Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FINALS: PASSMED/QUESMED > Urology > Flashcards

Urology Flashcards

1
Q

What marker is associated with testicular seminomas?

A

hCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What is a common complication of radiotherapy for testicular cancer?

A

Proctitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are patients at increased risk of following radiotherapy for prostate cancer?

A

Bladder, colon and rectal cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the management of hard, irregular prostate felt on DRE?

A

2 week wait referral to urology alongside measuring PSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is important to exclude before circumcision can take place?

A

Hypospadias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the side effects of tamsulosin?

A
  • dizziness
  • postural hypotension
  • dry mouth
  • depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ongoing loin pain, haematuria, pyrexia of unknown origin suggests what?

A

Renal cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does circumcision help to reduce?

A

Rates of HIV transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the first line investigation for prostate cancer?

A

Multiparametric MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the investigation of choice for renal stones?

A

Non contrast CT KUB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most common form of prostate cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the referral criteria for bladder cancer?

A

A patient >= 60 years of age with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the analgesia of choice in renal colic?

A

IM Diclofenac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the mode of action of tamsulosin?

A

Alpha-1 antagonists which promote relaxation of the smooth muscle of the prostate and the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

schistosomiasis is a major risk factor for what?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the treatment of choice for renal stones in pregnant women?

A

Ureteroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Adult patients with hydroceles should have what?

A

Ultrasound scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How are infantile hydroceles managed?

A

Surgical repair if not resolved spontaneously by ages 1-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the management of epipidimo-orchitis with no known organism?

A

ceftriaxone 500mg intramuscularly single dose, plus oral doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 10-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the investigations of choice for epipdidimo-orchitis?

A

Younger adults with sexual history - NAAT
Older adults - MSSU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What should be sent for all women with suspected UTI and haematuria?

A

MSU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Acute vs chronic urinary retention

A

Chronic will have much larger volumes (1.5L) and be painless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a complication of losing too much fluid following catheterisation?

A

Post-obstructive diuresis: monitor urine output + replace fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do Tamsulosin and finasteride work?

A

Tamsulosin - alpha blocker - relaxes smooth muscle
Finasteride - 5-alpha reductase inhibitor - inhibits conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are risk factors for bladder cancer?

A
  • Smoking
  • Aromatic amines (paint and dye workers)
  • Schistosomiasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is treatment for TCC of bladder?

A

TURBT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where can bladder tumours metastasize to?

A
  • Uterus, rectum, iliac lymph nods, liver, lungs, bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Management of ureteric stone + signs of infection?

A

Surgical decompression + IV Abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What do you call a hernia which cannot be reduced and is painless?

A

Incarcerated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What can a left sided varicocele be a complication of?

A

Renal cell carcinoma due to venous congestion of the left testicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the scoring system used to assess prostate cancer severity?

A

Gleason

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the management options for prostate cancer?

A

Low grade - active surveillance
Radical prostatectomy - robotic in younger/fitter patients
Open prostatectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are causes of urinary retention?

A
  • Stones
  • BPH, Prostate cancer
  • UTIs
  • Post surgery
  • Constipation in elderly
  • Medications such as anticholinergics, benzos
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Management of urinary retention

A
  • Bladder scan/renal US
  • Post void residual volume
  • Catheterisation
  • Treat cause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What scoring system can be used to assess prostate symptoms?

A

International Prostate Symptom Score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How should bladder cancer be investigated?

A

Flexible cystoscopy with biopsy
CT urogram for staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are causes of epididymo-orchitis

A

STI - Chlamydia/Gonorrhoea
UTI - E coli in older adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are signs of epididymo-orchitis?

A
  • Acute scrotal pain/swelling
  • Fever
  • Dysuria
  • Prehn’s positive: lifting up testicle relieves pain
  • Present cremasteric reflex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Management of epidiymo-orchitis

A
  • Analgesia
  • Scrotal elevation
  • Abx to treat underlying cause (Ceftriaxone + Doxy if any STI, Doxy if chlamydia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are some causes of erectile dysfunction?

A
  • Vascular disease
  • Autonomic neuropathy (diabetes, alcohol excess0
  • Drugs
  • Psychogenic
  • Pelvic surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the management of erectile dysfunction?

A
  • Psychosexual therapy
  • Sildenafil/Tadalafil which increase blood flow to penis (can cause blue vision)
  • Injections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the referral criteria for haematuria?

A

Bladder/Renal
- >45 with unexplained haematuria/haematuria which persists after UTI treatment
- >60 with haematuria + dysuria/raised WCC

42
Q

What causes a hydrocele?

A

Processes vaginalis does not obliterate complete during foetal development causing abdominal fluid to accumulate in scrotum

43
Q

Phimosis vs paraphimosis

A

Phimosis - foreskin too tight to be retracted over the glans of the penis
Paraphimosis - inability to replace foreskin to its original position

44
Q

What is the management of phimosis vs paraphimosis?

A

Phimosis - steroid creams/surgery
Paraphimosis - manual pressure/dorsal slits

45
Q

What is priapism?

A

Painful erection which continues over 2 hours after sexual activity

46
Q

What causes priapism?

A

Ischaemic - lack of venous drainage
Non-ischaemic - often due to trauma

47
Q

What is management of priapism?

A

Aspiration of blood within corpus cavernosa and fluid irrigation
Adrenaline injections

48
Q

What causes prostatitis?

A

Acute - often due to bacterial infection
Chronic - recurrent/persistent prostatitis usually caused by E coli

49
Q

How will prostatitis present on DRE?

A

Tender, warm, swollen prostate

50
Q

How is prostatitis managed?

A

2 weeks of ciprofloxacin

51
Q

What are the 2 types of renal cancer?

A
  • Clear cell carcinoma
  • TCC
52
Q

What the 2 most common types of testicular cancer?

A
  • Seminoma
  • Teratoma
53
Q

What are risk factors for testicular cancer?

A
  • Younger age
  • HIV
  • Undescended testes
54
Q

What is the management of testicular cancer?

A
  • Scrotal US
  • Tumour markers: hCG, AFP, LDH
  • Radical orchidectomy (+ radio/chemo)
55
Q

What is testicular torsion?

A

Twisting of the testicle around the spermatic cord -> obstruction of blood flow to testicle

56
Q

How does testicular torsion present?

A
  • Sudden onset severe pain
  • Absent cremasteric
  • Negative Prehns
  • Following trauma
57
Q

What is the management of torsion?

A
  • Surgical exploration
  • Bilateral orchidopexy: fix both testicles
58
Q

What is the management of undescended testes?

A

Bilateral: refer to paeds to rule out genetic causes then surgery at 6 months
Unilateral: review at 6-8 weeks with referal at 3 months

59
Q

What are causes of raised PSA?

A
  • UTI
  • BPH
  • Prostate cancer
  • Retention
  • Catheterisation
60
Q

Why are Abx given following prostate biopsy?

A

Minimise risk of infection where bowel flora can move into the prostate

61
Q

Indications that a mass is renal

A

Moves up and down with respiration, mass palpable on bimanual
palpation, able to get above mass

62
Q

Why does ureteric obstruction cause pain?

A

Ureteric spasm arises from peristalsis attempting to push the stone and relieve obstruction. This causes local ischaemia and hence pain

63
Q

What are common sites for ureteric stones?

A
  • Renal pelvis
  • Pelvic-ureteric junction
  • Vesico-ureteric junction
64
Q

What immediate test should be done with painless scrotal swellings?

A

Trans-illumination: illumination suggests hydrocele

65
Q

Where are prostate cancers likely to originate?

A

Peripheral zone

66
Q

Which drugs can cause priapism?

A

Trazadone

67
Q

What are the most common causes of pyelonephritis?

A
  • E coli: gram negative pink rod shaped bacteria
  • Klebsiella
  • Proteus
  • Enterococcus
68
Q

What are the common components of renal stones?

A
  • Calcium oxalate (most common)
  • Calcium phosphate
69
Q

Patients with signs of chronic retention should not have what?

A

TWOC - this can exacerbate renal impairment so they need a long term catheter

70
Q

Lifestyle interventions for stress incontinence

A
  • Stop smoking
  • Lose weight
  • Avoid alcohol/caffeine
  • Avoid drinking at nightime
71
Q

Causes of recurrent UTI in men

A
  • Bladder outflow obstruction
  • Urinary tract surgery
  • Immunosuppression
72
Q

Common organisms which cause UTI

A
  • Escherichia coli
  • Klebsiella
  • Enterococcus
  • Proteus sp
73
Q

What are causes of urethral strictures?

A
  • Pelvic trauma
  • Perineal trauma
  • Urethral instrumentation
  • Long term catheter
74
Q

Investigations for urethral strictures

A
  • Cystoscopy
  • U+E
  • Urinalysis
  • Urodynamic testing
75
Q

What are complications of urethral strictures?

A
  • Calculus formation in the urinary tract
  • Chronic infection
  • Bladder diverticula
76
Q

What causes bladder diverticula?

A
  • Chronic increase in intravesical pressure causing mucousa to push through the muscle layer -> risk of chronic infection
77
Q

What is the management of urethral strictures?

A
  • Internal urethrotomy
  • Urethroplasty
  • Graft reconstruction
78
Q

Men with erectile dysfunction should have what tests

A

Glucose, lipid profile, testosterone

79
Q

What is the most common testicular tumour in younger men?

A

Non-seminomatous germ cell tumours

80
Q

What is a Wilms tumour?

A

Nephroblastoma

81
Q

What is the most common organic cause of erectile dysfunction?

A

DM

82
Q

Where are staghorn calculi found?

A

Renal pelvis

83
Q

What are the 2 broad classes of testicular cancers?

A

Seminomas and non-seminomatous germ cell tumours

84
Q

How do testicular cancers metastasize?

A

Para aortic lymph nodes

85
Q

How to classify LUTS?

A

Storage: frequency, urgency, nocturia, dysuria
Voiding: hesitancy, poor stream, dribbling

86
Q

What is a common complication of radical prostatectomy?

A

Erectile dysfunction

87
Q

How long can finasteride treatment take?

A

6 months

88
Q

Risk factors for testicular cancer?

A
  • Infertility
  • FH
  • Cryptorchidism
89
Q

What usually precedes development of a urethral stricture?

A

Urethral inflammation often due to infection

90
Q

Tumour containing different types of tissue e.g. cartilage?

A

Teratoma

91
Q

What is the management of neuropathic bladder?

A

Intermittent self catheterisation

92
Q

Management of mixed colonisation of urinary catheters?

A

No changes needed - mixed growth bacteria is very common and does not cause symptoms usually

93
Q

Cystocele vs Rectocele

A

Cystocele - prolapse of anterior vaginal wall containing bladder
Rectocele - Prolapse of posterior vaginal wall containing rectum

94
Q

What are lifestyle modifications for urge incontinence?

A

Avoid caffeine
Pelvic floor excercises
Bladder retraining
Avoid alcohol/smoking
Weight loss

95
Q

Abx of choice for prostatitis?

A

Ciprofloxacin

96
Q

What is sometimes on present on standing?

A

Varicocele

97
Q

What is an epidydimal cyst?

A

Painless nodule at the head of the epididymis adjacent to inferior pole of testis

98
Q

Gynaecomastia can be a presenting feature of what?

A

Testicular cancer

99
Q

terminal, painful haematuria

A

Think bladder calculi

100
Q

What can present with recurrent balanitis and ballooning around the penis?

A

Phimosis

101
Q

Bell clapper deformity (testis is not fixed) increases the risk of what?

A

Testicular torsion

102
Q

What is an electrolyte complication of TURP?

A

Hyponatraemia

FINALS: PASSMED/QUESMED (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions