Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Section III Subspecialty Surgery P517 > Urology, C76 P743-766 > Flashcards

Urology, C76 P743-766 Flashcards

1
Q

Define the following terms:
Cystogram
P743

A

Contrast study of the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define the following terms:
Ureteral stents
P743

A

Plastic tubes placed via cystoscope into

the ureters for stenting, identification, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define the following terms:
Cystoscope
P743

A

Scope placed into the urethra and into

the bladder to visualize the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define the following terms:
Perc nephrostomy
P743

A

Catheter placed through the skin into the
kidney pelvis to drain urine with distal
obstruction, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define the following terms:
Retrograde pyelogram
P743

A

Dye injected into the ureter up into the

kidney, and films taken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define the following terms:
RUG
P744

A 
Retrograde UrethroGram (dye injected
into the urethra and films taken; rules out
urethral injury, usually in trauma patients)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define the following terms:
Gomco clamp
P744

A

Clamp used for circumcision; protects

penis glans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define the following terms:
Bell clapper’s deformity
P744

A

Condition of congenital absence of

gubernaculum attachment to scrotum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define the following terms:
Fournier’s gangrene
P744

A

Extensive tissue necrosis/infection of the

perineum in patients with diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define the following terms:
Foley catheter
P744

A

Straight bladder catheter placed through

the urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define the following terms:
Coudé catheter
P744

A

Basically, a Foley catheter with hook on

the end to get around a large prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define the following terms:
Suprapubic catheter
P744

A

Bladder catheter placed through the skin

above the pubic symphysis into the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define the following terms:
Posthitis
P744

A

Foreskin infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define the following terms:
Hydrocele
P744

A

Clear fluid in the processus vaginalis

membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define the following terms:
Communicating
hydrocele
P744 (picture)

A

Hydrocele that communicates with
peritoneal cavity and, thus, gets smaller
and larger as fluid drains and then
reaccumulates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define the following terms:
Noncommunicating
hydrocele
P745 (picture)

A

Hydrocele that does not communicate
with the peritoneal cavity; hydrocele
remains the same size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define the following terms:
Varicocele
P745

A

Abnormal dilation of the pampiniform
plexus to the spermatic vein in the spermatic
cord; described as a “bag of worms”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define the following terms:
Spermatocele
P745

A

Dilatation of epididymis or vas deferens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define the following terms:
Epididymitis
P745

A

Infection of the epididymis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define the following terms:
Prehn’s sign
P745

A

Elevation of the painful testicle that

reduces the pain of epididymitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define the following terms:
TRUS
P745

A

TransRectal UltraSound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define the following terms:
DRE
P745

A

Digital Rectal Examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define the following terms:
Orchitis
P745

A

Inflammation/infection of the testicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define the following terms:
Pseudohermaphroditism
P745

A

Genetically one sex; partial or complete

opposite-sex genitalia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define the following terms:
Urgency
P745

A

Overwhelming sensation to void

immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Define the following terms:
Dysuria
P745

A 
Painful urination (usually burning
sensation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Define the following terms:
Frequency
P745

A

Urination more frequently than usual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Define the following terms:
Polyuria
P746

A

Urination in larger amounts than usual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define the following terms:
Nocturia
P746

A

Awakening to urinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Define the following terms:
Hesitancy
P746

A

Delay in urination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Define the following terms:
Pneumaturia
P746

A

Air passed with urine via the urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Define the following terms:
Pyuria
P746

A

WBCs in urine; UTI >10 WBCs/HPF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Define the following terms:
Cryptorchidism
P746

A

Undescended testicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Define the following terms:
IVP
P746

A 
IntraVenous Pyelogram (dye is injected
into the vein, collects in the renal
collecting system, and an x-ray is taken)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Define the following terms:
Hematuria
P746

A

RBCs in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define the following terms:
Space of Retzius
P746

A

Anatomic extraperitoneal space in front

of the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Define the following terms:
Enuresis
P746

A

Involuntary urination while asleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Define the following terms:
Incontinence
P746

A

Involuntary urination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Define the following terms:
TURP
P746

A

TransUrethral Resection of the Prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Define the following terms:
PVR
P746

A

PostVoid Residual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Define the following terms:
Priapism
P746

A

Prolonged, painful erection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Define the following terms:
Paraphimosis
P746

A 
Foreskin held (stuck) in the retracted
position
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Define the following terms:
Phimosis
P746

A

Inability to retract the foreskin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Define the following terms:
Balanitis
P746

A

Inflammation/infection of the glans penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Define the following terms:
Balanoposthitis
P746

A

Inflammation/infection of the glans and

prepuce of the penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Define the following terms:
UTI
P746

A

Urinary Tract Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Define the following terms:
Peyronie’s disease
P746

A

Abnormal fibrosis of the penis shaft,

resulting in a bend upon erection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Define the following terms:
BPH
P747

A

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Define the following terms:
Epispadias
P747

A

Abnormal urethral opening on the dorsal

surface of the penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Define the following terms:
Hypospadiasis
P747

A

Abnormal urethral opening on the
ventral surface of the penis; may occur in
anterior, middle, or posterior of penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Define the following terms:
Erectile dysfunction
P747

A

Inability to achieve an erection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Define the following terms:
Sterility
P747

A

Inability to reproduce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Define the following terms:
Appendix testis
P747

A

Common redundant testicular tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Define the following terms:
VUR
P747

A

VesicoUreteral Reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

SCROTAL ANATOMY
What are the layers of the
scrotum?
P747 (picture)

A

(see picture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

UROLOGIC DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS
What is the differential
diagnosis of scrotal mass?
P747 (picture)

A

Cancer, torsion, epididymitis, hydrocele,
spermatocele, varicocele, inguinal hernia,
testicular appendage, swollen testicle after
trauma, nontesticular tumor (paratesticular
tumor: e.g., rhabdomyosarcoma,
leiomyosarcoma, liposarcoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

UROLOGIC DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS
What are the causes of
hematuria?
P748

A

Bladder cancer, trauma, UTI, cystitis
from chemotherapy or radiation, stones,
kidney lesion, BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q 
UROLOGIC DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS
What is the most common
cause of severe gross
hematuria without trauma
or chemotherapy/radiation?
P748
A

Bladder cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q 
UROLOGIC DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS
What is the differential
diagnosis for bladder outlet
obstruction?
P748
A

BPH, stone, foreign body, urethral

stricture, urethral valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q 
UROLOGIC DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS
What is the differential
diagnosis for ureteral
obstruction?
P748
A

Stone, tumor, iatrogenic (suture),
stricture, gravid uterus, radiation injury,
retroperitoneal fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

UROLOGIC DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS
What is the differential
diagnosis for kidney tumor?
P748

A

Renal cell carcinoma, sarcoma, adenoma,
angiomyolipoma, hemangiopericytoma,
oncocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
What is it?
P748

A

Most common solid renal tumor (90%);
originates from proximal renal tubular
epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
What is the epidemiology?
P748

A

Primarily a tumor of adults 40 to 60 years
of age with a 3:1 male:female ratio; 5% of
cancers overall in adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
What percentage of the
tumors are bilateral?
P748

A

1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
What are the risk factors?
P748

A

Male sex, tobacco, von Hippel-Lindau

syndrome, polycystic kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
What are the symptoms?
P748

A

Pain (40%), hematuria (35%), weight loss

35%), flank mass (25%), HTN (20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
What is the classic TRIAD of
renal cell carcinoma?
P748

A
  1. Flank pain
  2. Hematuria
  3. Palpable mass (triad occurs in only
    10%–15% of cases)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
How are most cases
diagnosed these days?
P749

A

Found incidentally on an imaging study

(CT, MRI, U/S) for another reason

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
What radiologic tests are
performed?
P749

A
  1. IVP

2. Abdominal CT scan with contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
Define the stages (AJCC):
Stage I?
P749

A

Tumor <2.5 cm, no nodes, no metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
Define the stages (AJCC):
Stage II?
P749

A

Tumor >2.5 cm limited to kidney, no

nodes, no metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
Define the stages (AJCC):
Stage III?
P749

A

Tumor extends into IVC or main renal
vein; positive regional lymph nodes but
<2 cm in diameter and no metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
Define the stages (AJCC):
Stage IV?
P749

A

Distant metastasis or positive lymph node
>2 cm in diameter, or tumor extends past
Gerota’s fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
What is the metastatic
workup?
P749

A

CXR, IVP, CT scan, LFTs, calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
What are the sites of
metastases?
P749

A

Lung, liver, brain, bone; tumor thrombus
entering renal vein or IVC is not
uncommon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
What is the unique route of
spread?
P749

A

Tumor thrombus into IVC lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
What is the treatment of
RCC?
P749

A

Radical nephrectomy (excision of the
kidney and adrenal, including Gerota’s
fascia) for stages I through IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
What gland is removed with
a radical nephrectomy?
P749

A

Adrenal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q 
RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
What is the unique
treatment for metastatic
spread?
P749
A
  1. a-interferon
  2. LAK cells (lymphokine-activated
    killer) and IL-2 (interleukin-2)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
What is a syndrome of RCC
and liver disease?
P749

A

Stauffer’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q 
RENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC)
What is the concern in an
adult with new onset left
varicocele?
P750
A

Left RCC—the left gonadal vein drains

into the left renal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

BLADDER CANCER
What is the incidence?
P750

A

Second most common urologic malignancy
Male:female ratio of 3:1
White patients are more commonly affected
than are African American patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

BLADDER CANCER
What is the most common
histology?
P750

A

Transitional Cell Carcinoma (TCC)—
90%; remaining cases are squamous or
adenocarcinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

BLADDER CANCER
What are the risk factors?
P750

A

Smoking, industrial carcinogens (aromatic
amines), schistosomiasis, truck drivers,
petroleum workers, cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

BLADDER CANCER
What are the symptoms?
P750

A

Hematuria, with or without irritative

symptoms (e.g., dysuria), frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

BLADDER CANCER
What is the classic presentation
of bladder cancer?
P750

A

“Painless hematuria”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

BLADDER CANCER
What tests are included in
the workup?
P750

A

Urinalysis and culture, IVP, cystoscopy

with cytology and biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q 
BLADDER CANCER
Define the AJCC transitional
cell bladder cancer stages:
Stage 0?
P750
A

Superficial, carcinoma in situ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q 
BLADDER CANCER
Define the AJCC transitional
cell bladder cancer stages:
Stage I?
P750
A

Invades subepithelial connective tissue,

no positive nodes, no metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q 
BLADDER CANCER
Define the AJCC transitional
cell bladder cancer stages:
Stage II?
P750
A

Invades superficial or deep muscularis

propria, no positive nodes, no metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q 
BLADDER CANCER
Define the AJCC transitional
cell bladder cancer stages:
Stage III?
P750
A

Invades perivesical tissues, no positive

nodes, no metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q 
BLADDER CANCER
Define the AJCC transitional
cell bladder cancer stages:
Stage IV?
P750
A

Positive nodal spread with distant
metastases and/or invades abdominal/
pelvic wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q 
BLADDER CANCER
What is the treatment
according to stage:
Stage 0?
P751
A

TURB and intravesical chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q 
BLADDER CANCER
What is the treatment
according to stage:
Stage I?
P751
A

TURB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q 
BLADDER CANCER
What is the treatment
according to stage:
Stage II and III?
P751
A

Radical cystectomy, lymph node
dissection, removal of prostate/uterus/
ovaries/anterior vaginal wall, and urinary
diversion (e.g., ileal conduit) +/- chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q 
BLADDER CANCER
What is the treatment
according to stage:
Stage IV?
P751
A

+/- Cystectomy and systemic

chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

BLADDER CANCER
What are the indications for
a partial cystectomy?
P751

A

Superficial, isolated tumor, apical with

3-cm margin from any orifices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

BLADDER CANCER
What is TURB?
P751

A

TransUrethral Resection of the Bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

BLADDER CANCER
If after a TURB the tumor
recurs, then what?
P751

A

Repeat TURB and intravesical
chemotherapy (mitomycin C) or
bacillus Calmette-Guérin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

BLADDER CANCER
What is and how does bacillus
Calmette-Guérin work?
P751

A

Attenuated TB vaccine—thought to work

by immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
What is the incidence?
P751

A 
Most common GU cancer (100,000
new cases per year in the United States);
most common carcinoma in men in the
U.S.; second most common cause of death
in men in the U.S.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
What is the epidemiology?
P751

A 
“Disease of elderly men” present in
33% of men 70 to 79 years of age and in
66% of men 80 to 89 years of age at
autopsy; African American patients have
a 50% higher incidence than do white
patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
What is the histology?
P751

A

Adenocarcinoma (95%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
What are the symptoms?
P752

A 
Often asymptomatic; usually presents
as a nodule found on routine rectal
examination; in 70% of cases, cancer
begins in the periphery of the gland
and moves centrally; thus, obstructive
symptoms occur late
105
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
What percentage of patients
have metastasis at diagnosis?
P752

A

40% of patients have metastatic disease
at presentation, with symptoms of bone
pain and weight loss

106
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
What are the common sites
of metastasis?
P752

A

Osteoblastic bony lesions, lung, liver,

adrenal

107
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
What provides lymphatic
drainage?
P752

A

Obturator and hypogastric nodes

108
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
What is the significance of
Batson’s plexus?
P752

A

Spinal cord venous plexus; route of

isolated skull/brain metastasis

109
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
What are the steps in early
detection?
P752

A
  1. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)—most
    sensitive and specific marker
  2. Digital rectal examination (DRE)
110
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
When should men get a
PSA-level check?
P752

A

Controversial:
1. All men >50 years old
2. >40 years old if first-degree family
history or African American patient

111
Q 
PROSTATE CANCER
What percentage of patients
with prostate cancer will
have an elevated PSA?
P752
112
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
What is the imaging test for
bladder cancer?
P752

A

TransRectal UltraSound (TRUS)

113
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
How is the diagnosis made?
P752

A

Transrectal biopsy

114
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
What is the Gleason score?
P752

A

Histologic grades 2–10:
Low score = well differentiated
High score = poorly differentiated

115
Q 
PROSTATE CANCER
What are the indications for
transrectal biopsy with
normal rectal examination?
P752
A

PSA >10 or abnormal transrectal

ultrasound

116
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
Staging (AJCC):
Stage I?
P753

A

Tumor involves <50% of 1 lobe, no nodes,

no metastases, PSA 10, Gleason ≤6

117
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
Staging (AJCC):
Stage II?
P753

A

Tumor within prostate; lobe 10, or Gleason >6; or >50% of
1 lobe, no nodes, no metastases

118
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
Staging (AJCC):
Stage III?
P753

A

Tumor through prostate capsule or into

seminal vesicles, no nodes, no metastases

119
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
Staging (AJCC):
Stage IV?
P753

A

Tumor extends into adjacent structures
(other than seminal vesicles) or + nodes
or + metastases

120
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
What does a “radical
prostatectomy” remove?
P753

A
  1. Prostate gland
  2. Seminal vesicles
  3. Ampullae of the vasa deferentia
121
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
What is “androgen ablation”
therapy?
P753

A
  1. Bilateral orchiectomy or
  2. Luteinizing Hormone-Releasing
    Hormone (LHRH) agonists
122
Q

PROSTATE CANCER
How do LHRH agonists
work?
P753

A

Decrease LH release from pituitary,
which then decreases testosterone
production in the testes

123
Q 
PROSTATE CANCER
What are the generalized
treatment options according
to stage:
Stage I?
P753
A

Radical prostatectomy

124
Q 
PROSTATE CANCER
What are the generalized
treatment options according
to stage:
Stage II?
P753
A

Radical prostatectomy, +/- lymph node

dissection

125
Q 
PROSTATE CANCER
What are the generalized
treatment options according
to stage:
Stage III?
P753
A

Radiation therapy, +/- androgen ablation

126
Q 
PROSTATE CANCER
What are the generalized
treatment options according
to stage:
Stage IV?
P753
A

Androgen ablation, radiation therapy

127
Q 
PROSTATE CANCER
What is the medical
treatment for systemic
metastatic disease?
P753
A

Androgen ablation

128
Q 
PROSTATE CANCER
What is the option for
treatment in the early stage
prostate cancer patient >70
years old with comorbidity?
P754
129
Q

BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA
What is it also known as?
P754

130
Q

BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA
What is it?
P754

A

Disease of elderly men (average age is
60 to 65 years); prostate gradually
enlarges, creating symptoms of urinary
outflow obstruction

131
Q

BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA
What is the size of a normal
prostate?
P754

A

20 to 25 gm

132
Q

BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA
Where does BPH occur?
P754

A

Periurethrally
(Note: prostate cancer occurs in the
periphery of the gland)

133
Q

BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA
What are the symptoms?
P754

A

Obstructive-type symptoms: hesitancy,
weak stream, nocturia, intermittency,
UTI, urinary retention

134
Q

BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA
How is the diagnosis made?
P754

A

History, DRE, elevated PostVoid Residual

(PVR), urinalysis, cystoscopy, U/S

135
Q

BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA
What lab tests should be
performed?
P754

A

Urinalysis, PSA, BUN, CR

136
Q

BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA
What is the differential
diagnosis?
P754

A 
Prostate cancer (e.g., nodular)—biopsy
Neurogenic bladder—history of
    neurologic disease
Acute prostatitis—hot, tender gland
Urethral stricture—RUG, history of STD
Stone
UTI
137
Q

BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA
What are the treatment
options?
P754

A 
Pharmacologic— a-1 blockade
Hormonal—antiandrogens
Surgical—TURP, TUIP, open prostate
resection
Transurethral balloon dilation
138
Q

BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA
Why do -adrenergic
blockers work?
P755

A
  1. Relax sphincter

2. Relax prostate capsule

139
Q

BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA
What is Proscar®?
P755

A

Finasteride: 5--reductase inhibitor;
blocks transformation of testosterone to
dihydrotestosterone; may shrink and slow
progression of BPH

140
Q

BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA
What is Hytrin®?
P755

A

Terazosin: -blocker; may increase urine
outflow by relaxing prostatic smooth
muscles

141
Q

BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA
What are the indications for
surgery in BPH?
P755

A 
Due to obstruction:
    Urinary retention
    Hydronephrosis
    UTIs
    Severe symptoms
142
Q

BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA
What is TURP?
P755

A

TransUrethral Resection of Prostate:

resection of prostate tissue via a scope

143
Q

BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA
What is TUIP?
P755

A

TransUrethral Incision of Prostate

144
Q 
BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA
What percentage of tissue
removed for BPH will have
malignant tissue on histology?
P755
A

Up to 10%!

145
Q

BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA
What are the possible
complications of TURP?
P755

A 
Immediate:
Failure to void
Bleeding
Clot retention
UTI
Incontinence
146
Q

TESTICULAR CANCER
What is the incidence?
P755

A

Rare; 2 to 3 new cases per 100,000 men

per year in the United States

147
Q

TESTICULAR CANCER
What is its claim to fame?
P755

A

Most common solid tumor of young adult

males (20 to 40 years)

148
Q

TESTICULAR CANCER
What are the risk factors?
P755

A

Cryptorchidism (6% of testicular tumors
develop in patients with a history of
cryptorchidism)

149
Q

TESTICULAR CANCER
What is cryptorchidism?
P756

A

Failure of the testicle to descend into the

scrotum

150
Q 
TESTICULAR CANCER
Does orchiopexy as an adult
remove the risk of testicular
cancer?
P756
151
Q

TESTICULAR CANCER
What are the symptoms?
P756

A

Most patients present with a painless lump,
swelling, or firmness of the testicle; they often
notice it after incidental trauma to the groin

152
Q 
TESTICULAR CANCER
What percentage of patients
present with an acute
hydrocele?
P756
153
Q 
TESTICULAR CANCER
What percentage present
with symptoms of metastatic
disease (back pain, anorexia)?
P756
154
Q

TESTICULAR CANCER
What are the classifications?
P756

A 
Germ cell tumors (95%):
    Seminomatous (35%)
    Nonseminomatous (65%)
    Embryonal cell carcinoma
       Teratoma
       Mixed cell
       Choriocarcinoma
Nongerminal (5%):
    Leydig cell
    Sertoli cell
    Gonadoblastoma
155
Q

TESTICULAR CANCER
What is the major classification
based on therapy?
P756

A

Seminomatous and nonseminomatous

tumors

156
Q

TESTICULAR CANCER
What are the tumor markers
for testicular tumors?
P756

A
  1. Beta-human chorionic gonadotropin
    ( ℬ-HCG)
  2. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
157
Q

TESTICULAR CANCER
What are the tumor markers
by tumor type?
P756

A 
ℬ-HCG—↑ in choriocarcinoma (100%),
    embryonal carcinoma (50%), and
    rarely in pure seminomas (10%);
    nonseminomatous tumors (50%)
AFP—↑ in embryonal carcinoma and
    yolk sac tumors; nonseminomatous
    tumors (50%)
158
Q 
TESTICULAR CANCER
Define the difference
between seminomatous and
NONseminomatous germ cell
testicular tumor markers.
P757
A

NONseminomatous common = 90%
have a positive AFP and/or ℬ-HCG
Seminomatous rare = only 10% are
AFP positive

159
Q

TESTICULAR CANCER
Which tumors almost never
have an elevated AFP?
P757

A

Choriocarcinoma and seminoma

160
Q

TESTICULAR CANCER
In which tumor is -HCG
almost always found elevated?
P757

A

Choriocarcinoma

161
Q 
TESTICULAR CANCER
How often is -HCG elevated
in patients with pure
seminoma?
P757
A

Only about 10% of the time!

162
Q

TESTICULAR CANCER
How often is -HCG elevated
with nonseminoma?
P757

163
Q 
TESTICULAR CANCER
What other tumor markers
may be elevated and useful
for recurrence surveillance?
P757
A

LDH, CEA, Human Chorionic
Somatomammotropic (HCS),
Gamma-Glutamyl Transpeptidase (GGT),
PLacental Alkaline Phosphate (PLAP)

164
Q

TESTICULAR CANCER
What are the steps in
workup?
P757

A

PE, scrotal U/S, check tumor markers,

CXR, CT (chest/pelvis/abd)

165
Q 
TESTICULAR CANCER
Define the stages according
to TMN staging (AJCC):
Stage I?
P757
A

Any tumor size, no nodes, no metastases

166
Q 
TESTICULAR CANCER
Define the stages according
to TMN staging (AJCC):
Stage II?
P757
A

Positive nodes, no metastases, any tumor

167
Q 
TESTICULAR CANCER
Define the stages according
to TMN staging (AJCC):
Stage III?
P757
A 
Distant metastases (any nodal status,
any size tumor)
168
Q

TESTICULAR CANCER
What is the initial treatment
for all testicular tumors?
P757

A 
Inguinal orchiectomy (removal of
testicle through a groin incision)
169
Q 
TESTICULAR CANCER
What is the treatment of
seminoma at the various
stages:
Stage I and II?
P757
A

Inguinal orchiectomy and radiation to

retroperitoneal nodal basins

170
Q 
TESTICULAR CANCER
What is the treatment of
seminoma at the various
stages:
Stage III?
P757
A

Orchiectomy and chemotherapy

171
Q 
TESTICULAR CANCER
What is the treatment of
NONseminomatous disease
at the various stages:
Stages I and II?
P758
A

Orchiectomy and retroperitoneal lymph
node dissection versus close follow-up
for retroperitoneal nodal involvement

172
Q 
TESTICULAR CANCER
What is the treatment of
NONseminomatous disease
at the various stages:
Stages III?
P758
A

Orchiectomy and chemotherapy

173
Q 
TESTICULAR CANCER
What percentage of stage I
seminomas are cured after
treatment?
P758
174
Q

TESTICULAR CANCER
Which type is most
radiosensitive?
P758

A

Seminoma (Think: Seminoma = Sensitive

to radiation)

175
Q 
TESTICULAR CANCER
Why not remove testis with
cancer through a scrotal
incision?
P758
A

It could result in tumor seeding of the

scrotum

176
Q 
TESTICULAR CANCER
What is the major side effect
of retroperitoneal lymph
node dissection?
P758
A

Erectile dysfunction

177
Q

TESTICULAR TORSION
What is it?
P758

A

Torsion (twist) of the spermatic cord,
resulting in venous outflow obstruction,
and subsequent arterial occlusion →
infarction of the testicle

178
Q

TESTICULAR TORSION
What is the classic history?
P758

A

Acute onset of scrotal pain usually after

vigorous activity or minor trauma

179
Q

TESTICULAR TORSION
What is a “bell clapper”
deformity?
P758 (picture)

A

Bilateral nonattachment of the testicles
by the gubernaculum to the scrotum
(free like the clappers of a bell)

180
Q

TESTICULAR TORSION
What are the symptoms?
P759

A

Pain in the scrotum, suprapubic pain

181
Q

TESTICULAR TORSION
What are the signs?
P759

A

Very tender, swollen, elevated testicle;
nonillumination; absence of cremasteric
reflex

182
Q

TESTICULAR TORSION
What is the differential
diagnosis?
P759

A

Testicular trauma, inguinal hernia,

epididymitis, appendage torsion

183
Q

TESTICULAR TORSION
How is the diagnosis made?
P759

A

Surgical exploration, U/S (solid mass) and
Doppler flow study, cold Tc-99m scan
(nuclear study)

184
Q

TESTICULAR TORSION
What is the treatment?
P759

A

Surgical detorsion and bilateral orchiopexy

to the scrotum

185
Q 
TESTICULAR TORSION
How much time is available
from the onset of symptoms
to detorse the testicle?
P759
A

90% salvage rate

186
Q

TESTICULAR TORSION
What are the chances of testicle
salvage after 24 hours?
P759

187
Q

EPIDIDYMITIS
What is it?
P759

A

Infection of the epididymis

188
Q

EPIDIDYMITIS
What are the
signs/symptoms?
P759

A

Swollen, tender testicle; dysuria; scrotal

ache/pain; fever; chills; scrotal mass

189
Q

EPIDIDYMITIS
What is the cause?
P759

A

Bacteria from the urethra

190
Q 
EPIDIDYMITIS
What are the common bugs in
the following types of patients:
Elderly patients/children?
P759
A

Escherichia coli

191
Q 
EPIDIDYMITIS
What are the common bugs in
the following types of patients:
Young men?
P759
A

STD bacteria: Gonorrhea, chlamydia

192
Q

EPIDIDYMITIS
What is the major
differential diagnosis?
P759

A

Testicular torsion

193
Q

EPIDIDYMITIS
What is the workup?
P759

A

U/A, urine culture, swab if STD suspected,
+/- U/S with Doppler or nuclear study
to rule out torsion

194
Q

EPIDIDYMITIS
What is the treatment?
P759

A

Antibiotics

195
Q

PRIAPISM
What is priapism?
P760

A

Persistent penile erection

196
Q

PRIAPISM
What are its causes?
P760

A

Low flow: leukemia, drugs (e.g., prazosin),
sickle-cell disease, erectile dysfunction
treatment gone wrong
High flow: pudendal artery fistula, usually
from trauma

197
Q

PRIAPISM
What is first-line treatment?
P760

A
  1. Aspiration of blood from corporus
    cavernosum
  2. -Adrenergic agent
198
Q

ERECTILE DYSFUNCTION
What is it?
P760

A

Inability to achieve an erection

199
Q

ERECTILE DYSFUNCTION
What are the six major
causes?
P760

A 
1. Vascular: decreased blood flow or
    leak of blood from the corpus
    cavernosus (most common cause)
2. Endocrine: low testosterone
3. Anatomic: structural abnormality of
    the erectile apparatus (e.g., Peyronie’s
    disease)
4. Neurologic: damage to nerves (e.g.,
    postoperative, IDDM)
5. Medications (e.g., clonidine)
6. Psychologic: performance anxiety,
    etc. (very rare)
200
Q

ERECTILE DYSFUNCTION
What lab tests should be
performed?
P760

A

Fasting GLC (rule out diabetes and thus
diabetic neuropathy)
Serum testosterone
Serum prolactin

201
Q

CALCULUS DISEASE
What is the incidence?
P760

A

1 in 10 people will have stones

202
Q

CALCULUS DISEASE
What are the risk factors?
P760

A

Poor fluid intake, IBD, hypercalcemia
(“CHIMPANZEES”), renal tubular
acidosis, small bowel bypass

203
Q

CALCULUS DISEASE
What are the four types of
stones?
P761

A
  1. Calcium oxalate/calcium PO(4) (75%)—
    secondary to hypercalciuria (↑ intestinal
    absorption, ↓ renal reabsorption,
    ↑ bone reabsorption)
  2. Struvite (MgAmPh)(15%)—infection
    stones; seen in UTI with urea-splitting
    bacteria (Proteus); may cause staghorn
    calculi; high urine pH
  3. Uric acid (7%)—stones are radiolucent
    (Think: Uric = Unseen); seen in gout,
    Lesch-Nyhan, chronic diarrhea,
    cancer; low urine pH
  4. Cystine (1%)—genetic predisposition
204
Q

CALCULUS DISEASE
What type of stones are not
seen on AXR?
P761

A

Uric acid (Think: Uric = Unseen)

205
Q

CALCULUS DISEASE
What stone is associated
with UTIs?
P761

A

Struvite stones (Think: Struvite = Sepsis)

206
Q

CALCULUS DISEASE
What stones are seen in
IBD/bowel bypass?
P761

A

Calcium oxalate

207
Q

CALCULUS DISEASE
What are the symptoms of
calculus disease?
P761

A

Severe pain; patient cannot sit still: renal
colic (typically pain in the kidney/ureter
that radiates to the testis or penis),
hematuria (remember, patients with
peritoneal signs are motionless)

208
Q

CALCULUS DISEASE
What are the classic
findings/symptoms?
P761

A

Flank pain, stone on AXR, hematuria

209
Q

CALCULUS DISEASE
Diagnosis?
P761

A

KUB (90% radiopaque), IVP, urinalysis

and culture, BUN/Cr, CBC

210
Q

CALCULUS DISEASE
What is the significance of
hematuria and pyuria?
P761

A

Stone with concomitant infection

211
Q

CALCULUS DISEASE
Treatment?
P761

A 
Narcotics for pain, vigorous hydration,
    observation
Further options: ESWL (lithotripsy),
    ureteroscopy, percutaneous lithotripsy,
    open surgery; metabolic workup for
    recurrence
212
Q

CALCULUS DISEASE
What are the indications for
intervention?
P762

A

Urinary tract obstruction
Persistent infection
Impaired renal function

213
Q 
CALCULUS DISEASE
What are the
contraindications of
outpatient treatment?
P762
A

Pregnancy, diabetes, obstruction, severe
dehydration, severe pain, urosepsis/fever,
pyelonephritis, previous urologic surgery,
only one functioning kidney

214
Q

CALCULUS DISEASE
What are the three common
sites of obstruction?
P762

A
  1. UreteroPelvic Junction (UPJ)
  2. UreteroVesicular Junction (UVJ)
  3. Intersection of the ureter and the iliac
    vessels
215
Q

INCONTINENCE
What are the common types
of incontinence?
P762

A

Stress incontinence, overflow

incontinence, urge incontinence

216
Q

INCONTINENCE
Define the following terms:
Stress incontinence
P762

A

Loss of urine associated with coughing,
lifting, exercise, etc.; seen most often in
women, secondary to relaxation of pelvic
floor following multiple deliveries

217
Q

INCONTINENCE
Define the following terms:
Overflow incontinence
P762

A

Failure of the bladder to empty properly;
may be caused by bladder outlet
obstruction (BPH or stricture) or
detrusor hypotonicity

218
Q

INCONTINENCE
Define the following terms:
Urge incontinence
P762

A

Loss of urine secondary to detrusor
instability in patients with stroke,
dementia, Parkinson’s disease, etc.

219
Q

INCONTINENCE
Define the following terms:
Mixed incontinence
P762

A

Stress and urge incontinence combined

220
Q

INCONTINENCE
Define the following terms:
Enuresis
P762

A

Bedwetting in children

221
Q

INCONTINENCE
Define the following terms:
How is the diagnosis made?
P762

A 
History (including meds), physical
examination (including pelvic/rectal
examination), urinalysis, postvoid residual
(PR), urodynamics, cystoscopy/
vesicocystourethrogram (VCUG) may
be necessary
222
Q

INCONTINENCE
What is the “Marshall test”?
P763

A

Woman with urinary stress incontinence
placed in the lithotomy position with a
full bladder leaks urine when asked to
cough

223
Q 
INCONTINENCE
What is the treatment of the
following disorders:
Stress incontinence?
P763
A

Bladder neck suspension

224
Q 
INCONTINENCE
What is the treatment of the
following disorders:
Urge incontinence?
P763
A

Pharmacotherapy (anticholinergics,

Ə-agonists)

225
Q 
INCONTINENCE
What is the treatment of the
following disorders:
Overflow incontinence?
P763
A

Self-catheterization, surgical relief of

obstruction, -blockers

226
Q

URINARY TRACT INFECTION (UTI)
What is the aetiology?
P763

A

Ascending infection, instrumentation,

coitus in females

227
Q

URINARY TRACT INFECTION (UTI)
What are the three common
organisms?
P763

A
  1. E. coli (90%)
  2. Proteus
  3. Klebsiella, Pseudomonas
228
Q

URINARY TRACT INFECTION (UTI)
What are the predisposing
factors?
P763

A

Stones, obstruction, reflux, diabetes
mellitus, pregnancy, indwelling catheter/
stent

229
Q

URINARY TRACT INFECTION (UTI)
What are the symptoms?
P763

A

Lower UTI—frequency, urgency, dysuria,
nocturia
Upper UTI—back/flank pain, fever, chills

230
Q

URINARY TRACT INFECTION (UTI)
How is the diagnosis made?
P763

A

Symptoms, urinalysis ( >10 WBCs/HPF,

>105 CFU)

231
Q

URINARY TRACT INFECTION (UTI)
When should workup be
performed?
P763

A

After first infection in male patients
(unless Foley is in place)
After first pyelonephritis in prepubescent
female patients

232
Q

URINARY TRACT INFECTION (UTI)
What is the treatment?
P763

A

Lower: 1 to 4 days of oral antibiotics
Upper: 3 to 7 days of IV antibiotics

233
Q

MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
Why should orchiopexy be
performed?
P764

A

↓ the susceptibility to blunt trauma

↑ the ease of follow-up examinations

234
Q

MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
In which area of the
prostate does BPH arise?
P764

A

Periurethral

235
Q 
MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
In which area of the
prostate does prostate
cancer arise?
P764
236
Q 
MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What type of bony lesions is
seen in metastatic prostate
cancer?
P764
A

Osteoblastic (radiopaque)

237
Q 
MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What percentage of renal
cell carcinoma show
evidence of metastatic
disease at presentation?
P764
238
Q 
MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What is the most common
site of distant metastasis in
renal cell carcinoma?
P764
239
Q 
MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What is the most common
solid renal tumor of
childhood?
P764
A

Wilms’ tumor

240
Q

MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What type of renal stone is
radiolucent?
P764

A

Uric acid (Think: Uric = Unseen)

241
Q

MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What are posterior urethral
valves?
P764

A

Most common obstructive urethral lesion
in infants and newborns; occurs only in
males; found at the distal prostatic urethra

242
Q

MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What is the most common
intraoperative bladder tumor?
P764

A

Foley catheter—don’t fall victim!

243
Q 
MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What provides drainage
of the left gonadal (e.g.,
testicular) vein?
P764
A

Left renal vein

244
Q

MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What provides drainage of
the right gonadal vein?
P765

245
Q 
MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What are the signs of
urethral injury in the
trauma patient?
P765
A

“High-riding, ballottable” prostate, blood
at the urethral meatus, severe pelvic
fracture, ecchymosis of scrotum

246
Q 
MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What is the evaluation for
urethral injury in the trauma
patient?
P765
A

RUG (Retrograde UrethroGram)

247
Q 
MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What is the evaluation
for a transected ureter
intraoperatively?
P765
A

IV indigo carmine and then look for leak

of blue urine in the operative field

248
Q 
MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What aid is used to help
identify the ureters in
a previously radiated
retroperitoneum?
P765
A

Ureteral stents

249
Q 
MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
How can a small traumatic
EXTRAperitoneal bladder
rupture be treated?
P765
A

Foley catheter

250
Q 
MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
How should a traumatic
INTRAperitoneal bladder
rupture be treated?
P765
A

Operative repair

251
Q 
MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What percentage of patients
with an injured ureter will
have no blood on urinalysis?
P765
252
Q

MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What is the classic history
for papillary necrosis?
P765

A

Patient with diabetes taking NSAIDs or

patient with sickle cell trait

253
Q

MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What is Fournier’s gangrene?
P765

A

Necrotizing fasciitis of perineum,
polymicrobial, diabetes = major risk
factor

254
Q 
MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What unique bleeding
problem can be seen with
prostate surgery?
P765
A

Release of TPA and urokinase (treat with

-aminocaproic acid)

255
Q

MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What is the scrotal “blue
dot” sign?
P765

A

Torsed appendix testis

256
Q

MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What is Peyronie’s disease?
P766

A

Curved penile orientation with erection

due to fibrosis of corpora cavernosa

257
Q

MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What is a ureterocele?
P766

A

Dilation of the ureter—treat with

endoscopic incision or operative excision

258
Q

MISCELLANEOUS UROLOGY QUESTIONS
What is a “three-way”
irrigating Foley catheter?
P766 (picture)

A

Foley catheter that irrigates and then

drains

Section III Subspecialty Surgery P517 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions