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Microbiology > Sexually Transmitted Infections > Flashcards

Sexually Transmitted Infections Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What is the bacteria responsible for causing syphilis?

A

treponema pallidum pallidum

- there is 11 m new cases a year worldwide

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2
Q

What is the most common age group to have syphilis in canada and what is the gender?

A
  • makes aged 30-39
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3
Q

What is the incubation period if treponema palladium pallidum

A

1-90 days

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4
Q

What makes up the primary phase of syphilis?

A
  • chancres/skin lesions at the site of inoculation
  • usually painless and heals spontaneously
  • highly infectious
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5
Q

What is the secondary phase of syphilis?

A
  • signs of the disseminated disease
  • occurs 2-12 weeks after th infection
  • skin lesions are on the trunk, palms and soles of the feet
  • lesion fluid is highly infectious
  • signs of other organ involvement
  • 3-12 weeks, disappearance of symptoms
  • latent phase follows (asymptomatic, antibodies present, untreated patients have 3 outcomes - relapse, no relapse or the tertiary phase)
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6
Q

What is considered tertiary syphilis?

A
  • can occur after initial infection
  • neurologic and cardiovascular symptoms
  • may have gummas (nonspecific, granulomatous lesions)
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7
Q

Congenital syphilis passed on to the child will give the baby signs of _____ at birth

A

secondary syphilis

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8
Q

Congenital syphilis can be prevented is woman are treated with ____ early in pregnancy

A

penicillin

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9
Q

Lab diagnosis depends solely on microscopy and serology for what reasons?

A
  • because treponema cannot be grown in vitro
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10
Q

What two types of microscopy are used to see treponema bacteria?

A
  • dark field or fluorescent microscopy
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11
Q

What are the nonspecific serodiagnostic tests for treponema using nontreponemal antibodies?

A
  • venereal disease research laboratory test

- rapid plasma reagin test

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12
Q

What are the specific tests for syphilis using treponemal antibodies?

A
  • FTA-ABS: florescent treponemal antibody absorption

- agglutination tests ( microhemagglutination test and Treponema palladium particle agglutination test)

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13
Q

What aret eh 2 antibiotics that are used to treat syphilis?

A
  • penicillin and doxycycline
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14
Q

What bacteria causes gonorrhoea? Describe it

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

- gram negative diplococci

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15
Q

Where does gonorrhoea typically infect in the female reproductive tract?

A
  • typically the cervix, the uterus and the fallopian tubes

- also the urethra (in both males and females)

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16
Q

Females have a __ % chance of infection post single encounter, while males have a __ % chance of infection post single encounter

A

50%

20%

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17
Q

How is gonorrhoea vertically transferred?

A
  • can cause opthalmia neonatorum when passed on to children
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18
Q

N. gonorrhoeae is a ____ that thrives in a humid atmosphere

A

capnophile

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19
Q

What are the different virulence factors that N. gonorrhoeae possesses?

A
  1. Pilus: aids in attachment to human mucosal epithelium - contains constant and hyper variable regions- analagous to immunoglobulins
  2. Por proteins: forms pores through the outer membrane - antigenic
  3. Opa proteins: assist binding to the epithelial cells
  4. LOS: lipooligosaccharide (endotoxin activity)
  5. RMP proteins: inhibit ‘cidal’ activity of serum
  6. IgA protease: core contains enzyme- released by cell to destroy IgA
  7. Capsule: resists phagocytosis- unless antibody is present
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20
Q

Gonorrhoea in females is often asymptomatic, but if symptoms are present they develop in 2-7 days and the main symptom is often _______

A

vaginal discharge

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21
Q

What are the main untreated complications of untreated gonorrhoea in females?

A
  • PID
  • chronic pelvic pain
  • infertility
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22
Q

In makes, what is the main symptoms of gonorrhoea?

A
  • urethral discharge

- painful urination

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23
Q

What are the other conditions that are also known to be signs and symptoms of gonorrhoea?

A
  • anorectal (purulent discharge), pharyngeal (sore throat), and ophthalmic infections
  • ophthalmia neonatorum in newborns
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24
Q

What is the most useful method of determining a gonorrhoea infection?

A
  • in men- by using a direct gram stain
  • uses urethral discharge from symptomatic males with urethritis - gram negative diplococci inside PMNs, diagnostic
  • this is not as useful in women - normal vaginal and rectal flora have G- coccobacilli so therefore the bacteria has to be confirmed by culturing
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25
Q

What is the highest amount of STIs reported in canada?

A
  • chlamydia
26
Q

Chlamydia is considered an ____ ______ bacterium

A

obligate intracellular

27
Q

Serotypes A-C of the Chlamydia trachomatis cause what disorder?

A

trachoma (an infection of the eye)

28
Q

Serotypes D-K are the cause of ________ and associated ocular and respiratory infections

A

genital infections

29
Q

Serotypes L1, L2, L3 cause the systemic disease of _________

A

lymphogranuloma venerum

30
Q

What is the life cycle of chlamydia infections?

A
  • elemental body attaches to a specific receptor on the host columnar epithelial cells
  • enters the epithelial cells
  • forms reticulate/initial body (adapted for intracellular replication)
  • replicates by binary fission pf reticulate bodies
  • differentiation back into epithelial bodies
  • release of epithelial body progeny spreads to adjacent cells (infectious)
31
Q

Chlamydia is a _______ diagnosis, where they have a clinical suspicion based on symptoms that the patient is experiencing

A

presumptive

*** however, can also use a positive non culture result, where they use EIA, DFA or nucleic acid detection

32
Q

What is the gold standard definitive diagnosis of chlamydia?

A
  • culture and ID of inclusion bodies

- combination of 2 non culture methods

33
Q

What is the major cause of vaginal candidiasis?

A
  • C. albicans
34
Q

What are the main symptoms of a candidal infection?

A
  • itching
  • erythema
  • discharge
35
Q

Trichomoniasis is a protozoan infection caused by what?

A
  • trichomonas vaginalis
36
Q

What are the clinical signs of a trichomoniasis infection?

A
  • profuse, offensive and hello-green discharge

- can also be asymptomatic

37
Q

What is the treatment of a trichomoniasis infection?

A
  • metronidazole
38
Q

HSV-1 infection is primarily where?

A
  • transmitted by the saliva

- oropharyngeal infections in children - cause cold cores after reactivation

39
Q

HSV-2 infections are a result of what?

A
  • emerged as a result of independent TM via the venereal route
40
Q

Genital herpes is characterized by what? How long do these show up post infection?

A
  • characterized by ulcerating vesicles

- primary lesion appear on the penis/vulva 3-7 days post infection

41
Q

What are other symptoms that can be associated with genital herpes?

A
  • swollen lymph nodes, fever, headache, malaise
42
Q

Healing of genital herpes takes _____

A

2 weeks

43
Q

Describe the process of the viral infection going latent, as well as the process of the virus being reactivated

A
  • Latent: the virus gets in through a lesion, goes into the sensory nerve ending and the latent infection travels in the dorsal root ganglion neurons
  • Reactivation: travel down the same route- recurrent lesions occur and turn into genital cold cores
44
Q

A mother giving birth to an infant while having genital herpes leads to _____

A

neonatal disseminated herpes or encephalitis

45
Q

How is genital herpes diagnosed?

A
  • virus DNA in vesicle fluid or ulcer swabs

- immunofluorescence

46
Q

What is the treatment for genital herpes?

A
  • antivirals

- recurrent infections (troublesome - 6-12 months of low dose antiviral to stop/reduce the frequency of recurrences)

47
Q

Can HPV be grown in a culture?

A

no

48
Q

What is required to determine the presence of HPV?

A
  • cytology secretions (pap smears, koilocytes)

- nucleic acid detection via PCR

49
Q

HPV is a ____ vaccine, with types 6, 11, 16 ad 18

A

quadrivalent

50
Q

Why is HIV considered a retrovirus?

A

because it is a single stranded RNA virus that contains a pol gene that codes for reverse transcriptase

51
Q

HIV is also a slow, or ____, virus

A

lentivirus

52
Q

HIV-1 is separated into 3 groups. What are they?

A
  • M (main) -> A to J
    B most common in NA and Europe, while A and C are most common in Africa
  • N (new)
  • O (outlier)
    both of these are most common in west central africa
53
Q

HIV infected cells with a ___ surface marker

A

CD4

Th cells, for example

54
Q

What allows the entry of the HIV virus into the cell?

A
  • binding of the viral p120 envelope glycoprotein to a CD4 receptor
55
Q

The chemokine co-receptor ____ establishes infection, individuals with this gene have deletions that are resistant

A

CCR5

56
Q

Disease progression in HIV variants are using the ____ receptor

A

CXCR4

57
Q

Viral replication of HIV halts after the integration of the _____, leaving it lying latent in the cell

A

provirus

58
Q

HIV transmission is associated with breastfeeding for up to ____

A

24 months

59
Q

What is the mainstay of treating an HIV infection?

A

HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy)

- combines 2 NRTIs, as well as an NNRTI and a PI drug - seen to have a dramatic effect on the progression of AIDS

60
Q

What are the drawbacks of HAART?

A
  • mitochondrial toxicity and altered fat distribution
  • HIV inhabits CSF and GU tract- unfortunately the drug cannot reach in here- there is a high load in the semen
  • can lead to resistance

Microbiology (16 decks)

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