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Concepts:Nur4510 Exam #1 > Urinary Elimination > Flashcards

Urinary Elimination Flashcards

1
Q

these organs help maintain body fluid volume and composition, filter waste products for elimination, regulate blood pressure/acid-base balance, produce erythropoietin for RBC synthesis, and convert vitamin D to an active form.

A

kidneys

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2
Q

the blood supply to each kidney comes from the _________.

A

renal artery

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3
Q

__________ promotes the reabsorption of sodium in the DCT.

A

aldosterone

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4
Q

______ increases tubular permeability to water, allowing water to leave the tube and be reabsorbed into the capillaries. acts within the DCT and CD; released from posterior pituitary

A

ADH; vasopressin (arteriole constriction)

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5
Q

The kidneys produce..

A

renin, prostglandins, bradykinin, erythropoietin, activated vitamin D

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6
Q

released when there is a decrease in blood flow, blood volume, or blood pressure through the arterioles or when too little sodium is present in kidney blood.

A

renin

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7
Q

what releases angiotensinogin II?

A

renin

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8
Q

increases systemic blood pressure through powerful blood vessel constricting effects and triggers the release of aldosterone from the adrenal glands

A

angiotensinogin II

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9
Q

produced when protein or muscle breaks down. filtered by kidneys and excreted in urine. Good indicator of kidney function.

A

creatinine

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10
Q

the by-product of protein breakdown in the liver

A

urea

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11
Q

increasing BUN more than creatinine BUN:creatinine ratio

A

deficient blood volume or low cardiac output

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12
Q

elevated BUN:creatinine ratio

A

kidney dysfunction that is not related to dehydration or poor perfusion

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13
Q

a measure of the overall concentration of particles in the blood and is a good indicator of hydration status

A

blood osmolarity

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14
Q

the rate of glomerular filtration (GFR) in the kidneys is altered by what

A

blood flow the kidneys

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15
Q

Which lab value most accurately reflects possible renal dysfunction? a. Urine specific gravity of 1.020 b. BUN/creatinine ration of 10:1 c. BUN of 15 mg/dl d. Creatinine of 5.0 mg/dl

A

d. Creatinine of 5.0 mg/dl

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16
Q

The rate of glomerular filtration (GFR) in the kidneys is alter by what?

A

blood flow to the kidneys

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17
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) acts within the _______ to promote reabsorption of _______.

A

distal tubules; water (via sodium)

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18
Q

the presence of calculi (stones) in the urinary tract. Stones often do not cause symptoms until they pass into the urinary tract.

A

Urolithiasis

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19
Q

the formation of stones in the kidney

A

Nephrolithiasis

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20
Q

formation of stones in the ureter

A

Uterolithiasis

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21
Q

With which type of urinary diversion will male clients need to learn to sit to urinate?

A

Diversion into sigmoid colon

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22
Q

Symptoms of prerenal azotemia

A

hypotension tachycardia decreased CO decreased central venous pressure (taken by Swann Gan) decreased urine output lethargy

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23
Q

kidney injury caused by poor blood flow to the kidneys

A

prerenal azotemia

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24
Q

administering normal saline 500 to 1000ml infused over one hour

A

fluid challenge

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25
Q

indications for dialysis in the client with acute renal failure

A

presence of uremia, persistent high potassium levels, metabolic acidosis, continued fluid overload, uremic pericarditis, and encephalopathy

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26
Q

used for patients who have fluid volume overload, are resistant to diuretics, and have unstable blood pressures and cardiac output can regulate rate (less hemofluctuation)

A

continuous arteriovenous hemodialysis and filtration (CAVH)

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27
Q

risk associated with use of a pump in continuous arteriovenous hemodialysys and filtration (CAVH)

A

air embolism, bleeding caused by anticoagulants used to prevent membrane clotting

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28
Q

most accurate ways to monitor kidney function

A

urine output, BUN:creatinine ratio (both elevated =problem)

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29
Q

decreased serum creatinine level

A

decreased muscle mass

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30
Q

Normal BUN range

A

~10-20

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31
Q

increased BUN

A

hepatic or renal disease, dehydration or decreased kidney perfusion, high protein diet, infection, stress, GI bleeding

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32
Q

if liver and kidney dysfunction are present, urea nitrogen levels are ______ because liver failure limits urea production

A

decreased

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33
Q

the density of urine compared with water (1.00)

A

specific gravity

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34
Q

divert urine directly to the skin surface through a ureteral skin opening (stoma). Pt will wear a pouch.

A

ureterostomies

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35
Q

collect urine in a portion of the intestine which is then opened onto the skin surface as a stoma. Pt will wear a pouch.

A

conduit

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36
Q

divert urine to the large intestine. no stoma is required. The patient excretes urine with bowel movements, and bowel incontinence may result.

A

-sigmoidostomies

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37
Q

divert urine into a surgically created pouch, or pocket, that functions as a bladder. The stoma is continent, and the patient removes urine by regular self-catheterization.

A

ileal reservoir (Kock’s pouch)

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38
Q

Pt presenting symptoms of: Confusion, Decreased alertness, Decreased or no urine production, Dry mouth, Fast pulse, Fatigue, Pale skin color, Swelling, Thirst

A

Prerenal azotemia

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39
Q

increased level of BUN & creatine wastes in the blood

Caused by: burns, hemmoraging blood, long term N&V, decreased blood volume (dehydration)

:hypotension, tachycardia, Decreased CO, decreased CVP, decreased urine output

A

Azotemia

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40
Q

The appearance of a patient with prerenal azotemia is similar to that of a patient with what?

A

Heart failure or dehydration

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41
Q

usually occurs with damage to the glomeruli, interstitial tissue, or tubules of kidney

A

Intrarenal (intrinsic) AKI

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42
Q

A client in uremia will have all of the following except which of the following?

a. uremic halitosis or stomatitis
b. hiccups and anorexia
c. spider hemangiomas
d. nausea and vomiting

A

c. spider hemangiomas

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43
Q

this type of kidney disease is irreversible, you treat with dialysis, usually anemia, 5 stages

A

chronic kidney disease

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44
Q

advantages of using peritoneal dialysis instead of hemodialysis

A
  1. easy to learn
  2. ban be done at home
  3. ambulatory - no machine needed
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45
Q

a decrease in specific gravity occurs with:

A

increased fluid intake, diuretic drugs, and diabetes

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46
Q

increased specific gravity occurs with:

A
  • dehydrartion
  • decreased kidney blood flow
  • the presence of ADH
  • damaged kidneys absorb less water

**urine is more concentrated

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47
Q

normal range for glucose in urinalysis

A

<0.5 g/day

presence reflects hyperglycemia or a decrease in the renal threshold for glucose

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48
Q

normal range of pH in urine analysis

A

4-6.8 (less than 7 is acidic)

can be changed by diet, drugs, infection, freshness of specimen, acid-base imbalance, and altered renal functions

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49
Q

normal range for ketones in urinalysis

A

none; presencre reflects incomplete metabolism of fatty acids, as in diabetic ketoacidosis, prolonged fasting, anorexia nervosa

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50
Q

normal range for protein in urinalysis

A

0.8mg/dL; increased amounts may indicate stress, infection, recent strenous exercise, or glomerular disorders

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51
Q

normal range of bilirubin in urinalysis

A

none; presenve suggests liver or biliary disease or obstruction

52
Q

normal range of RBCs in urinalysis

A

0-2; increased are normal with catheterization or menses but may reflect tumor, stones, trauma, glomerular disorders, cytitis, or bleeding disorders

53
Q

normal range of WBCs

A

0-5; increased amounts may indicate an infection or inflammation in renal/urinary tract, transplant rejection, fever, or exercise

54
Q

normal range of casts in urinalysis

A

a few or none; increased indicate presence of bacteria or protein, severe kidney disease, urinary calculi

55
Q

normal range for crystals in urinalysis

A

none; presence states specimen has been allowed to stand

56
Q

presence of nitrites in urine

A

suggests e coli

57
Q

diagnostic test that can determine how well the bladder wall (detrusor) muscle funtions and how sensitive it is to stretching as the bladder fills. Provides information about bladder capacity, bladder pressure, and voiding reflexes.

A

Cystometrography (CMG)

58
Q

how is Cystometography (CMG) performed

A
  1. pt voids (amt, rate of flow, and time of voiding recorded)
  2. catheter with cystometer is inserted to measure residual volume
    1. note when pt feels first feeling to void, then strong feeling
  3. pt voids, residual volume note, remove catheter

*infection prevention

59
Q

Diagnostic test that can provide information about the nature of urinary incontinence or urinary retention

A

urethral pressure profile

60
Q

Urinary pressure profile procedure

A

a special catheter with pressure-sensing capabilites is inserted into the bladder, records muscle variations as it is withdrawn

61
Q

diagnostic test used to evaluate pelvic muscle strength and the effectiveness of pelvic muscles in stopping the flow of urine, useful in assessing urinary incontinence

A

urine stream testing

62
Q

how is urine stream testing done?

A

patient is asked to begin urinating, after 3-5seconds the examiner gives patient signal to stop the flow of urine. Length of time required to stop flow is recorded

63
Q

diagnostic test used to test the strength of the perineal muscles in voiding by placing electrodes in either rectum or urethra; used to identify methods of improving continence

A

electromyography (EMG)

64
Q

invasive procedure done to help determine a cause of unexplained kidney problems. done percutaneously using ultrasound or CT guidance.

A

Kidney biopsy

65
Q

Needed before kidney biopsy is performed

A
  • consent form
  • NPO 4-6h
  • coagulation tests (risk for bleeding)
66
Q

After kidney biopsy is completed what do you monitor for?

A
  • Risk for bleeding (urine output. h&h)
    • internal bleed (flank pain, decrease bp, decrease urine output, hypovolemia)
  • microscopic blood in urine is normal for first 72h-2wk, no clots
  • if bleeding from site occurs apply pressure
67
Q

normal range for urine osmolarity

A

300-900

68
Q

non-invasive method of estimating bladder volume

A

bladder scanner

69
Q

imaging; a plain film of the abdomen is obtained, no specific pt prep, shows gross anatomic features and obvious sones, strictures, calcifications, or obstructions in the urinary tract, identifies shape and size, structural or functional problems

A

Kidney, Ureter, and Bladder X-rays

70
Q

Assessing the patient about to undergo a diagnostic test or interventional procedure using contrast medium; before procedure ask:

A
  • allergy to contrast (asthma pts more at risk for allergy) if yes what was reaction
  • allergy to seafood eggs, milk, chocolate (reaction reported in 15% of these pts)
  • allergy to shellfish, iodine
  • assess for history of kiney impairment or conditions that put them at risk for contrast related nephrotocity
  • have you taken metformin within 48h (causes lactic acidosis)
  • hydration status (bp, mucous membranes, skin turgor, urine concentration)
  • when did you last eat or drink something
71
Q

conditions that have been implicated in increasing the chance of developing kidney failure after contrast media

A
  • diabetic nephropathy
  • class IV heart failure (discomfort at rest)
  • dehydration
  • concomitant use of aminoglycosides, NSAIDs
  • cirrhosis (scarring of liver)
72
Q

Prep for Computed Tomography (CT)

A
  • pt may be NPO (specific to orders)
  • dye may be given (sometimes omitted; risk for contrast-induced AKI
73
Q

After undergoing procedure that uses dye monitor for:

A
  • urine output
  • push fluids
74
Q

cysto-

A

bladder

75
Q

-graphy

A

technique of providing images

76
Q

Prep for a pt undergoing Cystography and Cystourethrograpy(images done while voiding)

A
  • dye will be injected via urinary catheter to enhance xray
  • encourage fluids
77
Q

Prep for a Renography (kidney scan)

A
  • radionuclide (no danger) will be injected IV
  • may use captopril (antihypertensive) to change blood flow to kiney
    • monitor for hypotension
78
Q

Prep for Ultrasonography

A
  • requires full bladder
  • pt will lie prone with sonographic gel on back and flank areas
    • skin care after procedure
79
Q

allows dye to enter the renal blood vessels and generates images to determine blood vessel size and abnormalities; rarely used anymore use CT or ultrasonography instead)

A

Renal Arteriography (Angiography)

80
Q

Prep for cystoscopy and cysteourethroscopy

(diagnosis [trauma] or treatment[remove bladder tumors or enlarged prostate])

A
  • preop prep & signed consent
  • general or local anesthesia will be used
    • monitor post anesthesia in postop
  • NPO after midnight night before procedure
  • bowel prep
  • foley might be put in after
81
Q

going against the normal flow of urine

A

retrograde

82
Q

Retrograde procedures prep (same as cystoscopy)

A
  • catheters will be placed into ureter, renal pelvis, bladder or urethra
  • catheters are removed and x-rays are taken to outline structures as the dye is excreted
  • contrast dye is used
83
Q

what causes AKI?

A

conditions that reduce blood flow to kineys

84
Q

reduced blood flow to the kidneys causes this

A

prerenal AKI

85
Q

obstruction of urine flow causes this

A

postrenal AKI

86
Q

Formation of stones involves three conditions:

A
  1. slow urine flow
  2. damage to the lining of the urinary tract
  3. decreased amts of ihibitor substances

(ph abnormality, some drugs like triamterene, indinavir, and acetazolamide)

87
Q

type of abdominal pain commonly caused by kidney stones

A

renal colic

88
Q

this type of pain suggests that the stone is in the kidney or upper ureter

A

flank pain

89
Q

flank pain that extends toward the abdomen or to the scrotum and testes of the vulva suggests stones are where?

A

ureters or bladder

*pain is most intense when the stone is moving or when the ureter is obstructed

90
Q

What urinalysis labs may be effected by a stone?

A
  • RBCs may be present (stone-induced trauma)
  • WBCs (urinary stasis) (serum WBC = infection)
  • turbidity and odor (infection)
  • crystals
  • PH
91
Q

What diagnostic tests should you expect to be drawn when stone formation is suspected?

*confirm presence and location

A
  • KUB
  • IV urogram
  • CT (maybe noncontrast)
92
Q

Primary Intervention in patients with kidney stones?

A
  • pain management
  • prevention of infection (antibiotic)
  • urinary obstruction (3L/day fluid intake, monitor I&O)
    • nutrition monitoring (*hyper protocols)
  • strain urine
93
Q

lithotripsy - use of sound, laser, or dry shock waves to break up stone - PREP

A
  • requires moderate sedation
  • supine
  • monitor ECG
  • strain urine
  • monitor bruising
94
Q

What disorders disqualify a patient for a kidney transplant?

correct correctable before transplant

A

ucorrectable cardiac disease, metastatic cancer (2-5yrs eradicated from cancer become elgible) chronic infection, alcoholism, chemical dependency

risky for long standing pulmonary disease, diseases of GI

95
Q

Criteria for organ donors: (kidney)

A
  • 18-75yo
  • absence of systemic disease and infection
  • no history of cancer
  • no htn or kidney disease
  • adequate kidney function, determined by labs
  • living or notliving (preserved)
  • same blood type
96
Q

Kidney donor PREP

A
  • dialysis within 24h of surgery
    • blood usually transfused into recipient
  • prepared for the pain that is forthcoming (more than recipient will have)
  • will take 4-5h
    *
97
Q

Kidney recipient postop

A
  • postop large bore foley will be placed for accurate reading of I&O
  • will be at risk for rejection, AKI, thrombosis, or obstruction
  • new kidney will be placed in the R or L anterior iliac fossa
  • daily weights
  • oliguria or diuresis (serious problem after 3-7days)
98
Q

most common type of rejection with kidney transplants, treated with increased immunosuppressive therapy and can be reversible

A

acute rejection

99
Q

can occur after surgery as a result of hypoxic damage when transplantation is delayed after kidneys have been harvested. Hard to distinguish from acute rejection.

A

Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN)

100
Q

potential complication of renal transplant. characterized as a sudden decrease in urine output 2-3 days after transplant.

A

thrombosis of the major renal blood vessel

101
Q

a patient that just received a renal transplant now has hypertension. what might be wrong?

A

renal artery stenosis

*may hear a bruit over the artery anastomosis site and drecreased kidney function

102
Q

what may a physician do to treat a patient with a renal artery stenosis?

A

balloon angioplasty

103
Q

Patient received a transplant within the last 48h, and now has an increased temp, bp, and pain at transplant site. what could be going on, what treatment happens next?

A

hyperacute rejection; immediate removal of the transplanted kidney

104
Q

Patient received a transplant within the last 2wks, and now has oliguria/anuria, temp>100 inreasted bp, enlarged kidney, lathargic, elevated creatinine, BUN, potassium. what could be going on, what treatment happens next?

A

acute rejection; increased doses of immuosuppressive drugs

105
Q

Patient received a transplant months to years ago, and now has a gradually increasing BUN and creatinine, fluid retention, electrolyte changes, and fatigue. what could be going on, what treatment happens next?

A

chronic rejection; conservative management until dialysis is required.

106
Q

Works on principles of diffusion and osmosis
• Composition of dialysate determines solutes removed
• Osmolality of dialysate determines amount of fluid removed
• Dialysis machine contains semi-permeable membrane (artificial kidney/dialyzer)

A

Hemodialysis

107
Q

Works on principles of diffusion and osmosis
• Composition of dialysate determines solutes removed
• Osmolality of dialysate determines amount of fluid removed
• Peritoneum acts as semi-permeable membrane

A

Peritoneal Dialysis

108
Q

Most work on principle of hydrostatic pressure
• Pressure inside of system forces water and solutes out (into effluent)

A

Hemofiltration

109
Q

type of hemofiltration that does use dialysate

A

CAVHD

110
Q

type of hemofiltration that does use dialysate solution

A

CAVH CVVH

111
Q

Where does the pressure difference come from when using CAVH?

A

arterial and venous systems generated hydrostatic pressure (requires MAP of at least 60mm Hg)

112
Q

How is hydrostatic pressure generated when performing CVVH?

A

through pump (only venous catheter)

113
Q

Is heparin required for hemodialysis?

A

yes, risk of bleed

114
Q

Is heparin required for Peritoneal Dialysis?

A

Heparin not required intraperitoneal heparin may be needed, but is not systemically absorbed

115
Q

Is heparin required for hemofiltration?

A

yes, Heparin required – risk of bleeding

(lower dose for CVVH than for CAVH)

116
Q

How often is dialysis performed?

A

Typically 3 days per week for 4 hours at a time (12 hours weekly)

117
Q

How often is peritoneal dialysis performed?

A

Timing dependent upon type but all have 3 stages (that make up an exchange)
• Infusion/fill (Typically 1-2 liters infused by gravity over 10-20 minutes)
• Dwell – physician prescribes time dialysate to be left in abdomen
• Outflow/drain – Effluent drains by gravity

118
Q

how often is hemofiltration performed?

A

Slow and continuous
12-24 hours a day

119
Q

What access points are used for hemodilation?

A

• HD catheters – maintained by dialysis nurse and not to be used for other purposes
• AV fistulas(shunt) connect artery to vein.
-Palpate thrill, auscultate bruit to assess patency
-Do not take B/P or draw blood from arm with shunt

120
Q

How do you access peritoneal dialysis?

A

PD Catheter surgically inserted in peritoneum.

121
Q

How do you access CAVH for Hemofiltration?

A

both arterial and venous catheters

122
Q

How do you access CVVH for Hemofiltration?

A

double or triple lumen central catheter (subclavian or internal jugular; femoral site has higher infection rate)

123
Q

Complications of Hemodialysis:

A
  • Disequalibrium Syndrome (rapid fluid shifts and drop in BUN results in cerebral edema)
  • Hypotension r/t removal of fluid
  • Bleeding r/t use of anticoagulants (Protamine sulfate is antidote for heparin)
124
Q

Primary complications of Peritoneal Dialysis:

A
  • Abdominal pain – warming dialysate decreases discomfort
  • Infection (peritonitis) – effluent will be cloudy. Strict asepsis required.
  • Bowel perforation – effluent will be brown
  • Constipation can result flow problems so need to manage/prevent
  • Fibrin clot can form restricting outflow; “milking” tubing may dislodge clot
125
Q

Primary complications for hemofiltration:

A
  • Bleeding r/t use of anticoagulants (Protamine sulfate is antidote for heparin)
  • Better tolerated than HD by patients who are hemodynamically unstable

Concepts:Nur4510 Exam #1 (9 decks)

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