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Cancer > Urological cancers > Flashcards

Urological cancers Flashcards

1
Q

What proportion of men with a raised PSA have cancer?

A

1/3

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2
Q

Non-cancer causes of raised PSA?

A 
BPH
Prostatitis and UTI
Ejaculation
Vigorous exercise
Urinary retention
Instrumentation of the urinary tract
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3
Q

PSA referral?

A

> 3.0 ng/ml in 50-69 y/o men

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4
Q

What is a chancre?

A

Genital ulcer usually formed in the primary stage of syphilis

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5
Q

Presenting sign of testicular cancer in young men?

A

Hydrocele - fluid around the testicle

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6
Q

Germ cell tumours can be divided into:

A

Seminomas

Non-seminomas

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7
Q

Examples of non-seminoma tumours:

A

Embryonal
Yolk sac
Teratoma
Choriocarcinoma

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8
Q

Non-germ cell tumours:

A

Leydig cell tumours

Sarcomas

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9
Q

Risk factors for seminomas and teratomas include:

A 
Infertility
Cryptorchidism
Family history
Klinefelter's syndrome
Mumps orchitis
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10
Q

Germ cell tumour findings:

A

Elevated AFP in 60%

Elevated LDH in 40%

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11
Q

Seminoma findings:

A

hCG elevated in 20%

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12
Q

Presenting features of testicular cancer:

A

Painless (usually) lump
Hydrocele
Gynaecomastia

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13
Q

Risk factors for transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder:

A

Smoking
Exposure to aromatic amines - aniline dyes in the textile industry (e.g. 2-naphthylamine and benzidine)
Rubber manufacture
Cyclophosphamide

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14
Q

Risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder:

A

Schistosamiosis (parasite)

Smoking

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15
Q

Which prostate cancer treatment causes an initial increase in the size of the tumour before shrinkage?

A

GnRH agonists such as buserelin

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16
Q

Function of GnRH antagonists?

A

Suppressed LH production and thus the release of DHT and suppresses tumour proliferation

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17
Q

Function of anti-androgens?

A

Directly block the effect of DHT and testosterone, preventing tumour proliferation
Often prescribed alongside GnRH agonists as can prevent the flare in growth

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18
Q

Function of 5-alpha-reductase blockers?

A

Shrink tumour by preventing formation of proliferative factor DHT from testosterone

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19
Q

Common complication of radical prostatectomy?

A

Erectile dysfunction

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20
Q

Localised prostate cancer management (T1/2)?

A

Watchful waiting
Radical prostatectomy
Radiotherapy: external beam and brachytherapy

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21
Q

Localised advanced prostate cancer management (T3/4)?

A

Hormonal therapy: GnRH agonist and anti-androgen
Radical prostatectomy
Radiotherapy: external beam and brachytherapy
Orchidectomy

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22
Q

Risks of radiotherapy for prostate cancer:

A

Bladder, colon and rectal cancer

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23
Q

Age range for teratoma of testicle?

A

Aged 20-30

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24
Q

Histology of seminoma?

A

Sheet like lobular patterns of cells
Fibrous septa with lymphocytic inclusions
Granulomas

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25
Q

Age of onset for non-seminomatous germ cell tumours:

A

Aged 20-30

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26
Q

Measure post chemo/for residual disease in non-seminomatous germ cell tumours?

A

Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection

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27
Q

Non-seminomatous germ cell tumour markers:

A

AFP elevated in 70% of cases

hCG elevated in 40% of cases

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28
Q

Seminoma markers:

A

AFP usually normal
hCG elevated in 10% of seminomas
LDH elevated in 10-20% of seminomas

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29
Q

What testicular cancer differential can be caused by chlamydia or gonorrhoea infections?

A

Epididymo-orchitis

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30
Q

Non-infective cause of epididymitis?

A

Amiodarone

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31
Q

Cause of hydrocele in children?

A

Patent processus vaginalis

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32
Q

Differentials for testicular cancer?

A

Epididymo-orchitis
Testicular torsion
Hydrocele

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33
Q

Why do you investigate visible haematuria?

A

Bladder/kidney cancer until proven otherwise

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34
Q

Immediate response to presentation of visible haematuria?

A

CT urogram and endoscopy

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35
Q

Where do transitional cell cancers form?

A

Collecting system
Ureter
Bladder
Urethra

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36
Q

What set of associated factors is met with the same response as a presentation of visible blood?

A

Over 50 years old
Non-visible haematuria
Smoker

37
Q

Papillary cancer?

A

Flowery non-invasive cancer in the bladder lining

38
Q

3 types of lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTs)

A

Voiding LUTS - Problems initiaiting
Storage LUTS - Frequency, nocturia, incontinence
Micturition LUTS - Dribble after finishing

39
Q

Big risk factor for bladder cancer?

A

Smoking

40
Q

Young person with non-visible blood non-smoker investigation?

A

Ultrasound of the kidneys

Endoscope

41
Q

Common benign tumour of the kidney?

A

Angiomyolipoma

42
Q

What is TURP?

A

Trans-urethral resection of the prostate

43
Q

Investigations for microscopic haematuria:

A

BP
Proteinuria
GFR

44
Q

Proportional of bladder cancers that are non-invasive?

A

70-75%

45
Q

What percentage of non-visible haematurias are due to malignancy?

A

2%

46
Q

What signifies a bladder is invasive?

A

Entry into the muscle layer through the mucosa and lamina propria (T2)

47
Q

Tis bladder cancer?

A

Carcinoma in situ (will progress to invasive within 2 years if left in 50% of cases)

48
Q

Ta bladder cancer?

A

Through urothelium (mucosa)

49
Q

T1 bladder cancer?

A

Through urothelium not through lamina propria

50
Q

T2 bladder cancer?

A

Through urotheloim and lamina propria and into muscle layer (invasive)

51
Q

T3 bladder cancer?

A

Through urothelium, lamina propria, through the muscle layer and into the peri-visceral fat

52
Q

T4 bladder cancer?

A

Through fat and out of the bladder

53
Q

Treatment for non-invasive bladder cancer

A

Transurethral resection
Adjuvant intravesical therapy (chemo/BCG)
(BCG is an immunotherapy used in bladder cancer and to prevent TB)

54
Q

Treatment for invasive bladder cancer

A

Radical cystectomy and urinary diversion

Radical radiotherapy

55
Q

Stage I renal cancer?

A

<7cm

56
Q

Stage II renal cancer?

A

> 7cm

57
Q

Stage III renal cancer?

A

Has involvement of the renal vein (invading the vena cava potentially)

58
Q

Stage IV renal cancer?

A

Spreading to other organs/lymph nodes

59
Q

Treatment for stage I renal cancer?

A

Partial nephrectomy

60
Q

Treatment for stage II renal cancer?

A

Radical nephrectomy

61
Q

Classic renal cancer type?

A

Clear cell

62
Q

Main three types of bladder cancer?

A

Transitional cell (urothelial) carcinoma (95%)
Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma

63
Q

Visible difference between low and high grade tumours in the bladder?

A

Low grade are papillary and grow into the bladder cavity

High grade are either flat or in situ

64
Q

Early symptoms or prostate cancer?

A

Asymptomatic

65
Q

Late symptoms of prostate cancer?

A 
Haematuria
LUTS
Bone pain - metastases
Weight loss
Reduced appetite
66
Q

Treatment for advanced renal cell carcinoma metastatic disease?

A 
1st line: Target molecular therapy
Adjunct: surgery?
Adjunct: chemotherapy?
Adjunct: palliative RT
Adjunct: bisphosphonates for bone metastases
67
Q

Types of prostate cancer:

A

Acinar adenocarcinoma (most common)
Ductal adenocarcinoma (grows and spreads more quickly than acinar)
Transitional cell carcinoma (rarely can start in prostate)
Squamous cell carcinoma (grow and spread quicker than adenocarcinoma)
Small cell carcinoma (neuroendocrine)

68
Q

Which lobe of the prostate becomes cancerous?

A

Posterior - will become hard and raggedy, loss of midline groove
Occasionally lateral lobe induration (fibrosis) with ablation of the lateral sulcus

69
Q

Investigations for prostate cancer?

A

PR
mpMRI
PSA
Then - biopsy if worrying

70
Q

Difference between staging and grading?

A

Staging represents spread of the cancer

Grading represents aggression of the cancer

71
Q

Dont tend to offer radical solutions to prostate cancer over which age?

A

75

72
Q

Side effects of radical prostate cancer treatment?

A

Erectile dysfunction

Micturition LUTS

73
Q

5 things that can raise PSA?

A 
Inflammation (prostatitis)
Massive BPH
Cancer (only thing that will make the PSA super high)
Infection (UTI)
Instrumentation (e.g. cystoscopy)
74
Q

Does a PSA level of 5-20 create a clear diagnostic picture?

A

No, could be any of the 5 things that can raise PSA

75
Q

Does a PSA level of >100 suggest cancer?

A

Yes, cancer is the only thing that will cause a huge increase in PSA

76
Q

“At risk” group for testicular cancer?

A

Men aged 20-40

77
Q

Important risk factors for testicular cancer:

A 
Infertility/sub-fertility
Undescended testis - corrective surgery when younger
History of STIs
HIV
Smoking
Klinefelter's (small)
Contra-lateral testicular cancer
78
Q

Paraneoplastic syndrome of testicular cancer?

A

Testicular cancer-associated paraneoplastic syndrome

79
Q

What are the symptoms and cause of testicular cancer-associated paraneoplastic syndrome?

A

Progressive loss of control of limbs, eye movements and in some cases speech
Cancer causes an AI response to be mounted against the brain

80
Q

Which lymph nodes does testicular cancer spread to?

A

Retroperitoneal lymph nodes (testes are retroperitoneal pre-descent)

81
Q

Differential diagnoses of testicular cancer (VITMN):

A

V - Varicocele
I - Infection (epididymoorchitis/abscess)
T - Testicular rupture/torsion (very painful)
M - Small? - Klinefelter’s/FSH or LH or testosterone levels
N - Neoplasm

82
Q

Where does testicular cancer metastasise to?

A

Commonly the lung, chest lymph nodes and lymph nodes at the base of the neck (check supraclavicular)
More advanced cancers spread to bone and liver

83
Q

Appearance of testis and renal metastases on CXR?

A

Cannon-ball

84
Q

Examination with testicular cancer suspected?

A

Bimanual palpitation
Abdominal exam
Lymph node exam (including supraclavicular node)
Ultrasound (100% sensitive in the scrotum)

85
Q

Are tumour markers elevated in seminomas or non-seminomas?

A

Non-seminomas

86
Q

What are the tumour markers measured in suspected testicular cancer?

A

alpha-beta-Protein
beta-hCG
LDH

87
Q

Investigations for testicular cancer?

A

FBC and U+E
Tumour markers: alpha-beta-Protein, beta-hCG, LDH
FSH/LH and testosterone
Staging: CXR and CT

88
Q

What does BRCA1 confer a 15% risk of in males?

A

Prostate cancer

Cancer (10 decks)

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