Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Section III Subspecialty Surgery P517 > Neurosurgery, C75 P721-743 > Flashcards

Neurosurgery, C75 P721-743 Flashcards

1
Q

HEAD TRAUMA
What is the incidence?
P721

A

70,000 fatal injuries/year in the United

States, 500,000 head injuries per year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
What percentage of trauma
deaths result from head
trauma?
P721
A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

HEAD TRAUMA
Identify the dermatomes:
P721 (picture)

A

(see Picture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

HEAD TRAUMA
What is the Glasgow Coma
Scale (GCS)?
P721

A

GCS is an objective assessment of the

level of consciousness after trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
Eyes?
P721

A 
Eye Opening (E)
    4—opens spontaneously
    3—opens to voice (command)
    2—opens to painful stimulus
    1—does not open eyes
    (Think: “4 eyes”)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
Motor?
P722

A 
Motor Response (M)
    6—obeys commands
    5—localizes painful stimulus
    4—withdraws from pain
    3—decorticate posture
    2—decerebrate posture
    1—no movement
    (Think: 6-cylinder motor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
Verbal?
P722

A 
Verbal Response (V)
    5—appropriate and oriented
    4—confused
    3—inappropriate words
    2—incomprehensible sounds
    1—no sounds
    (Think: Jackson 5 = verbal 5)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
What indicates coma by GCS
score?
P722
A

< 8 (Think: “less than eight—it may be

too late”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
What does unilateral,
dilated, nonreactive pupil
suggest?
P722
A

Focal mass lesion with ipsilateral

herniation and compression of CN III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
What do bilateral fixed and
dilated pupils suggest?
P722
A

Diffusely increased ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
What are the four signs of
basilar skull fracture?
P722
A 
1. Raccoon eyes—periorbital
    ecchymoses
2. Battle’s sign—postauricular
    ecchymoses
3. Hemotympanum
4. CSF rhinorrhea/otorrhea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
What is the initial
radiographic neuroimaging
in trauma?
P722
A
  1. Head CT scan (if LOC or GCS 15)
  2. C-spine CT
  3. T/L spine AP and lateral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
Should the trauma head CT
scan be with or without IV
contrast?
P722
A

Without!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
What is normal ICP?
P722

A

5 to 15 mm H(2)O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
What is the worrisome
ICP?
P723
A

>20 mm H(2)O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
What determines ICP
(Monroe-Kelly hypothesis)?
P723
A
  1. Volume of brain
  2. Volume of blood
  3. Volume of CSF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
What is the CPP?
P723

A

Cerebral Perfusion Pressure = mean
arterial pressure—ICP (normal CPP is
>70)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
What is Cushing’s reflex?
P723

A

Physiologic response to increased ICP:

1. Hypertension
2. Bradycardia
3. Decreased RR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
What are the three general
indications to monitor ICP
after trauma?
P723
A
  1. GCS 9
  2. Altered level of consciousness or
    unconsciousness with multiple system
    trauma
  3. Decreased consciousness with focal
    neurologic examination abnormality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
What is Kocher’s point?
P723 (picture)

A

Landmark for placement of ICP monitor

bolt:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
What nonoperative
techniques are used to
decrease ICP?
P724
A 
1. Elevate head of bed (HOB) 30
    (if spine cleared)
2. Diuresis-mannitol (osmotic diuretic),
    Lasix®, limit fluids
3. Intubation (PCO2 control)
4. Sedation
5. Pharmacologic paralysis
6. Ventriculostomy (CSF drainage)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
What is the acronym for the
treatment of elevated ICP?
P724
A 
“ICP HEAD”:
    INTUBATE
    CALM (sedate)
    PLACE DRAIN (ventriculostomy)/
       PARALYSIS
    HYPERVENTILATE TO PCO2 35
    ELEVATE head
    ADEQUATE BLOOD PRESSURE
      (CPP 70)
    DIURETIC (e.g., mannitol)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
Can a tight c-collar increase
the ICP?
P724
A

Yes (it blocks venous drainage from

brain!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
Why is prolonged
hyperventilation dangerous?
P724
A

It may result in severe vasoconstriction
and ischemic brain necrosis!
Use only for very brief periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
What is a Kjellberg?
(pronounced “shellberg”)
P724
A

Decompressive bifrontal craniectomy
with removal of frontal bone frozen for
possible later replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
How does cranial nerve
examination localize the
injury in a comatose patient?
P724
A

CNs proceed caudally in the brain stem
as numbered: Presence of corneal reflex
(CN 5 + 7) indicates intact pons; intact
gag reflex (CN 9 + 10) shows functioning
upper medulla (Note: CN 6 palsy is often
a false localizing sign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
What is acute treatment of
seizures after head trauma?
P724
A

Benzodiazepines (Ativan®)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
What is seizure prophylaxis
after severe head injury?
P724
A

Give phenytoin for 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
GCS SCORING SYSTEM
What is the significance of
hyponatremia (low sodium
level) after head injury?
P725
A

SIADH must be ruled out; remember,

SIADH = Sodium Is Always Down Here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
EPIDURAL HEMATOMA
What is an epidural
hematoma?
P725
A

Collection of blood between the skull and

dura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

HEAD TRAUMA
EPIDURAL HEMATOMA
What causes it?
P725

A

Usually occurs in association with a skull
fracture as bone fragments lacerate
meningeal arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
EPIDURAL HEMATOMA
Which artery is associated
with epidural hematomas?
P725
A

Middle meningeal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
EPIDURAL HEMATOMA
What is the most common
sign of an epidural
hematoma?
P725
A

>50% have ipsilateral blown pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
EPIDURAL HEMATOMA
What is the classic history
with an epidural hematoma?
P725
A

LOC followed by a “lucid interval”

followed by neurologic deterioration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
EPIDURAL HEMATOMA
What are the classic CT scan
findings with an epidural
hematoma?
P725 (picture)
A

Lenticular (lens)-shaped hematoma

Think: Epidural = LEnticular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
EPIDURAL HEMATOMA
What is the surgical treatment
for an epidural hematoma?
P725
A

Surgical evacuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
EPIDURAL HEMATOMA
What are the indications for
surgery with an epidural
hematoma?
P725
A

Any symptomatic epidural hematoma;

any epidural hematoma >1 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

HEAD TRAUMA
SUBDURAL HEMATOMA
What is it?
P726

A

Blood collection under the dura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

HEAD TRAUMA
SUBDURAL HEMATOMA
What causes it?
P726

A 
Tearing of “bridging” veins that pass
through the space between the cortical
surface and the dural venous sinuses or
injury to the brain surface with resultant
bleeding from cortical vessels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SUBDURAL HEMATOMA
What are the three types of
subdurals?
P726
A 
1. Acute—symptoms within 48 hours of
    injury
2. Subacute—symptoms within 3 to 14 days
3. Chronic—symptoms after 2 weeks or
    longer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SUBDURAL HEMATOMA
What is the treatment of
epidural and subdural
hematomas?
P726
A

Mass effect (pressure) must be reduced;
craniotomy with clot evacuation is usually
required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SUBDURAL HEMATOMA
What classic findings appear
on head CT scan for a
subdural hematoma?
P726 (picture)
A

Curved, crescent-shaped hematoma

Think: sUbdural = cUrved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

HEAD TRAUMA
TRAUMATIC SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE
What is it?
P726

A

Head trauma resulting in blood below the

arachnoid membrane and above the pia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

HEAD TRAUMA
TRAUMATIC SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE
What is the treatment?
P726

A

Anticonvulsants and observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

HEAD TRAUMA
CEREBRAL CONTUSION
What is it?
P726

A

Hemorrhagic contusion of brain parenchyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
CEREBRAL CONTUSION
What are coup and
contrecoup injuries?
P727
A

Coup—injury at the site of impact
Contrecoup—injury at the site opposite
the point of impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

HEAD TRAUMA
CEREBRAL CONTUSION
What is DAI?
P727

A

Diffuse Axonal Injury (shear injury
to brain parenchyma) from rapid
deceleration injury; 33% mortality;
long-term coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
CEREBRAL CONTUSION
What is the best diagnostic
test for DAI?
P727
A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
CEREBRAL CONTUSION
What can present after blunt
trauma with neurological
deficits and a normal brain
CT scan?
P727
A

DAI, carotid artery injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SKULL FRACTURE
What is a depressed skull
fracture?
P727
A

Fracture in which one or more fragments
of the skull are forced below the inner
table of the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SKULL FRACTURE
What are the indications for
surgery?
P727
A 
1. Contaminated wound requiring
    cleaning and débridement
2. Severe deformity
3. Impingement on cortex
4. Open fracture
5. CSF leak
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SKULL FRACTURE
What is the treatment for
open skull fractures?
P727
A
  1. Antibiotics
  2. Seizure prophylaxis (phenytoin)
  3. Surgical therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
What are the two general
types of injury?
P727
A
  1. Complete—no motor/sensory function
    below the level of injury
  2. Incomplete—residual function below
    the level of injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
Define “spinal shock.”
P727

A

Loss of all reflexes and motor function,

hypotension, bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
Define “sacral sparing.”
P728

A

Sparing of sacral nerve level: anal sphincter

intact, toe flexion, perianal sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
What initial studies/
intervention are important?
P728
A 
1. ABCs—obtain airway and ventilate if
    needed
2. Maintain BP (IVF, pressors if refractory
    to fluids)
3. NG tube—prevents aspiration
4. Foley
5. High-dose steroids—proven to
    improve outcome if given 8 hours
    post injury
6. Complete cervical x-rays and those of
    lower levels as indicated by examination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
What are the diagnostic
studies?
P728
A

