Urogyne Flashcards
Name the 3 types of pessaries
Support (Ring, Ring w diaphragm, Shaatz)
Space-occupying (Cube, donut, inflatoball, Gellhorn)
Incontinence (Ring w support and knob, incontinence ring, incontinence dish, Uresta device)
Name the predictors of pessary discontinuation (4)
Posterior wall prolapse
Younger age (< 65 yo)
Urinary incontinence
Discomfort
Which anticholinergic medication can be used with cholinesterase inhibitors (for Alzheimer’s disease)
Trospium (Trosec)
Name common complications of pessaries (3)
Increased discharge (physiologic)
Erosion (2-9 %)
Vaginal infections (2.5%) - BV, yeast
With which medication does Miragebron need a dose adjustment
Digoxin
(Also need to monitor digoxin levels more closely)
Name the 2 reasons that justify urologic work-up (cysto and imaging of upper urinary tract) in patients with UTIs
1- Infection by organisms not commonly causing UTIs
- Proteus
- Pseudomonas
- Enterobacter
- Klebsiella
2- Persistent hematuria after resolution of infection
What is the most common complaint of pessaries
Vaginal discharge
Which anticholinergic has the best efficacy to reduce norcturnal micturitions
Fesoterodine (Toviaz)
In addition:
- decreases nocturnal urgency episodes
- Improve subjective sleep quality
How is a UTI defined in terms of CFU (2)
1- > 100 000 CFU (10 ^5) /HPF
2- Symptoms of UTI + > 1000 CFU/ HPF
Which OAB medications are slective and non- selective M3 antagonists
Non-selective:
- Oxybutinin (Ditropan)
- Tolterodine (Detrol)
- Trospium (Trosec)
Selective: (SDF)
- Solifenacin (Vesicare)
- Darifenacin (Enablex)
- Fesoteridine (Toviaz)
Name the positive predictive factors for recurrent UTIs (5)
Symptoms after intercourse
Prior hx of pyelonephritis
Absence of nocturia
Prompt resolution of symptoms (48h) after initiation of treatment
Name common side effects of anticholinergics
Dry mouth
Constipation
What is the risk of re-operation for mesh exposure after transvaginal mesh placement
4-8%
Name the most common pathogens involved in recurrent UTIs
- E-coli (80%)
- S. Saprofyticus, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Proteus mirabilus (4%)
What are the presenting symptoms of vaginal mesh exposure (5)
Vaginal discharge
Vaginal bleeding
Pain
Dyspareunia
Partner’s discomfort w intercourse
(Often asymptomatic and found on exam)
Name the 2 medications linked to increased QT
Tolterodine (Detrol)
Solifenacin (Vesicare)
Which pessaries have the less chance of self care (3)
Gellhorn
Cube
Donut
What is a nomal PVR value
What is the % of urine emptied with a normal void
PVR: 100- 150 mL
75-80 % of total bladder volume
DDx of UTI (5)
- Chlamydia
- Gonorrhea
- HSV
- Vaginal yeast infection
- BV
Name the 5 components of urodynamic testing
1- Uroflowmetry
2- PVR
3- Bladder function
- Cystometry
- Pressure flow study
4- Urethral function tests (urethral pressure profile & abdominal leak point)
5- Electromyography
What is the treatment of a recurrent UTI within the first week post Tx
Urine C+S
Fluoroquinolone x 7 days
Norfloxacin, cipro, ofloxacin, fleroxacin
About UTIs which is more common between reinfection or relapse
Reinfection
Describe the “spil-over effect” of vaginal estrogens
Transcient increase in plasma estrogen levels at initiation of vaginal therapy secondary to decreased vaginal estrogen absorption in highly atrophied tissue. Resolves by 7-14 days max
Name the RFs for recurrent UTIs in pre-menopausal women (4)
Initial infection with e-coli
Dysfunctional voiding patterns (increased tone in the external sphincter during micturition)
Hx of UTIs before 15
Maternal hx of UTIs
What are the appropriate regimen for prevention of recurrent UTI in pregnancy (2)
Nitrofurantoin 50 mg
Cephalexin 250 mg
Either post-coital OR continuous
Which parameter of a UA is the most specific?
Nitrites (92-100%)
Followed by
Leukocyte esterase (41-86%)
Blood (42-46%)
What is the preferred surgical approach for mesh complications
Vaginal route
Abdominal or laparoscopic if vaginal fails