Upper Respiratory Tract Infections Flashcards

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1
Q

Why are respiratory infections so easily spread among individuals?

A
  • innate defence mechanisms are not as active in the respiratory system as in other parts of the body
  • our respiratory tract has a direct opening to all other environmental pathogens
  • climate is also a factor- in winter, people are often all insider and there is a much higher risk of infection
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2
Q

What organs comprise the upper respiratory tract?

A
  • epiglottis
  • larynx
  • nasal cavity
  • pharynx
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3
Q

What organs comprise the lower respiratory tract?

A
  • trachea
  • bronchi
  • bronchioles
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4
Q

Why does the rhinovirus only cause upper respiratory tract infections?

A
  • primarily only cause upper respiratory tract infections because they prefer the lower temperature opposed to the higher temperature of the lower resp tract
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5
Q

Lungs have a rich population of _____ that prevent the spread of infection and the establishment of disease

A

macrophages

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6
Q

Pertussis produces a toxin that ________ of epithelial cells, which allows it to infect the lower respiratory tract much more easily

A

inhibits the ciliary action

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7
Q

RSV causes an infection in ______ (rhinovirus synctival virus)

A

both the upper respiratory tract and the lower respiratory tract

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8
Q

____ is the largest cause of hospital acquired respiratory tract infections in Canada

A

pseudomonas

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9
Q

What kills people when they have influenza?

A

the secondary bacterial infection will be the thing that kills people, not he actual infection (almost always a secondary bacterial infection when the person has symptoms that lasts over 7 days)

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10
Q

What are respiratory tract infections that are restricted to the surface?

A
  • common cold virus
  • influenza
  • strep throat
  • chlamydia
  • diphtheria
  • pertussis
  • candida albicans
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11
Q

What are the respiratory tract infections that are spread throughout the body?

A
  • measles, mumps and rubella
  • EBV, CMV
  • chlamydia psittaci
  • Q fever
  • cryptococcosis
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12
Q

What part of the body does mumps enter through?

A
  • enters through the respiratory tract
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13
Q

What are the requirements to be a professional invader of the respiratory tract? (effect the healthy respiratory tract?)

A
  • adhesion to the normal mucosa (in spite of the mucociliary system)
  • ability to interfere with cilia
  • ability to resist destruction in alveolar macrophages
  • ability to damage local tissues (mucosal, submucosal)
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14
Q

What are the requirements to be a secondary invader of the respiratory tract? (secondary invaders)

A
  • initial infection and damage by respiratory virus (influenza virus)
  • local defences impaired (cystic fibrosis)
  • chronic bronchitis, local foreign body or tumour
  • depressed immune responses (AIDS, neoplastic disease)
  • depressed resistance
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15
Q

Describe rhinitis?

A
  • causes the common cold
  • different types of viruses cause the common cold
  • > 50% due to rhinovirus and coronaviruses
  • induce a flow of virus rich fluid, rhinorrhea
  • transmission is via the aerosol route or via contaminated hands
  • the infection is self-limiting- aetiology is generally not determined, there is an involvement of the LRT
  • no vaccine- there is such a diverse group
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16
Q

Pharyngitis and tonsillitis is mostly caused by viruses. What three viruses?

A
  • adenovirus
  • cyclomegalovirus
  • EBV
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17
Q

What is the main bacterial pathogen that causes tonsillitis?

A
  • S pyogenes
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18
Q

Cytomegalovirus is the largest human ____ virus

A

herpes

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19
Q

Describe the appearance of CMV infections

A
  • multi-nucleated cell formation and/or intracellular inclusions give the cells a distinct appearance
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20
Q

___ are the natural host of the CMV

A

humans

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21
Q

Transmission of CMV is via what routes?

A

saliva, urine, blood, semen and cervical secretions (can be acquired in a newborn from the mother- number of viruses in the urine of the newborn is very high in hospital, have to be careful when handling newborns not to transmit between babies)

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22
Q

What is the progression of the CMV infection?

A
  • initial infection is asymptomatic
  • local lymphoid tissue
  • lymph nodes and spleen (via circulating lymphocytes and monocytes)
  • virus localized in epithelial cells in salivary glands, kidney, cervix and testes - shedding often happens for months
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23
Q

How long does the CMV infection stay in the body for?

A
  • latent infection stays in the body for life – evades immune defences and is a poor target for Tc cells
  • interferes with transport of MHC-1 molecules to the cell surface
  • induces expression of Fc receptors on the cell surface
24
Q

Is there a vaccine for CMV?

A

no, but trials are underway

25
Q

In infants and children there is ____, and in adults there is ______

A

no symptoms

mild illness

26
Q

What is the spectrum o symptoms in those infected with CMV?

A

adolescents- glandular and fever-type illness (fever, lethargy abnormal lymphocytes and mononucleosis)
- primary infection is during pregnancy where it gets passed on through the placenta to the fetus - causes mental retardation

27
Q

How is EBV transmitted?

A
  • saliva
28
Q

What are the two peaks of ages that a person will get EBV?

A

1-6 years and 14-20 years

29
Q

What % of the population in the US has EBV

A

95%

30
Q

What are the clinical features of the EBV?

A
  • immunologically mediated
  • virus replicates in the epithelial cells and B lymphocytes (attaches to the C3d receptor)
  • virus shed in saliva from the infected epithelial cells
  • spreads to B lymphocytes in local lymphoid tissues (lymph nodes and spleen)
  • T lymphocytes respond to infected B cels - civil war in the body
31
Q

How long is the virus shed after the infection is cleared?

A
  • long time
32
Q

What is the clinical features of an infant infected with EBV?

A

no clinical disease

33
Q

What is the clinical feature of a young adult infected with EBV?

A
  • infectious mononucleosis/glandular fever within 4-7 weeks after infection
  • fever, sore throat, petechiae on hard palate, lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly
  • hepatitis
34
Q

What are the symptoms of EBV associated with?

A
  • associated with cytokine release
  • infected B cells lead to polyclonal activation, production of autoantibodies
  • spontaneous recovery, saliva is infectious for months
35
Q

What is the treatment for EBV?

A
  • no antiviral use in immunocompromised patients
36
Q

What cancers are associated with EBV?

A
  • burkitts lymphoma

- nasopharyngeal carcinoma (china and SE asia)- malaria weakens the T cell control of an EBV infection

37
Q

What are the general symptoms of a bacterial pharyngitis infection?

A
  • sore red throat, difficulty swallowing
  • sudden fever, malaise, and loss of appetite
  • scarlet fever- characterized by sandpaper rash on the neck and chest (can also be in other locations of the body)
  • scarlet fever can also be accompanied by a strawberry tongue, and headache, chills and muscle aches
  • rheumatic fever can also company —- can be shown with fever and joint pain in the knees, ankles, elbows and wrists specifically. Also potentially cardiac problems
38
Q

Why is bacterial pharyngitis so important to treat?

A
  • can be a big cause of rheumatic heart disease

- can also cause acute glomerunephritis

39
Q

What is acute glomerunephritis caused by?

A
  • caused by an anti-strep Ab that is in the circulating immune complex an deposits into the glomeruli
  • causes an activation of the complement and the coagulation systems, leading to inflammation and blood in the urine
40
Q

Describe parotitis

A
  • inflammation of the parotid glands (largest of the salivary glands)
  • can lead to mumps
41
Q

Describe mumps

A
  • spread via airborne droplets
  • close contacts spread it
  • recovery is in one week
  • lifelong immunity
  • incubation is about 3 weeks
42
Q

What vaccine gives you immunity to mumps?

A

MMR

43
Q

What are the complications of mumps?

A
  • meningitis
  • encephalitis
  • pancreatitis
  • hearing loss
44
Q

What causes an otitis media infection?

A
  • half is viral

- can also be a bacterial infection- S. pneumonia and H. influenzae, or can be S. pyogenes, M. catarrhalis or S. aureus

45
Q

What population does ear infections occur in?

A
  • preschool age
46
Q

What are the signs of ear infections?

A
  • fever and irritability
  • ear pain, changes in hearing and a purulent discharge (comes in late infection)
  • bulging of the eardrum can occur when there is an accumulation of fluid in the ears
47
Q

What are the complications of otitis media?

A
  • damage to the tympanic membrane which causes hearing loss
48
Q

How would you tell whether an otitis media infection is caused by a virus or a bacteria?

A
  • if the infection lasts for over a week, then the infection is likely bacterial and the patient should be started on antibiotics
49
Q

What is otitis externa?

A
  • infection of the outer ear
  • pathogens are distinct from the otitis media
  • external ar has bacterial flora similar to the skin- Staphylococcus aureus, Candida albicans, Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • use antibiotic ear drops
50
Q

The aetiology of acute sinusitis is similar to what?

A

otitis media

51
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of acute sinusitis?

A
  • facial pain and local tenderness
  • prolonged respiratory tract infection (purulent nasal discharge and pain in the face, fever, maxillary sinusitis, headache and pain in the upper face
52
Q

What are some of the most common complications of acute sinusitis?

A
  • orbital cellulitis (infection in the back of the eye- not able to be reached by the IS), osteomyelitis, meningitis, brain abscess
53
Q

A _____ infection can often lead to a sinus infection

A

upper respiratory tract

54
Q

What bacteria is epiglottitis caused by?

A

H. influenzae

55
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of epiglottitis?

A
  • edema and inflammation
  • airway blockage
  • life threatening
  • – medical emergency! will cause people to stop breathing