Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Surgery > Urology > Flashcards

Urology Flashcards

1
Q

The renal artery branches out from the aorta at which vertebral level?

A

L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why is there a presence of perinephric fluid that extends to the pelvis despite an intact gerota’s fascia?

A

Gerota’s fascia is open inferiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the normal weight of the kidney?

A

150 to 160g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How many peristaltic waves per minute are present in the ureter?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the normal ureter pressure?

A

30mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the normal length of the ureter

A

28 to 30cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

trace the abdominal course of the ureter

A
  1. Renal Pelvis
  2. Tip of the transverse process of the lumbar vertebra
  3. Psoas major muscle
  4. Crosses the GENITOFEMORAL nerve
  5. Under the gonadal vessel
  6. Cross the common iliac and external iliac artery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Trace the pelvic course of the ureter (Female)

A
  1. cross the posterior ductus deferens (promixal to ureterovesical junction)
  2. Enters bladder obliquely
  3. Obliquely enters the bladder wall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Trace the pelvic course of the ureter (Male)

A
  1. Anterior to the internal iliac artery
  2. Posterior to the ovary
  3. Under the broad ligament
  4. Behind the uterine vessels
  5. Obliquely enter the bladder wall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 3 ureteric constrictions

A
  1. Ureteropelvic junction
  2. Crossing the iliac vessel
  3. Ureterovesical junction

Remember, UIU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the true physical constriction of the ureter?

A

Ureterovesical junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The ureter is ____ (anterior/posterior) to the iliac vessels

A

ANTERIOR

Yes. But it is posterior to the uterine artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which part of the ureter is the most common site of iatrogenic injury?

A

Distal third of the ureter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

During hysterectomy, ureters are commonly injured during _____

A

ligation of ovarian and uterine vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

During APR, ureter is commonly injured during ____

A

division of the lateral ligaments of the rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

During pelvic surgery, ureter is commonly injured during ___

A

attempts to control bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

[Management of ureteral injury]

<1/2 of diameter is transected

A

Primary closure over ureteral stent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

[Management of ureteral injury]

> 1/2 of diameter is transected

A

excision with reconstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

[Management of ureteral injury]

complete transection

A

reconstruction is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the normal size of the prostate gland?

A

4x3x2cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is normal weight of the prostate gland?

A

15 to 18 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the blood supply of prostate gland?

A
  1. Inferior vesical
  2. Middle hemorrhoidal
  3. Internal pudendal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The reason why prostate CA can metastasize to the spinal cord

A

Batson plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the role of fructose that is present in the seminal vesicles?

A

sperm motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the average growth per year (in grams) of the prostate gland after 50 years of age?

A

0.5 to 0.8 grams per year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which zone of the prostate gradually enlarges that causes urinary outflow tract obstruction?

A

Periurethal zone = transitional zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What receptors are present in the periurethal zone of the prostate causing urinary outflow tract obstruction

A

Alpha 1 adrenergic receptos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the initial compensatory response of the bladder in BPH?

A

compensatory muscular HYPERPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the PSA profile of patients with BPH? (decreased or elevated)

A

Elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the most sensitive and specific test to confirm presence of bladder outlet obstruction?

A

Pressure-flow urodynamics

Increased bladder pressure and low flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What diagnostic test differentiates ureteral stricture from BPH?

A

Endoscopy

it also gives information on prostatic configuration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

[Management of BPH]

IPSS <7

A

watchful waiting, annual follow up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What drug class helps relax prostatic smooth muscle?

A

alpha adrenergic receptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What drug class reduces intra-prostatic DHT levels which may shrink and slow progression of BPH?

A

5 alpha reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the percent reduction in prostatic size after 6 months of 5 alpha reductase treatment?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the short term complications of Transurethral Resection of the prostate?

A
  1. Hyponatremia due to absorption of hypotonic irrigation fluid
  2. Urinary retention
  3. Infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the long term complications of Transurethral Resection of the prostate?

A
  1. Incontinence
  2. Impotence
  3. Retrograde ejaculation
  4. Bladder neck contracture
  5. Urethral strictures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Aside from TURP, this surgical method is also effective for prostate glands <30g

A

Transurethral Incision of prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Advantage of Transurethral Incision of prostate over Transurethral resection of the prostate

A
  1. Less risk of retrograde ejaculation
  2. Less risk of impotence
  3. Less risk of blood loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the surgical management of choice for prostates >80g

A

Prostatectomy (Retropubic or Suprapubic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the indications for prostatectomy?

A
  1. Acute urinary retention
  2. Recurrent or persistent UTI
  3. Significant symptoms from bladder outlet obstruction not responsive to medical therapy
  4. Recurrent gross hematuria of prostatic origin
  5. Pathophysiologic changes of the kidney, ureter, bladder
  6. bladder calculi due to obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the most common type of prostate CA?

A

Adenocarcinoma

43
Q

Common initial site of prostate CA?

A

periphery

That is why symptoms of urinary obstruction occur late

44
Q

PSA used as cancer marker for prostate CA is ____ ( sensitive/ specific)?

A

sensitive

SNNOUT

45
Q

What is the preferred imaging test for prostate CA?

A

Transrectal UTZ

46
Q

A high gleason score means that the prostatic CA is ____ (well/poorly) differentiated?

A

poorly differentiated

47
Q

What is the diagnostic method/test used for prostate cancer

A

Transrectal biopsy

48
Q

What is the normal weight of the testis?

49
Q

Which part of the testis are not covered by tunica albuginea?

A

Dorsal area

Epididymis and dorsal pedicle are attached

50
Q

The right spermatic vein drains to the _____

A

directly to the IVC

51
Q

The left spermatic vein drains to the ____

A

left renal vein

52
Q

What maintains the bladder neck and proximal urethra closure?

A
  1. Alpha receptor of the bladder neck
  2. Proximal urethra shares excursions in intraabdominal pressure
  3. Increase in intraabdominal pressure causes increase in external urethral sphincter muscle contraction and closes distal urethra
53
Q

Where is the micturition center located?

54
Q

How many corpora cavernosa are present in the penis?

A

2

corpus spongiousum = 1

55
Q

What erectile body of the penis is present in the ventral portion?

A

Corpus spongiosum

56
Q

If the patients has initial hematuria, where is the lesion?

A

Distal to bladder neck

57
Q

If the patients has terminal hematuria, where is the lesion?

A

proximal to bladder neck, proximal ureter, trigone

58
Q

If the patients has total hematuria, where is the lesion?

A

bladder, ureter, kidney

59
Q

[Incontinence]

continous, not associated with urgency and stress

A

Total incontinence

60
Q

[Incontinence]

leakage of urine associated with increase in abdominal pressure

A

stress incontinence

61
Q

[Incontinence]

urinary leakage preceded by the sensation of an urgen need to urinate caused by uninhibited bladder contraction due to infection, bladder CA, neurogenic

A

urge incontinence

62
Q

[Incontinence]

overflow of a small amount of urine from a distended bladder

A

overflow incontinence

63
Q

What is the RBC finding that is significant in urinalysis?

64
Q

What is the WBC finding that is significant in urinalysis?

65
Q

What are normal values of semenalysis?

A
  1. Volume 15mL
  2. 15 million
  3. 10% motile
  4. 4% morphology
  5. 2 abnormal semen analysis

Remember, 15 15 10 4 2

66
Q

____ is an imaging tool done during cystoscopy that evaluate kidneys, bladder,ureters,

A

Retrograde pyeloureterography

67
Q

___ diagnostic tool that reveals the dynamics of micturition and evidence of obstruction or reflux of urine

A

Voiding Cystourethrogram

Used to see patency of the urethra

68
Q

___ diagnostic technique used during therapeutic dilatation of narrow arteries; also used to evaluate renal vasculature

A

Renal arteriography

69
Q

___ diagnostic technique used for early detection and staging of prostate cancer

A

Ultrasonography

70
Q

What is the commonly used imaging technique for imaging urologic neoplasms?

A

Contrast-enhanced CT scan

71
Q

Emphysematous pyelonephritis is commonly seen in which patients?

A

DM patients

72
Q

___ syndrome

Arthritis, conjunctivitis, non-gonoccocal urethritis

A

Reiter Syndrome

73
Q

What is the manifestation of chronic prostatitis with sterile prostatic secretion

A

Prostatodynia

74
Q

Genital TB most commonly involves which part of the mate Genitourinary Tract?

A

Epididymis

75
Q

What type of nephrolith is associated with urea-splitting bacteria or proteus spp?

A

struvite stone

76
Q

[Location of ureteral stone]

flank pain radiating to the groin

A

proximal 1/3 of ureter

77
Q

[Location of ureteral stone]

anterior lower quadrant pain

A

stone in the middle third of ureter

78
Q

[Location of ureteral stone]

presence of bladder irritative symptoms

A

stone in the distal third of the ureter

79
Q

[Nephrolithiasis]

A basic urine pH >7 is associated with what organism

A

urea-splitting organism

80
Q

What is the hounsfield of water

81
Q

What is the hounsfield of air

A

minus 1000 HU

82
Q

What is the hounsfield of bone

A

plus 1000HU

83
Q

Size of stone that rarely pass spontaneously

A

stones >6mm

84
Q

Nephrectomy is indicated if renogram of a stone-bearing kidney has a renal function of _____

85
Q

Drugs that are stone-provoking

A
  1. Acetazolamide
  2. Calcium supplements or Vitamin D
  3. Vitamin C
86
Q

Nephrolith formed that is associated with excesive vitamin C intake

A

Calcium oxalate stone

87
Q

What are the complications of extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy?

A
  1. Direct injury to kidney

2. Streinstrasse (incomplete stone fragmentation)

88
Q

Location of stone in the kidney that is associated with lowest stone free rates

A

Lower pole

89
Q

Type of nephrolith that cannot be broken down by SWL

A

Cystine stone

90
Q

Surgical management of large, complex renal or ureteral calculi

A

Percutaneous Nephrectolithotomy

91
Q

What is the rationale behind leaving a ureteral stent after ureteroscopy

A

To prevent distal migration of stone fragment during intra-corporeal lithotripsy

92
Q

What are the common causes of upper tract ureteral obstruction

A
  1. Ureteral stone (most common)

2. Malignancy

93
Q

Most common causes of lower tract obstruction

A
  1. Bladder outlet stone or mass
  2. Urethral stones, stricture
  3. Prostate: BPH, Ca
94
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Lower tract obstruction

A

WINSURF

Weak stream
Intermittency
Nocturia
Straining
Urgency
Retention
Frequency
95
Q

What is the triad of renal cell carcinoma

A
  1. Pain
  2. Mass
  3. Hematuria
96
Q

___ syndrome refers to renal cell CA + hepatic cell dysfunction

reversible hepatic cell dysfunction with removal of RCCA

A

Stauffer’s syndrome

97
Q

What imaging is able to determine the extent of vascular involvement in patient with RCCA

98
Q

What is removed in radical nephrectomy for patients with RCCA?

A
  1. Excision fo kidney
  2. Gerotas fascia
  3. Perinephric fat
99
Q

[Bosniak Classification]

Hairline thin wall, no septa

A

Bosniak 1

Malignancy = 1.7%

100
Q

[Bosniak Classification]

few hairline thin septa and fine calcifications; short segment, slightly thickened <3cm

A

Bosniak II

Malignant = 18.5%

101
Q

[Bosniak Classification]

multiple hairline septa, septa can have calcifications >/3cm

A

Bosniak IIF

Malignant = 18%

102
Q

[Bosniak Classification]

indeterminate cystic masses, thickened irregular or smooth walls or septa

A

Bosniak III

Malignant = 33%

103
Q

[Bosniak Classification]

Clearly malignant; contains enhancing soft-tissue components

A

Bosniak IV

malignant = 92.5%

Surgery (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions