenital or traumatic mechanisms

35
Q

Causes of priapism

A
Idiopathic
Sickle cell disease or other haemoglobinopathies
Erectile dysfunction medications
Drugs
- anti HTNs
- Anticoagulants
- antidepressants 
- cocaine, cannabis and ectasy
36
Q

Presentation of priapism

A

Persistent erection > 4 hours
Pain localised to the penis
More rarely a non painful erection or an erection that is not fully rigid (suggestive of non ischaemic)
History of trauma to perineal or genital region (suggestive of non ischaemic)

37
Q

Investigations of priapism

A

Cavernosal blood gas (to distinguish between non and ischaemic - in ischaemic p02 and pH would be reduced with increased CO2)
Doppler or duplex ultrasound
FBC and toxicology screen
Largely clinical diagnosis

38
Q

Is priapism a medical emergency?

A

Yes if ischaemic

39
Q

Treatment of ischaemic priapism

A

> 4 hours
- aspiration of blood from the cavernous cavernosa
- with injection of saline flush to help clear the viscous blood that has been pooled
If that fails
- Intracavernosal injection of vasoconstrictive agent such as phenylephrine is used and repeated at 5 min intervals
Surgical can then be considered if medical fails

40
Q

Treatment of non ischaemic priapism

A

Observation

41
Q

1st line investigation of a testicular mass

A

Testicular USS

42
Q

What is an indication for circumcision?

A

Recurrent balantitis

43
Q

What does periureteric fat on CT KUB with no ureteric calculus indicate?

A

Recent stone passage

44
Q

Treatment of renal calculus with a stone burden of less than 2cm in aggregate

A

Lithotripsy

45
Q

Treatment of renal calculus with a stone burden of less than 2cm in pregnant females

A

Ureteroscopy

46
Q

Treatment of renal calculus if complex renal calculi and staghorn calculi

A

Percutaneous nephrolithotomy

47
Q

Treatment of renal calculus if ureteric calculi is < 5mm

A

Manage expectantly

48
Q

Renal stones of what size will likely pass spontaneously and in how long?

A

< 5mm in maximum diameter

Within 4 weeks of symptom onset

49
Q

Describe shockwave lithotripsy

A

A shock wave is generated external to the patient
Internally cavitation bubbles and mechanical stress lead to stone fragmentation
Analgesia will be required before and afterwards as it is unpleasant

50
Q

Complications of shockwave lithiotripsy

A

Passage of shock waves may lead to solid organ injury

Fragmentation of larger stones may result in development of ureteric obstruction

51
Q

Describe uteroscopy

A

A ureteroscope is passed retrograde through the ureter into the renal pelvis
Indicated in complex cases (e.g. pregnant women) where lithiotripsy is contraindicated and in complex stone disease
In most cases a stent is left in for 4 weeks post procedure

52
Q

Describe percutaneous nephrolithotomy

A

Access is gained to the renal collecting system

One access is achieved, intra corpeal lithiotripsy or stone fragmentation is performed and stone fragments removed

53
Q

Urinary incontinence in a man with a PMH of gonorrohoea may be due to what?

A

Urinary stricture

54
Q

Most common cause of epididymis in > 35 y/o men

A

E coli

55
Q

Causes of unilateral hydronephrosis

A

Pelvic ureteric obstruction (congenital or acquired)
Aberrant renal vessels
Calculi
Tumours of the renal pelvis

56
Q

Causes of bilateral hydronephrosis

A
Stenosis of the urethra
Urethral valve
Prostatic enlargement
Extensive bladder tumour
Retroperitoneal fibrosis
57
Q

Treatment of acute upper urinary tract obstruction

A

Nephrostomy tube

58
Q

Treatment of chronic upper urinary tract obstruction

A

Ureteric stent or pyeloplasty

59
Q

Complication of TURP

A

TURP syndrome
Urethral stricture / UTI
Retrograde ejaculation
Perforation of the prostate

60
Q

Pathology of TURP syndrome

A

Occurs when irrigation fluid enters the systemic circulation

61
Q

Triad of features of TURP syndrome

A
  1. Dilutional hyponatraemia
  2. Fluid overload
  3. Glycine toxicity
62
Q

1st line investigation for renal stones

A

Non contrast CT

63
Q

Most common form of prostate cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

64
Q

Investigation for hydronephrosis

A

USS

65
Q

1st line for BPH

A

Alpha-1-antagonist

66
Q

Investigation for acute prostatitis symptoms

A

STI testing

67
Q

Most common organism causing acute prostatitis

A

E coli

68
Q

Risk factors for acute bacterial prostatitis

A

Recent UTI
Urogenital instrumentation
Intermittent bladder catheterisation
Recent prostate biopsy

69
Q

Presentation of acute bacterial prostatitis

A
Pain - can be referred to a variety of areas
- perineum 
- penis
- rectum 
- back 
Obstructive voiding symptoms
Fever / rigors
on DRE; tender, boggy prostate
70
Q

Treatment for acute bacterial prostatitis

A

Screen for STIs

2 week course of quinolone

71
Q

What may ureteric stones occur in the background of?

A

Dehydration

72
Q

What cancers are patients at risk of following radiotherapy for prostate cancer?

A

Bladder cancer
Colon cancer
Rectal cancer