Plain films, CT scan, MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
What are the indications for
emergent surgery with
spinal cord injury?
P728
A

Unstable vertebral fracture
Incomplete injury with extrinsic
compression
Spinal epidural or subdural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
What is the indication for
IV high-dose steroids with
spinal cord injury?
P728
A 
Controversial: Blunt spinal cord injury with
neurologic deficit (methylprednisolone:
high-dose bolus [30 mg/kg] followed
by continuous infusion [5.4 mg/kg] for
23 hours)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
Have steroids been proven to
help after PENETRATING
spine injury?
P728
A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
Describe the following
conditions:
Anterior cord syndrome
P728 (Picture)
A

Affects corticospinal and lateral
spinothalamic tracts, paraplegia, loss of
pain/temperature sensation, preserved
touch/vibration/proprioception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
Describe the following
conditions:
Central cord syndrome
P729 (Picture)
A

Preservation of some lower extremity
motor and sensory ability with upper
extremity weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
Describe the following
conditions:
Brown-Séquard syndrome
P729 (Picture)
A

Hemisection of cord resulting in
ipsilateral motor weakness and touch/
proprioception loss with contralateral
pain/temperature loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
Describe the following
conditions:
Posterior cord syndrome
P729
A

Injury to posterior spinal cord with loss

of proprioception distally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
How can the findings
associated with Brown-
Séquard syndrome be
remembered?
P729
A 
Think: CAPTAIN Brown-Séquard =
“CPT”:
    Contralateral
    Pain
    Temperature loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
Define the following terms:
Jefferson’s fracture
P729
A

Fracture through C1 arches from axial

loading (unstable fracture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
Define the following terms:
Hangman’s fracture
P729
A

Fracture through the pedicles of C2 from
hyperextension; usually stable
Think: A hangman (C2) is below stature of
President T. Jefferson (C1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
Define the following terms:
Odontoid fracture
P729
A

Fracture of the odontoid process of C2

view with open-mouth odontoid x-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
Define the following terms:
Priapism
P729
A

Penile erection seen with spinal cord

injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
Define the following terms:
Chance fracture
P730
A

Transverse vertebral fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
Define the following terms:
Clay shoveler’s fracture
P730
A

Fracture of spinous process of C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q 
HEAD TRAUMA
SPINAL CORD TRAUMA
Define the following terms:
Odontoid fractures
P730 (picture)
A 
A: Type I—fracture through tip of dens
B: Type II—fracture through base of
    dens
C: Type III—fracture through body
    of C2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q 
TUMORS
GENERAL
What is the incidence of
CNS tumors?
P730
A

≈1% of all cancers; third leading cause of
cancer deaths in people 15 to 34 years of
age; second leading cause of cancer
deaths in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q 
TUMORS
GENERAL
What is the usual location of
primary tumors in adults/
children?
P730
A

In adults, 66% of tumors are
supratentorial, ≈33% are infratentorial;
the reverse is true in children (i.e.,
≈66% infratentorial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q 
TUMORS
GENERAL
What is the differential
diagnosis of a ringenhancing
brain lesion?
P730
A

Metastatic carcinoma, abscess, GBM,

lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q 
TUMORS
GENERAL
What are the adverse effects
of tumors on the brain?
P730
A
  1. Increased ICP
  2. Mass effect on cranial nerves
  3. Invasion of brain parenchyma,
    disrupting nuclei/tracts
  4. Seizure foci
  5. Hemorrhage into/around tumor mass
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q 
TUMORS
GENERAL
What are the signs/symptoms
of brain tumors?
P730
A
  1. Neurologic deficit (66%)
  2. Headache (50%)
  3. Seizures (25%)
  4. Vomiting (classically in the morning)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

TUMORS
GENERAL
How is the diagnosis made?
P731

A

CT scan or MRI is the standard

diagnostic study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q 
TUMORS
GENERAL
What are the surgical
indications?
P731
A
  1. Establishing a tissue diagnosis
  2. Relief of increased ICP
  3. Relief of neurologic dysfunction
    caused by tissue compression
  4. Attempt to cure in the setting of
    localized tumor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q 
TUMORS
GENERAL
What are the most common
intracranial tumors in adults?
P731
A

Metastatic neoplasms are most common;
among primaries, gliomas are #1 (50%)
and meningiomas are #2 (25%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q 
TUMORS
GENERAL
What are the three most
common in children?
P731
A
  1. Medulloblastomas (33%)
  2. Astrocytomas (33%)
  3. Ependymomas (10%)
82
Q

TUMORS
GLIOMAS
What is a glioma?
P731

A

General name for several tumors of
neuroglial origin (e.g., astrocytes,
ependymal, oligodendrocytes)

83
Q 
TUMORS
GLIOMAS
What are the characteristics
of a LOW-grade astrocytoma?
P731
A

Nuclear atypia, high mitotic rate,
high signal on T2 weighted images,
nonenhancing with contrast CT scan

84
Q 
TUMORS
GLIOMAS
What is the most common
primary brain tumor in
adults?
P731
A

Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM)
(Think: GBM = Greatest Brain
Malignancy)

85
Q

TUMORS
GLIOMAS
What are its characteristics?
P731

A

Poorly defined, highly aggressive tumors
occurring in the white matter of the cerebral
hemispheres; spread extremely rapidly

86
Q 
TUMORS
GLIOMAS
What is the average age of
onset?
P731
A

Fifth decade

87
Q

TUMORS
GLIOMAS
What is the treatment?
P731

A

Surgical debulking followed by radiation

88
Q

TUMORS
GLIOMAS
What is the prognosis?
P731

A

Without treatment, 90% of patients
die within 3 months of diagnosis; with
treatment, 90% die within 2 years

89
Q 
TUMORS
MENINGIOMAS
What is the layer of
origination?
P732
A

Arachnoid cap cells

90
Q

TUMORS
MENINGIOMAS
What are the risk factors?
P732

A

Radiation exposure
Neurofibromatosis type 2
Female gender

91
Q 
TUMORS
MENINGIOMAS
What are the associated
histologic findings?
P732
A

Psammoma bodies (concentric
calcifications), whorl formations
(“onion skin” pattern)

92
Q 
TUMORS
MENINGIOMAS
What is the histologic
malignancy determination?
P732
A

Brain parenchymal invasion

93
Q 
TUMORS
MENINGIOMAS
What is the peak age of
occurrence?
P732
A

40 to 50 years

94
Q

TUMORS
MENINGIOMAS
What is the gender ratio?
P732

A

Females predominate almost 2:1

95
Q 
TUMORS
MENINGIOMAS
What is the clinical
presentation?
P732
A

Variable depending on location; lateral
cerebral convexity tumors can cause focal
deficits or headache; sphenoid tumors
can present with seizures; posterior fossa
tumors with CN deficits; olfactory groove
tumors with anosmia

96
Q

TUMORS
MENINGIOMAS
What is the treatment?
P732

A

Preoperative embolization and surgical

resection

97
Q 
TUMORS
CEREBELLAR ASTROCYTOMAS
What is the peak age of
occurrence?
P732
A

5 to 9 years

98
Q

TUMORS
CEREBELLAR ASTROCYTOMAS
What is the usual location?
P732

A

Usually in the cerebellar hemispheres;

less frequently in the vermis

99
Q 
TUMORS
CEREBELLAR ASTROCYTOMAS
What are the signs/
symptoms?
P732
A

Usually lateral cerebellar signs occur:
ipsilateral incoordination or dysmetria
(patient tends to fall to side of tumor) as
well as nystagmus and ataxia; CN deficits
are also frequently present, especially in
CNs VI and VII

100
Q 
TUMORS
CEREBELLAR ASTROCYTOMAS
What are the treatment and
prognosis?
P733
A

Completely resectable in 75% of cases,
which usually results in a cure; overall
5-year survival rate exceeds 90%

101
Q 
TUMORS
MEDULLOBLASTOMA
What is the peak age of
occurrence?
P733
A

First decade (3 to 7 years)

102
Q

TUMORS
MEDULLOBLASTOMA
What is the cell of origin?
P733

A

External granular cells of cerebellum

103
Q 
TUMORS
MEDULLOBLASTOMA
What is the most common
location?
P733
A

Cerebellar vermis in children; cerebellar

hemispheres of adolescents and adults

104
Q 
TUMORS
MEDULLOBLASTOMA
What are the signs/
symptoms?
P733
A

Headache, vomiting, and other signs of

increased ICP; also usually truncal ataxia

105
Q 
TUMORS
MEDULLOBLASTOMA
What are the treatment and
prognosis?
P733
A

Best current treatment includes surgery
to debulk the tumor, cranial and spinal
radiation, and chemotherapy; 5-year
survival rate is >50%

106
Q 
TUMORS
PITUITARY TUMORS
What is the most common
pituitary tumor?
P733
A

Prolactinoma

107
Q 
TUMORS
PITUITARY TUMORS
What is the most common
presentation of a
prolactinoma?
P733 (picture)
A 
Bitemporal hemianopsia (lateral visual
fields blind)
108
Q 
TUMORS
PITUITARY TUMORS
What are the blood prolactin
levels with a prolactinoma?
P734
A

>300 mg/L is diagnostic for prolactinoma

100 mg/L is abnormal

109
Q 
TUMORS
PITUITARY TUMORS
Medical treatment of a
prolactinoma?
P734
A

Bromocriptine

110
Q 
TUMORS
PITUITARY TUMORS
Surgical treatment for a
prolactinoma?
P734
A

Transsphenoidal resection of the pituitary

tumor (in cases refractory to bromocriptine)

111
Q 
TUMORS
PITUITARY TUMORS
What is the treatment of a
recurrent prolactinoma after
surgical resection?
P734
A

Radiation therapy

112
Q

VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE (SAH)
What are the usual causes?
P734

A

Most cases are due to trauma; of
nontraumatic SAH, the leading cause is
ruptured berry aneurysm, followed by
arteriovenous malformations

113
Q

VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE (SAH)
What is a berry aneurysm?
P734

A

Saccular outpouching of vessels in the

circle of Willis, usually at bifurcations

114
Q 
VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE (SAH)
What is the usual location of
a berry aneurysm?
P734
A

Anterior communicating artery is #1 (30%),
followed by posterior communicating
artery and middle cerebral artery

115
Q 
VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE (SAH)
What medical disease
increases the risk of berry
aneurysms?
P734
A 
Polycystic kidney disease and connective
tissue disorders (e.g., Marfan’s syndrome)
116
Q 
VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE (SAH)
What is an Arterio-Venous
Malformation (AVM)?
P734
A

Congenital abnormality of the vasculature
with connections between the arterial
and venous circulations without
interposed capillary network

117
Q

VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE (SAH)
Where do they occur?
P734

A

>75% are supratentorial

118
Q 
VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE (SAH)
What are the signs/
symptoms of SAH?
P734
A 
Classic symptom is “the worst headache
of my life”; meningismus is documented
by neck pain and positive Kernig’s and
Brudzinski’s signs; occasionally LOC,
vomiting, nausea, photophobia
119
Q 
VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE (SAH)
What comprises the workup
of SAH?
P735
A 
If SAH is suspected, head CT should
be the first test ordered to look for
subarachnoid blood; LP may show
xanthochromic CSF, but is not necessary
if CT scan is definitive; this test should
be followed by arteriogram to look for
aneurysms or AVMs
120
Q 
VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE (SAH)
What are the possible
complications of SAH?
P735
A
  1. Brain edema leading to increased ICP
  2. Rebleeding (most common in the first
    24 to 48 hours posthemorrhage)
  3. Vasospasm (most common cause of
    morbidity and mortality)
121
Q 
VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE (SAH)
What is the treatment for
vasospasm?
P735
A

Nimodipine (calcium channel blocker)

122
Q 
VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE (SAH)
What is the treatment of
aneurysms?
P735
A

Surgical treatment by placing a metal
clip on the aneurysm is the mainstay of
therapy; alternatives include balloon
occlusion or coil embolization

123
Q 
VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE (SAH)
What is the treatment of
AVMs?
P735
A 
Many are on the brain surface and
accessible operatively; preoperative
embolization can reduce the size of the
AVM; for surgically inaccessible lesions,
radiosurgery (gamma knife) has been
effective in treating AVMs <3 cm in
diameter
124
Q

VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
INTRACEREBRAL HEMORRHAGE
What is it?
P735

A

Bleeding into the brain parenchyma

125
Q

VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
INTRACEREBRAL HEMORRHAGE
What is the etiology?
P735

A 
#1 is hypertensive/atherosclerotic disease
giving rise to Charcot-Bouchard
aneurysms (small tubular aneurysms
along smaller terminal arteries); other
causes include coagulopathies, AVMs,
amyloid angiopathy, bleeding into a
tumor, and trauma
126
Q

VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
INTRACEREBRAL HEMORRHAGE
Where does it occur?
P735

A

66% occur in the basal ganglia; putamen

is the structure most commonly affected

127
Q 
VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
INTRACEREBRAL HEMORRHAGE
How often does blood
spread to the ventricular
system?
P736
A

66% of cases

128
Q 
VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
INTRACEREBRAL HEMORRHAGE
What is the usual
presentation?
P736
A 
66% present with coma; large
putamen bleeding classically presents
with contralateral hemiplegia and
hemisensory deficits, lateral gaze
preference, aphasia, and homonymous
hemianopsia
129
Q 
VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
INTRACEREBRAL HEMORRHAGE
What is the associated
diagnostic study?
P736
A

CT scan

130
Q 
VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
INTRACEREBRAL HEMORRHAGE
What are the surgical
indications?
P736
A

CN III palsy, progressive alteration of

consciousness

131
Q

VASCULAR NEUROSURGERY
INTRACEREBRAL HEMORRHAGE
What is the prognosis?
P736

A

Poor, especially with ventricular or

diencephalons involvement

132
Q

SPINE
LUMBAR DISC HERNIATION
What is it?
P736

A 
Extrusion of the inner portion of the
intervertebral disc (nucleus pulposus)
through the outer annulus fibrosis,
causing impingement on nerve roots
exiting the spinal canal
133
Q

SPINE
LUMBAR DISC HERNIATION
Which nerve is affected?
P736

A

Nerve exiting at the level below (e.g., an
L4–L5 disc impinges on the L5 nerve
exiting between L5–S1)

134
Q

SPINE
LUMBAR DISC HERNIATION
Who is affected?
P736

A

Middle-aged and older individuals

135
Q

SPINE
LUMBAR DISC HERNIATION
What is the usual cause?
P736

A

Loss of elasticity of the posterior
longitudinal ligaments and annulus
fibrosis as a result of aging

136
Q 
SPINE
LUMBAR DISC HERNIATION
What are the most common
sites?
P736
A

L5–S1 (45%)

L4–L5 (40%)

137
Q 
SPINE
LUMBAR DISC HERNIATION
What is the usual presenting
symptom?
P736
A

Low back pain

138
Q 
SPINE
LUMBAR DISC HERNIATION
What are the signs:
L5–S1?
P737
A 
Decreased ankle jerk reflex
Weakness of plantar flexors in foot
Pain in back/midgluteal region to
    posterior calf to lateral foot
Ipsilateral radiculopathy on straight leg
    raise
139
Q 
SPINE
LUMBAR DISC HERNIATION
What are the signs:
L4–L5?
P737
A

Decreased biceps femoris reflex

Weak extensors of foot

140
Q 
SPINE
LUMBAR DISC HERNIATION
What are the signs:
L3–L4?
P737
A 
Decrease or absence of knee jerks,
    weakness of the quadriceps femoris,
    pain in lower back/buttock, pain in
    lateral thigh and anterior thigh
Pain in hip/groin region to posterolateral
    thigh, lateral leg, and medial toes
141
Q

SPINE
LUMBAR DISC HERNIATION
How is the diagnosis made?
P737

A

CT scan, CT myelogram, or MRI

142
Q

SPINE
LUMBAR DISC HERNIATION
What is the treatment?
P737

A

Conservative—bed rest and analgesics
Surgical—partial hemilaminectomy and
discectomy (removal of herniated disc)

143
Q 
SPINE
LUMBAR DISC HERNIATION
What are the indications for
emergent surgery?
P737
A
  1. Cauda equina syndrome

2. Progressive motor deficits

144
Q 
SPINE
LUMBAR DISC HERNIATION
What is cauda equina
syndrome?
P737
A 
Herniated disc compressing multiple
S1, S2, S3, S4 nerve roots, resulting in
bowel/bladder incontinence, “saddle
anesthesia” over buttocks/perineum, low
back pain, sciatica
145
Q

SPINE
LUMBAR DISC HERNIATION
What is “sciatica”?
P737

A

Radicular or nerve root pain

146
Q

SPINE
CERVICAL DISC DISEASE
What is it?
P737

A 
Basically the same pathology as lumbar
disc herniation, except in the cervical
region; the disc impinges on the nerve
exiting the canal at the same level of the
disease (e.g., a C6–C7 disc impinges on
the C7 nerve root exiting at the C6–C7
foramen)
147
Q 
SPINE
CERVICAL DISC DISEASE
What are the most common
sites?
P738
A

C6–C7 (70%)
C5–C6 (20%)
C7–T1 (10%)

148
Q 
SPINE
CERVICAL DISC DISEASE
What are the signs/symptoms:
C7?
P738
A

Decreased triceps reflex/strength,
weakness of forearm extension
Pain from neck, through triceps and into
index and middle finger

149
Q 
SPINE
CERVICAL DISC DISEASE
What are the signs/symptoms:
C6?
P738
A

Decreased biceps and brachioradialis
reflex
Weakness in forearm flexion
Pain in neck, radial forearm, and thumb

150
Q 
SPINE
CERVICAL DISC DISEASE
What are the signs/symptoms:
C8?
P738
A

Weakness in intrinsic hand muscles, pain

in fourth/fifth fingers

151
Q

SPINE
CERVICAL DISC DISEASE
How is the diagnosis made?
P738

A

CT scan or MRI

152
Q

SPINE
CERVICAL DISC DISEASE
What is the treatment?
P738

A

Anterior or posterior discectomy with

fusion PRN

153
Q 
SPINE
CERVICAL DISC DISEASE
What are the symptoms
of central cervical cord
compression from disc
fragments?
P738
A

Myelopathic syndrome with LMN signs
at level of compression and UMN signs
distally; e.g., C7 compression may cause
bilateral loss of triceps reflex and bilateral
hyperreflexia, clonus, and Babinski signs
in lower extremities

154
Q

SPINE
CERVICAL DISC DISEASE
What is Spurling’s sign?
P738

A

Reproduction of radicular pain by having
the patient turn his head to the affected
side and applying axial pressure to the
top of the head

155
Q

SPINE
SPINAL EPIDURAL ABSCESS
What is the etiology?
P738

A

Hematogenous spread from skin infections
is most common; also, distant abscesses/
infections, UTIs, postoperative infections,
spinal surgery, epidural anesthesia

156
Q 
SPINE
SPINAL EPIDURAL ABSCESS
What is the commonly
associated medical condition?
P738
A

Diabetes mellitus

157
Q 
SPINE
SPINAL EPIDURAL ABSCESS
What are the three most
common sites?
P739
A
  1. Thoracic
  2. Lumbar
  3. Cervical
158
Q 
SPINE
SPINAL EPIDURAL ABSCESS
What is the most common
organism?
P739
A

Staphylococcus aureus

159
Q 
SPINE
SPINAL EPIDURAL ABSCESS
What are the signs/
symptoms?
P739
A 
Fever; severe pain over affected area
and with flexion/extension of spine;
weakness can develop, ultimately leading
to paraplegia; 15% of patients have a back
furuncle
160
Q

SPINE
SPINAL EPIDURAL ABSCESS
How is the diagnosis made?
P739

A

MRI = test of choice

161
Q 
SPINE
SPINAL EPIDURAL ABSCESS
Which test is
contraindicated?
P739
A

LP, because of the risk of seeding CSF

with bacteria, causing meningitis

162
Q

SPINE
SPINAL EPIDURAL ABSCESS
What is the treatment?
P739

A

Surgical drainage and appropriate

antibiotic coverage

163
Q

SPINE
SPINAL EPIDURAL ABSCESS
What is the prognosis?
P739

A

Depends on preop condition; severe
neurologic deficits (e.g., paraplegia) show
little recovery; 15% to 20% of cases are
fatal

164
Q

PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
HYDROCEPHALUS
What is it?
P739

A

Abnormal condition consisting of an
increased volume of CSF along with
distension of CSF spaces

165
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
HYDROCEPHALUS
What are the three general
causes?
P739
A
  1. Increased production of CSF
  2. Decreased absorption of CSF
  3. Obstruction of normal flow of CSF
    (90% of cases)
166
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
HYDROCEPHALUS
What is the normal daily
CSF production?
P739
A

≈500 mL

167
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
HYDROCEPHALUS
What is the normal volume
of CSF?
P739
A

≈150 mL in the average adult

168
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
HYDROCEPHALUS
Define “communicating”
versus “noncommunicating”
hydrocephalus.
P740
A

Communicating—unimpaired connection
of CSF pathway from lateral ventricle
to subarachnoid space
Noncommunicating—complete or
incomplete obstruction of CSF flow
within or at the exit of the ventricular
system

169
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
HYDROCEPHALUS
What are the specific causes
of hydrocephalus?
P740
A 
Congenital malformation
Aqueductal stenosis
Myelomeningocele
Tumors obstructing CSF flow
Inflammation causing impaired
    absorption of fluid
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Meningitis
Choroid plexus papilloma causing
    ↑ production of CSF
170
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
HYDROCEPHALUS
What are the signs/
symptoms?
P740
A

Signs of increased ICP: HA, nausea,
vomiting, ataxia, increasing head
circumference exceeding norms for age

171
Q

PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
HYDROCEPHALUS
How is the diagnosis made?
P740

A

CT scan, MRI, measurement of head

circumference

172
Q

PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
HYDROCEPHALUS
What is the treatment?
P740

A
  1. Remove obvious offenders
  2. Perform bypass obstruction with
    ventriculoperitoneal shunt or
    ventriculoatrial shunt
173
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
HYDROCEPHALUS
What is the prognosis if
untreated?
P740
A

50% mortality; survivors show decreased
IQ (mean = 69); neurologic sequelae:
ataxia, paraparesis, visual deficits

174
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
HYDROCEPHALUS
What are the possible
complications of treatment?
P740
A
  1. Blockage/shunt malfunction

2. Infection

175
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
HYDROCEPHALUS
What is hydrocephalus ex
vacuo?
P740
A

Increased volume of CSF spaces from
brain atrophy, not from any pathology
in the amount of CSF absorbed or
produced

176
Q

PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
HYDROCEPHALUS
What is a “shunt series”?
P740

A

Series of x-rays covering the entire shunt
length—looking for shunt disruption/
kinking to explain malfunction of shunt

177
Q

PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
SPINAL DYSRAPHISM/NEURAL TUBE DEFECTS
What is the incidence?
P741

A

≈1/1000 live births in the United

States

178
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
SPINAL DYSRAPHISM/NEURAL TUBE DEFECTS
What are the race/gender
demographics?
P741
A

More common in white patients and

female patients

179
Q

PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
SPINAL DYSRAPHISM/NEURAL TUBE DEFECTS
Define spina bifida occulta.
P741

A

Defect in the development of the

posterior portion of the vertebrae

180
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
SPINAL DYSRAPHISM/NEURAL TUBE DEFECTS
What are the signs/
symptoms?
P741
A

Usually asymptomatic, though it may be
associated with other spinal abnormalities;
usually found incidentally on x-rays

181
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
SPINAL DYSRAPHISM/NEURAL TUBE DEFECTS
What is the most common
clinically significant defect?
P741
A

Myelomeningocele: herniation of nerve
roots and spinal cord through a defect in
the posterior elements of the vertebra(e);
the sac surrounding the neural tissue may
be intact, but more commonly is ruptured
and therefore exposes the CNS to the
external environment

182
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
SPINAL DYSRAPHISM/NEURAL TUBE DEFECTS
What are the three most
common anatomic sites?
P741
A
  1. Lumbar region
  2. Lower thoracic region
  3. Upper sacral region
183
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
SPINAL DYSRAPHISM/NEURAL TUBE DEFECTS
What are the signs/
symptoms?
P741
A

Variable from mild skeletal deformities to
a complete motor/sensory loss; bowel/
bladder function is difficult to evaluate,
but often is affected and can adversely
affect survival

184
Q

PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
SPINAL DYSRAPHISM/NEURAL TUBE DEFECTS
What is the treatment?
P741

A

With open myelomeningoceles, patients
are operated on immediately to prevent
infection

185
Q

PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
SPINAL DYSRAPHISM/NEURAL TUBE DEFECTS
What is the prognosis?
P741

A

≈95% survival for the first 2 years,
compared with 25% in patients not
undergoing surgical procedures

186
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
SPINAL DYSRAPHISM/NEURAL TUBE DEFECTS
Which vitamin is thought to
lower the rate of neural
tube defects in utero?
P741
A

Folic acid

187
Q

PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
CRANIOSYNOSTOSIS
What is it?
P742

A

Premature closure of one or more of the

sutures between the skull plates

188
Q

PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
CRANIOSYNOSTOSIS
What is the incidence?
P742

A

1/200 live births in the United States

189
Q

PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
CRANIOSYNOSTOSIS
What are the types?
P742

A

Named for the suture that is fused (e.g.,
sagittal, coronal, lambdoid); sagittal
craniosynostosis accounts for 50% of all
cases; more than one suture can be
fused, and all or part of a suture may be
affected

190
Q

PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
CRANIOSYNOSTOSIS
How is the diagnosis made?
P742

A 
Physical examination can reveal ridges
along fused sutures and lessened suture
mobility; plain x-rays can show a lack of
lucency along the fused suture, but are
rarely required
191
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
CRANIOSYNOSTOSIS
What are the indications for
surgery?
P742
A 
Most often the reasons are cosmetic, as
the cranial vault will continue to deform
with growth; occasionally, a child will
present with increased ICP secondary to
restricted brain growth
192
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
CRANIOSYNOSTOSIS
What is the timing of
surgery?
P742
A

Usually 3 to 4 months of age; earlier
surgery increases the risk of anesthesia;
later surgeries are more difficult because
of the worsening deformities and
decreasing malleability of the skull

193
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
CRANIOSYNOSTOSIS
What is the operative
mortality?
P742
A

<1%

194
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
MISCELLANEOUS
What is the most
common bacteria causing
postneurosurgery meningitis?
P742
A

Staphylococcus aureus (skin flora)

195
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
MISCELLANEOUS
What classically presents as
the “worst headache of my
life”?
P742
A

Spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage

196
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
MISCELLANEOUS
What classically has a “lucid
interval”?
P742
A

Epidural hemorrhage

197
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
MISCELLANEOUS
What is the most common
location of a hypertensive
intracerebral hemorrhage?
P743
A

Putamen

198
Q

PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
MISCELLANEOUS
What is Horner’s syndrome?
P743

A 
Cervical sympathetic chain lesion;
Think: “MAP”:
    Miosis
    Anhydrosis of ipsilateral face
    Ptosis
199
Q

PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
MISCELLANEOUS
What is a third-nerve palsy?
P743

A

Think: Third nerve does three things:

1. Diplopia
2. Ptosis
3. Mydriasis
200
Q 
PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
MISCELLANEOUS
What is Millard-Gubler
syndrome?
P743
A

Pons infarction:

1. VI nerve palsy
2. VII nerve palsy
3. Contralateral hemiplegia
201
Q

PEDIATRIC NEUROSURGERY
MISCELLANEOUS
What is syringomyelia?
P743

A

Central pathologic cavitations of the

spinal cord

Section III Subspecialty Surgery P517 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions