Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Finals - General Surgery > Urology > Flashcards

Urology Flashcards

1
Q

Management of urinary retention due to BPH?

A

2 way Foley catheter

Prescribe Doxazosin (alpha blocker) to relax prostate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What term describes a blockage to urine flow along the urinary tract?

A

Obstructive uropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What term describes swelling of the kidneys secondary to obstruction to the outflow of urine?

A

Hydronephrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the name for when urine is able to reflux from the bladder back into the ureters?

A

Vesicoureteral reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the broad categories of causes of an acute kidney injury?

A

Pre-renal, renal and post-renal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What term describes over or under activity of the detrusor muscle of the bladder that may occur in multiple sclerosis?

A

Neurogenic bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What intervention can be used to bypass an upper urinary tract obstruction?

A

Nephrostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What options can be used to bypass a lower urinary tract obstruction, such as a urethral stricture?

A

Urethral catheter or suprapubic catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a notable side effect of tamsulosin?

A

Postural hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the name of the standard two-way urinary catheter?

A

Foley catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of urinary catheter has a curved and slightly rigid tip to help navigate past an obstruction?

A

Coudé tip catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the risk of not replacing the foreskin after inserting a urinary catheter in a man?

A

Paraphimosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What standard duration of antibiotics is used in patients with catheter-associated urinary tract infections?

A

7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What scoring system can be used to assess the severity of lower urinary tract symptoms in benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What two classes of medication can be used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia? Give one example of each.

A

Alpha-blockers (e.g., tamsulosin) and 5-alpha reductase inhibitors (e.g., finasteride)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common surgical treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What term refers to when blood is present in the semen?

A

Haematospermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How long do symptoms need to be present to diagnose chronic prostatitis?

A

At least 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the National Institute of Health Chronic Prostatitis Symptom Index used to assess?

A

The severity of the symptoms (1) and their impact on quality of life (1) in chronic prostatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What investigation can be used to establish the causative organism in acute bacterial prostatitis?

A

Urine microscopy, culture and sensitivities (MC&S)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What would a fluctuant mass on examination of the prostate indicate?

A

Prostate abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What medication can be used to relax smooth muscle and improve symptoms in patients with chronic prostatitis?

A

Alpha-blockers / tamsulosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the main hormone that plays a role in the growth of prostate cancer?

A

Testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the most common site of prostate cancer metastasis?

A

Bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What class of drug increases the risk of prostate cancer?

A

Anabolic steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does PSA stand for?

A

Prostate-specific antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where in the prostate is PSA produced?

A

Epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What makes the PSA an unreliable screening test for prostate cancer?

A

High rate of false positives and false negatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is now the usual first-line investigation for suspected localised prostate cancer?

A

Multiparametric MRI of the prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the definitive investigation for establishing the diagnosis of prostate cancer?

A

Prostate biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What scoring system is specific to prostate cancer and helps to determine what treatment is most appropriate?

A

Gleason grading system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What treatment involves implanting radioactive metal “seeds” into the prostate?

A

Brachytherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Name an androgen receptor blocker used in the treatment of prostate cancer.

A

Bicalutamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What type of medication are goserelin and leuprorelin examples of?

A

GnRH agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Give two key complications of a radical prostatectomy.

A

Erectile dysfunction and urinary incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What cause of orchitis might be associated with pancreatitis and parotid gland swelling?

A

Mumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How do you test for mumps?

A

Saliva swap for PCR testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the typical first line treatment for epididymo-orchitis in patients that are low risk for STIs?

A

Ofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Give three examples of quinolone antibiotics.

A

Ofloxacin
Levofloxacin
Ciprofloxacin

40
Q

What existing medical condition would prevent you prescribing a quinolone antibiotic? Why is this?

A

Epilepsy

Quinolone antibiotics lower the seizure threshold

41
Q

What significant adverse effect should you warn an otherwise healthy patient about when prescribing quinolone antibiotics?

A

Tendon damage / tendon rupture

42
Q

What is the risk and consequence of a delay in diagnosing and treating testicular torsion?

A

Ischaemia and necrosis of the testicle, leading to sub-fertility or infertility

43
Q

What abnormality in the scrotum increases the risk of testicular torsion?

A

Bell-clapper deformity

44
Q

What sign may be seen on an ultrasound scan in testicular torsion?

A

Whirlpool sign

45
Q

What procedure involves correcting the position of a testicle and fixing it in place?

A

Orchiopexy

46
Q

Where does fluid collect when a patient has a hydrocele?

A

Within the tunica vaginalis

47
Q

What can be done to distinguish a fluid-filled mass in the scrotum from a gas-filled or solid mass?

A

A fluid-filled mass will transilluminate by shining a torch through the skin

48
Q

What venous plexus swells in patients with a varicocele and where does this drain into?

A

Pampiniform plexus which drains into the testicular vein

49
Q

Which side are most varicoceles on? Why?

A

Left. Increased resistance in the left testicular vein is it drains into the renal vein, whereas the right testicular vein drains directly into the vena cava

50
Q

What examination finding should raise suspicion of a retroperitoneal tumour in a patient with a varicocele?

A

Does not disappear when lying down

51
Q

What is the most common cause of a soft, round lump at the top but separate from the testicle?

A

Epididymal cysts

52
Q

What cells give rise to most testicular cancers?

A

Germ cells

53
Q

What two groups can testicular tumours be broadly categorised into?

A

Seminomas and non-seminomas (mostly teratomas)

54
Q

What type of testicular tumour can cause gynaecomastia?

A

Leydig cell tumour

55
Q

What are the main tumour markers for testicular tumours?

A

Alpha-fetoprotein and beta-hCG

56
Q

What staging system is used for testicular cancer?

A

Royal Marsden staging system

57
Q

What are the four most common areas where testicular cancer metastasise?

A

Lymphatics
Lungs
Liver
Brain

58
Q

What features would make you suspect pyelonephritis more than a lower urinary tract infection?

A

Fever
Loin/back pain
Nausea/vomiting
Renal angle tenderness on examination

59
Q

What finding on a urine dipstick test is most suggestive of infection?

What other findings might indicate infection?

A

Nitrites

Leukocytes and red blood cells

60
Q

What is the most common causative organism in urinary tract infections?

A

Escherichia coli (E. coli)

61
Q

What is the most common reason for avoiding nitrofurantoin?

A

Renal impairment / eGFR < 45

62
Q

What is the typical duration of antibiotics in an uncomplicated lower urinary tract infection in an otherwise healthy woman?

A

3 days

63
Q

When should nitrofurantoin be avoided in pregnancy and why?

A

Third trimester due to neonatal haemolysis

64
Q

What duration of antibiotics is used in pyelonephritis for patients suitable for management in the community?

A

7-10 days

65
Q

What findings might be seen on cystoscopy in patients with interstitial cystitis?

A

Hunner lesions and granulations

66
Q

What treatment for interstitial cystitis involves filling the bladder with water, to high pressure, during a cystoscopy?

A

Hydrodistention

67
Q

What is the most common histological type of bladder cancer?

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

68
Q

What chemicals previously used in the dye and rubber industries are a key risk factor for bladder cancer?

A

Aromatic amines

69
Q

What infection is a risk factor for bladder cancer?

A

Schistosomiasis

70
Q

What is the typical primary presenting complaint in patients with bladder cancer?

A

Painless haematuria

71
Q

What is the investigation of choice in suspected bladder cancer?

A

Cystoscopy

72
Q

What procedure may be performed during a cystoscopy to remove a non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer?

A

Transurethral resection of bladder tumour (TURBT)

73
Q

What is the term used to describe medication injected given directly into the bladder through a catheter?

A

Intravesical

74
Q

What medication can be given directly into the bladder as a form of immunotherapy as part of the treatment of non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer?

A

Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG)

75
Q

What is the most common solution for draining urine after a radical cystectomy?

A

Urostomy

76
Q

What are the two main risk factors for calcium-based kidney stones?

A

Hypercalcaemia

Low urine output

77
Q

What type of kidney stones cannot be seen on an x-ray?

A

Uric acid

78
Q

What are staghorn calculi most often made of?

A

Struvite

79
Q

What is the characteristic symptom of kidney stones?

A

Renal colic

80
Q

What are the three big main of hypercalcaemia?

A

Calcium supplements

Hyperparathyroidism

Cancer

81
Q

What is the most effective form of analgesia for treating pain associated with kidney stones?

A

NSAIDs

82
Q

What medication can be used to help aid the spontaneous passage of stones?

A

Tamsulosin / alpha blockers

83
Q

What treatment for kidney stones involves a machine that generates shock waves and directs them at the stone under x-ray guidance?

A

Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy

84
Q

What treatment for kidney stones involves a camera inserted via an incision in the back, through the kidney and into the ureter, allowing the stones to be broken into small pieces and removed?

A

Percutaneous nephrolithotomy

85
Q

What chemical in carbonated drinks promotes calcium oxalate formation in the kidneys?

A

Phosphoric acid

86
Q

What may be added to water to reduce the risk of kidney stones?

A

Lemon juice

87
Q

What dietary advice regarding calcium should be given to patients with a history of kidney stones?

A

Maintain a normal calcium intake (low dietary calcium might increase the risk of kidney stones)

88
Q

Foods rich in what compound increase the risk of calcium kidney stones?

A

Oxalate

89
Q

Foods rich in what compound increase the risk of uric acid kidney stones?

A

Purine

90
Q

What is the classic triad of presenting features in renal cell carcinoma?

A

Haematuria
Flank pain
Palpable mass

91
Q

What finding on a chest x-ray is suggestive of metastatic renal cell carcinoma?

A

Cannonball metastases

92
Q

What paraneoplastic syndrome is associated with excessive unregulated erythropoietin production?

A

Polycythaemia

93
Q

What operation typically requires a “hockey-stick” incision?

A

Renal transplant

94
Q

What common skin lesions might suggest a patient is taking long-term immunosuppressants?

A

Seborrhoeic warts

95
Q

What characteristic examination finding can suggest a patient takes tacrolimus?

A

Tremor

96
Q

What characteristic examination finding can suggest a patient takes cyclosporine?

A

Gum hypertrophy

97
Q

What unusual opportunistic infections can occur secondary to immunosuppressant medications?

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, cytomegalovirus and tuberculosis

Finals - General Surgery (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions