Upper AND Lower Respiratory Problems Flashcards

1
Q

What are some problems of the nose and paranasal sinuses?

A
  • deviated septum
  • nasal fracture
  • nasal surgery
  • epistaxis
  • allergic rhinitis
  • acute viral rhinopharyngitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is influenza? season? serotypes and most common?

A
  • highly contagious; increased morbidity and mortality
  • peak season: december to february
  • serotypes: A, B, C, D
    – subtypes: H and N antigens (h1 n1)

influenza A: most common and virulent
- mutated viruses; no immunity
- pandemics (worldwide spread)
- epidemics (localized outbreaks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the transmission of influenza?

A
  • infected droplets (droplet precautions)
  • 1 day before onset symptoms- 5-7 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Manifestations of influenza

A
  • abrupt onset
    – 7 days: chills, fever, myalgia, headache, cough, sore throat, fatigue

Complications:
- pneumonia
- ear or sinus infections
- Older adults: weak and lethargic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Diagnostic studies for influenza

A
  • H and P, prevalence in community
  • viral cultures
  • rapid influenza diagnostic tests (RIDTs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Management of inlfuenza

A

Prevention: vaccine
- need annually
- takes 2 weeks for antibody production
- advocate for those greater than 6 months and high risk

Symptom relief and prevent secondary infection
- rest, fluid, antipyretic, analgesia
Antivirals:
- shorten duration of symptoms
- reduce risk of complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is sinusitis?

A
  • inflammation of sinus mucosa; results in blockage and accumulated secretions
  • risk for viral, bacterial, or fungal infection
  • classified as acute, subacute, or chronic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Manifestations of sinusitis (acute vs chronic)

A

Acute:
- pain/tenderness
- purulent drainage
- congestion
- fever
- malaise
- headaches
- halitosis

Chronic:
- facial or dental pain
- congestion
- increased drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Diagnostic studies for sinusitis

A

x-ray, CT scan, nasal endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Management for sinusitis

A

Symptom relief:
- decongestants, corticosteroids, analgesia, saline spray or irrigation
- antibiotics if symptoms greater than 1 week or worsen
Patient/caregiver education:
- rest, hydration, humidifier, warm compresses, HOB elevated, meds as prescribed, no smoking
- reduce exposure to allergens
Write up chronic, persistent or recurrent sinusitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Obstructions of nose and sinuses (natural vs artificial)

A

Nasal polyps: benign growths related to chronic inflammation
- large polyps: obstruction, discharge, speech distortion
- treatment: corticosteroids or endoscopic or laser surgery
Foreign bodies: inorganic or organic
- pain, bleeding, difficulty breathing
- treatment: removal
- common with kids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is acute pharyngitis?

A
  • inflammation of pharyngeal walls; tonsils, palate, uvula
  • cause: viral (90%), bacterial (strep throat), fungal (candidiasis)
    – other: dry air, smoking, GERD, allergy, postnasal drip, ETT, chemicals, cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Manifestations of acute pharyngitis?

A
  • sore throat, red, swollen pharynx
  • classic bacterial:
    – fever greater than 38C
    – cervical lymph node enlargement
    – pharyngeal exudate
    – absent cough
  • fungal: white patches
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are goals to achieve with acute pharyngitis?

A
  • infection control, symptom relief, prevent complications
  • viral: no antibiotics
  • bacterial: antibiotics; penicillin for strep
  • candida: antifungal (swish and swallow)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Management of acute pharyngitis

A
  • analgesia
  • warm sat water gargle
  • nonirritating liquids
  • lozenges
  • humidifier
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are laryngeal polyps?

A
  • benign growth on vocal cords from vocal abuse or irritation
  • most common sign: hoarseness
  • large polyps cause dysphagia, dyspnea, stridor
  • treatment: vocal rest and hydration
    – surgical removal if large or risk of cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is acute laryngitis?

A
  • inflammation of larynx (voice box)
  • causes: virus, URI, overuse of voice, smoke or chemical exposure/inhalation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are classic manifestations of acute laryngitis?

A
  • tingling or burning back of throat
  • need to clear throat
  • hoarseness
  • loss of voice
  • fever
  • cough
  • full feeling in throat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Diagnosis and treatment of acute laryngitis?

A

Diagnosis: history, presentation, changes in voice
Treatment
- limit use of voice; no whispering
- acetaminophen, cough suppressants, lozenges, humidifier, fluids, antibiotics if bacterial
- no caffeine, alcohol, or smoking
- see HCP if last greater than 3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Airway obstruction

A

medical emergency; can be partial or complete
Manifestations:
- choking, stridor
- use of accessory muscles
- suprasternal and intercostal retractions
- nasal flaring
- wheezing
- restlessness
- tachycardia
- cyanosis
- change in LOC
Immediate assessment and treatment
Interventions to establish patent airway
- heimlich maneuver
- cricothyroidectomy
- ET intubation
- tracheostomy
- partial or recurrent symptoms: chest x-ray, laryngoscopy, bronchoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a tracheostomy?

A

Surgically created stoma (opening) to:
- establish a patent airway
- bypass an upper airway obstruction
- facilitate secretion removal
- permit long-term mechanical ventilation
- facilitate weaning from mechanical ventilation

can be emergently done, OR, or at bedside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Advantages of tracheostomy

A
  • Easier to keep clean
  • Better oral and bronchial hygiene
  • Patient comfort increased
  • Less risk of long-term damage to vocal cords
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tracheostomy Nursing Management: acute care

A

Explain the purpose of procedure
Prepare for:
- Surgery in OR
- Bedside insertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tracheostomy nursing management: bedside insertion

A

Include respiratory therapist
Emergency equipment available
- Bag-valve-mask (BVM)
Record vital signs and SpO2
Ensure existing IV is patent
Assess bedside suction
Position patient supine
Administer analgesia and/or sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Tracheostomy nursing management: postprocedure care

A

Obturator removed (keep at bedside)
Cuff (balloon) is inflated
Confirm placement:
- Auscultate for air entry; end tidal CO2 capnography; passage of suction catheter
- Chest x-ray
Tracheostomy sutured in place and secured
Monitor VS, SpO2, and mechanical ventilator settings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Other tracheostomy nursing management

A

Monitor for complications
- *Bleeding, airway obstruction, infection
Assess site and patency at least every shift
Monitor cuff inflation pressure: 20 to 25 cm H2O
- Minimal occlusion volume
Suction PRN
Humidified air—thins secretions; reduces mucous plugs
Tracheostomy care per agency policy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Preventing dislodgement: tracheostomy nursing care

A

Watch when turning and repositioning
Keep replacement tube of equal and/or smaller size at bedside
Do not change tracheostomy tapes (ties) for at least 24 hours after placement
HCP performs first tube change but not sooner than 7 days after placement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Accidental dislodgement: tracheostomy nursing management

A

Call for help; know institution policies and procedures and your scope of practice
Assess for respiratory distress, if present:
- Insert hemostat in opening and spread; insert obturator in spare tracheostomy tube, lubricate and insert; remove obturator; OR
- Insert suction catheter; thread tracheostomy tube over catheter, then remove suction catheter
- If can’t insert new trach tube; cover stoma with sterile gauze and ventilate with BVM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Chronic care of tracheostomy: teaching patient or caregiver to…

A
  • Observe tracheostomy site for signs and symptoms of infection
  • Perform tracheostomy care
    – Clean inner cannula
    – Suction
    – Change tracheostomy tapes
  • Tube should be changed monthly after 1st tube change then every 1 to 3 months.
    – Clean technique is used at home
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Swallowing dysfunction with tracheostomy

A
  • Tracheostomy with inflated cuff interferes with normal function of muscles used to swallow
  • Speech therapist—clinical assessment for swallowing and aspiration risk
    – Fluoroscopy or endoscopy evaluation
  • If no risk for aspiration, leave cuff deflated or replace with a uncuffed tube
  • Thickened liquids or soft foods may be allowed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Speech/communication with a patient with a tracheostomy tube

A

Provide patient with writing tools if speaking devices are not used.
- Paper and pencil
- White board
- Cell phone (text)
- Magic slate
- Picture board
- Visual alphabet
- Text to speech applications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Techniques to promote speech with a tracheostomy tube

A
  • Spontaneously breathing patient
    – Remove inner cannula, may deflate cuff, and place a cap on tube; allows exhaled air to flow over vocal cords
  • Fenestrated tracheostomy tubes
  • Speaking valves
    – Passy-Muir

mostly seen with people who have had trachs put in for accident or cancer, accident and recovered - it can be reversed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a fenestrated tracheostomy tube?

A
  • Air passes from lungs through opening in tracheostomy into upper airway
  • Must not be at risk for aspiration
  • Remove inner cannula, deflate cuff, and place cap on tube
  • Assess patient for any respiratory distress

so they can speak; more with chronic patients A&O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pigtail tubings for speaking tracheostomy

A

Two pigtail tubings
- One connects to cuff for inflation
- Other connects to opening just above cuff
- When second tube is connected to low-flow air source, this permits speech
Can be used on patients at risk for aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is decannulation with a tracheostomy? Criteria?

A

Removal of tracheostomy tube from trachea
- Epithelial tissue forms in 24 to 48 hours; opening closes in 4 to 5 days

Criteria for patient:
- Hemodynamically stable
- Stable intact respiratory drive
- Adequately exchanges air
- Independently expectorates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What should you do prior to decannulation of tracheostomy?

A
  • Explain procedure
  • Monitor VS
  • Suction tracheostomy and mouth
  • Remove tapes/ties
  • Remove sutures
  • Deflate cuff
  • Remove in smooth motion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What should you do after removal of decannulation of a tracheostomy?

A
  • Apply sterile occlusive dressing
  • Monitor for bleeding
  • Monitor respiratory status
  • Apply alternate O2 device
  • Patient education: splint stoma with coughing, swallowing, or speaking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are risk factors of head and neck cancer?

A

Etiology: smoking (85%)
Age: most over age 50
Risk factors:
- HPV,
- excess alcohol,
- exposure to: sun, asbestos, industrial carcinogens, marijuana, radiation to head and neck, and poor oral hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Structures involved in head and neck cancer?

A

Structures includes: nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, oral cavity, and/or salivary glands
- Squamous cells in mucosal surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are manifestations of head and neck cancer?

A

(vary with location)
- lump in throat or sore throat (pharyngeal)
- white or red patches
- change in voice
- hoarseness greater than 2 weeks (laryngeal)
Other manifestations:
- ear pain
- ringing in ears
- swelling or lump in neck
- constant cough
- cough up blood
- swelling in jaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Late signs of head and neck cancer

A
  • unintentional weight loss
  • diffculty chewing, swallowing, moving tongue or jaw or breathing
  • airway obstruction (partial or full)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is TMN for staging of head and neck cancer?

A

T - tumor
M - metastasis
N - nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Interprofessional care for head and neck cancer

A
  • Radiation therapy: External beam or internal implants
  • Chemotherapy and targeted therapy
    – Used in combination with radiation for stages III or IV
  • Nutritional therapy:
    – Concerns with swallowing after surgery, side effects of chemotherapy and/or radiation, oral mucositis; gastrostomy tube and enteral feedings; assess tolerance, weight, and risk of aspiration
  • Physical therapy
    – Strengthen, support, and move upper extremities, head, and neck to avoid limited ROM; continue after discharge
  • Speech therapy
    – Preoperative: effect of therapy on voice and potential adaptations or restoration; support groups
    – Postoperative restoration: electrolarynx, *transesophageal puncture (Blom-Singer prosthesis) esophageal speech
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Nursing diagnoses for head and neck cancer

A
  • impaired airway clearance
  • risk for aspiration
  • difficulty coping
  • impaired communication

Planning - goals:
- Patent airway, no spread of cancer, no complications from therapy; adequate nutritional intake, minimal to no pain, able to communicate, acceptable body image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Nursing implementations for head and neck cancer

A

Radiation therapy
- Dry Mouth (xerostomia)
- Oral mucositis
- Skin care
- Fatigue
Stoma care
Psychosocial needs
- Depression, body image, sexuality

Preoperatively: physical and psychosocial needs; assess knowledge and understanding; how to communicate post-operatively
Postoperatively: airway management, VS, bleeding, wound/drain care, skin flaps, NGT, nutrition, communication, psychosocial issues, pain control, trach care and suction, fluids, and hydration

Ambulatory care: Patient and caregiver education
- Tracheostomy care and suctioning, stoma and skin care, NGT, enteral feedings
- Medic Alert—neck breather
- Safety—smoke and CO detectors (loss of smell)
- Resume exercise, recreation, sexual activity, employment when able

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is acute bronchitis?

A
  • self-limiting inflammation of bronchi; most caused by viruses
  • other triggers: pollution, chemical inhalation, smoking, chronic sinusitis, asthma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Symptoms of acute bronchitis?

A
  • cough
  • clear/purulent sputum
  • headache
  • fever
  • malaise
  • dyspnea
  • chest pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Diagnosis and treatment of acute bronchitis

A

Diagnosis: based on assessment
- breath sounds: crackles or wheezes
Treatment goal: symptom relief and prevent pneumonia, supportive
- Cough suppressants, oral fluids, humidifier
- Beta2-agonist inhaler—wheezing or underlying pulmonary condition
- Avoid irritants
- Influenza—antivirals within 48 hours
- See HCP: fever, dyspnea, or duration greater than 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is pertussis?

A

Bordetella pertussis
- Gram-negative bacteria attach to cilia, release toxins results in inflammation
Highly contagious; increased incidence in United States
- Immunity from DPT decreases over time
- CDC recommends a one-time vaccine for adolescents (greater than 11+ years) and adults who did not have Tdap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the manifestations of pertussis (has three stages)?

A
  • Stage 1 (1 to 2 weeks): low-grade fever, runny nose, watery eyes, general malaise, and mild, nonproductive cough
  • Stage 2 (2 to 10 weeks): paroxysms of cough
  • Stage 3 (2 to 3 weeks): less severe cough, weak

Hallmark characteristic: uncontrollable, violent, cough with “whooping’ sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is pneumonia?

A
  • acute infection of lung parenchyma
  • associated with significant morbidity and mortality rates
  • three ways organisms reach lungs:
    – Aspiration of normal flora from nasopharynx or oropharynx
    – Inhalation of microbes present in air
    – Hematogenous spread from primary infection elsewhere in body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the classifications of pneumonia?

A

May be classified according to causative organism, characteristics of disease, or radiographic appearance

Can be community-acquired (CAP) or hospital-acquired (HAP)

53
Q

Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)

A
  • Acute infection in patients who have not been hospitalized or resided in a long-term care facility within 14 days of the onset of symptoms
  • Can be treated at home or hospitalized dependent on patient’s age, VS, mental status, comorbidities, and condition
54
Q

Types of pneumonia

A

viral: most common (can be mild or life-threatening)
bacterial: may require hospitalization
mycoplasma: atypical
aspiration
necrotizing
opportunistic

55
Q

Manifestations and physical examination of pneumonia

A

Most common
- cough: productive or nonproductive
- green, yellow, or rust-colored sputum
- fever, chills
- dyspnea, tachypnea
- pleuritic chest pain
- older or debilitated patients: confusion, stupor, hypothermia

Physical examination
- fine or coarse crackles
- with consolidation:
– bronchial breath sounds
– egophony
– increased fremitus
- with pleural effusion:
– dullness to percussion

56
Q

Complications of pneumonia

A

Multidrug-resistant (MDR) pathogens—major problem in treatment

Atelectasis
Pleurisy
Pleural effusion
Bacteremia
Pneumothorax
Acute respiratory failure
Sepsis/septic shock
Lung abscess
Empyema

Risk factors:
- advanced age
- immunosuppression
- history of antibiotic use
- prolonged mechanical ventilation

57
Q

Diagnostic studies for pneumonia

A
  • history and physical exam
  • chest x-ray
  • thoracentesis and/or bronchoscopy
  • pulse oximetry
  • ABGs
  • sputum gram stain, culture, sensitivity
    – ideally before antibiotics
  • blood cultures
  • CBC with differential
58
Q

Interprofessional, preventative, and supportive care for pneumonia

A

Preventative:
- Pneumococcal vaccines (Table 27-5)
- Prevent Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Examples: Prevnar 13 and Pneumovax 23

Supportive care:
- Oxygen for hypoxemia
- Analgesics for chest pain
- Antipyretics for fever
- Adjuvant drugs
- Individualize rest and activity

Treatment:
- Response generally occurs within 48 to 72 hours
– Decreased temperature
– Improved breathing
– Decreased Chest discomfort
- Repeat chest x-ray in 6 to 8 weeks
- Viral pneumonia—no definitive treatment
– Antivirals: influenza and herpes

59
Q

Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) drug therapy

A

Initial empiric therapy
- Gram-negative and gram-positive organisms
- Likely infecting organism (Table 27-2) and risk factors for MDR organisms; varies with local and institutional prevalence and resistance patterns
- Should see improvement in 3 to 5 days or need to reevaluate
- Antibiotics: IV, proceed to oral when stable; at least 5 days; afebrile 48 to 72 hours

60
Q

Nutritional therapy for pneumonia

A

small, frequent, high calorie, nutritious meals; monitor weight

adequate hydration; monitor intake
- prevent dehydration
- thin and loosen secretions
- adjust for older adults, patients with heart failure, or those with preexisting respiratory conditions

61
Q

Nursing diagnoses for pneumonia

A
  • impaired gas exchange
  • impaired breathing
  • fluid balance
  • hyperthermia
  • activity intolerance
62
Q

Pneumonia nursing process: Planning (goals) and implementation

A

Goals:
- clear breath sounds
- normal breathing patterns
- no signs of hypoxia
- normal chest x-ray
- normal WBC count

Implementation
- health promotion
- monitor assessment parameters, provide treatment, monitor response
- prevent aspiration pneumonia
- medical asepsis and infection control

63
Q

Patient teaching for home care of pneumonia

A
  • Emphasize need to take full course of antibiotics
  • Drug-drug and drug-food interactions
  • Adequate rest
  • Adequate hydration
  • Avoid alcohol and smoking
  • Cool mist humidifier or warm bath
  • Chest x-ray, vaccinations
  • Takes several weeks (or more) to recover
64
Q

Expected outcomes in evaluation step of nursing process for pneumonia (addressing goals)

A
  • effective respiratory rate, rhythm, and depth of respirations
  • lungs clear to auscultation
  • absence of infection
65
Q

What is tuberculosis (TB)?

A
  • Infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Lungs most commonly infected
  • 1/3 of world’s population has TB
  • Prevalence in the United States decreasing
66
Q

What populations are at risk for tuberculosis (TB)?

A

Poor, underserved, and minorities
- Homeless
- Residents of inner-city neighborhoods
- Foreign-born persons
- Living or working in institutions
- IV injecting drug users
- Overcrowded living conditions
- Poverty, poor access to health care
- Immunosuppression

67
Q

Etiology and pathophysiology of TB

A
  • Gram-positive, aerobic, acid-fast bacillus (AFB)
  • Spread via airborne droplets, 1 to 5 m
    – Can be suspended in air for minutes to hours
  • Transmission requires close, frequent, or prolonged exposure
    – NOT spread by touching, sharing food utensils, kissing, or other physical contact
    – Number, concentration, length of time for exposure and immunity influence transmission

Once inhaled, droplets lodge in bronchioles and alveoli
Local inflammatory reaction occurs
Only 5% to 10% of people with dormant TB will develop active TB; may take months or years

68
Q

Classes for tuberculosis

A

0 = No TB exposure
1 = Exposure, no infection
2 = Latent TB, no disease
3 = TB, clinically active
4 = TB, not clinically active
5 = TB suspect

69
Q

Manifestations of pulmonary TB

A
  • Takes 2 to 3 weeks to develop symptoms
  • Characteristic initial: dry cough that becomes productive
  • Other symptoms: fatigue, malaise, anorexia, weight loss, low-grade fever, night sweats
  • Late: dyspnea and hemoptysis
  • Acute, sudden presentation of TB
  • High fever
  • Chills, generalized flulike symptoms
  • Pleuritic pain
  • Productive cough
  • Crackles and/or adventitious breath sounds

Complications:
- large numbers of organisms spread via bloodstream to distant organs

70
Q

Diagnostic studies for TB

A
  • tuberculin skin test (TST)
    – mantoux test
  • INF-gamma release assays (IGRAs): screening tool
  • chest x-ray
  • bacteriologic studies
71
Q

Drug therapy for TB (two phases)

A

Aggressive drug therapy used to treat active disease and prevent MDR-TB; monitor adherence

  • Active TB disease
  • Two phases of treatment:
    – Initial (8 weeks to 3 months): 4 drugs (below)
    – Continuation (18 weeks): 2 drugs (isoniazid and rifampin)
  • Initial 4-drug regimen:
    – Isoniazid (hepatitis)
    – Rifampin (hepatitis; orange body fluids)
    — always asked about on boards; will turn urine orange
    – Pyrazinamide (hepatitis)
    – Ethambutol (ocular toxicity)
72
Q

Nursing diagnoses for TB

A
  • impaired breathing
  • impaired airway clearance
  • risk for infection
  • lack of knowledge
73
Q

Nursing planning - goals for TB

A
  • have normal pulmonary function
  • adhere with therapeutic regimen
  • take appropriate measures to prevent spread of disease
  • have no recurrence of disease
74
Q

Nursing implementation and evaluation for TB

A
  • Health promotion
  • Acute Care
  • Teach patient to prevent spread
    – Cover nose and mouth with tissue when coughing, sneezing, or producing sputum; dispose in trash or flush
    – Hand washing after handling sputum-soiled tissues
  • Patient wears face mask if outside of negative-pressure room
  • Identify and screen close contacts
  • Ambulatory care
  • Evaluation
    – Expected outcomes

airborne precautions, negative-pressure room

75
Q

What are environmental lung diseases?

A
  • environmental or occupational inhalation of dust or chemicals
  • lung damage depends on:
    – toxicity
    – amount and duration of exposure
    – susceptibility of individual
76
Q

What is lung cancer?

A
  • leading cause of cancer-related deaths in US
  • high mortality rate, low cure rate
  • advances in treatment improving response

Primary 2 subtypes:
- Non–small-cell lung cancer (NSCLC); 85%
- Small-cell lung cancer (SCLC); 15%

77
Q

Causes of lung cancer

A
  • smoking
  • pollution
  • radiation/radon
  • asbestos
  • industrial agents (nickel, uranium, chromium, formaldehyde, arsenic)
78
Q

Metastasis and common sites for lung cancer

A

Metastasis: direct extension; blood and lymph system
Common sites: lymph nodes, liver, brain, bones, and adrenal glands

79
Q

Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer (NSCLC)

A

Squamous cell carcinoma
- Slow growing
- Early symptoms: cough and hemoptysis
Adenocarcinoma
- Moderate growing
- Most common in nonsmokers
Large-cell carcinoma
- Rapid growing
- Highly metastatic

80
Q

Small-Cell Lung Cancer (SMLC)

A
  • very rapid growth
  • most malignant
  • early metastasis
  • associated endocrine disorders
  • chemotherapy and radiation
  • poor prognosis
81
Q

Manifestations of lung cancer

A
  • symptoms nonspecific and appear late in disease
  • may be masked by chronic cough
  • depend on type of primary lung cancer, location, and metastatic spread
  • persistent cough with sputum (most common)
  • hemoptysis
  • dyspnea
  • wheezing
  • chest pain
82
Q

Later manifestations of lung cancer

A
  • Anorexia, nausea/vomiting, fatigue, weight loss
  • Hoarseness
  • Unilateral paralysis of diaphragm
  • Dysphagia
  • Superior vena cava obstruction
  • Palpable lymph nodes
  • Mediastinal/cardiac involvement
83
Q

TNM system for staging of lung cancer

A
  • T denotes tumor size, location, and degree of invasion
  • N indicates regional lymph node invasion
  • M represents presence/absence of distant metastases
84
Q

Diagnostic studies for lung cancer

A
  • chest x-ray
  • CT scan
  • sputum cytology
  • lung biopsy (definitive diagnosis)
  • pleural fluid analysis
  • metastasis: bone and CT scans: brain, abdomen, pelvis
  • H&P
  • CBC with differential
  • chemistry panel
  • liver, renal, and pulmonary function tests
  • MRI
85
Q

Screening for lung cancer

A
  • annually in adults ages 55-77 with a history of smoking
    – 30 pack-year history
    – current smoker
    – quit less than 15 years ago
  • completed with low dose CT
86
Q

Interprofessional care for lung cancer

A
  • surgical care
  • radiation therapy
  • stereotactic body radiotherapy (SBRT)
  • chemotherapy
  • targeted therapy
  • immunotherapy
87
Q

Nursing management for lung cancer

A
  • Assess patient’s and family’s understanding of current medical condition, diagnostic tests, diagnosis, treatment options, and prognosis
  • Patient’s level of anxiety
  • Support systems
  • Subjective
  • Objective
88
Q

Nursing diagnoses for lung cancer

A
  • impaired airway clearance
  • impaired breathing
  • impaired gas exchange
  • anxiety
89
Q

Planning goals for lung care

A
  • adequate airway clearance
  • effective breathing patterns
  • adequate oxygenation of tissues
  • minimal to no discomfort
  • realistic outlook about treatment and prognosis
90
Q

What is chest trauma?

A
  • traumatic injuries to chest contribute to many traumatic deaths
  • range of injuries: simple rib fractures to cardiorespiratory arrest
  • emergency management (respiratory distress, CV compromise, ABCs, oxygen, 2 large bore IVs)
91
Q

What are fractured ribs? Manifestations?

A
  • caused by blunt trauma
  • most common with ribs 5-9
    – can damage pleura, lungs, heart and other internal organs

Manifestations:
- pain with inspiration and coughing
- splinting
- shallow respirations

Complications (atelectasis, pneumonia)
Treatment (pain)

92
Q

What is flail chest?

A
  • three or more consecutive fractured ribs in 2 or more places; or fractured sternum and several consecutive ribs
  • causes unstable chest wall and paradoxical movement with breathing
    flail segment moves opposite
    – inspiration: sucks in
    – expiration: bulges out
    – inadequate ventilation, increased work of breathing
93
Q

What is a pneumothorax?

A
  • caused by air entering pleural cavity
  • positive pressure in pleural space causes lung to partially or fully collapse
  • increased air in pleural space equals reduced lung volume
    – open: opening in chest wall
    – penetrating trauma: sucking chest wound
    – closed: no external wound

suspect pneumothorax with chest wall trauma

94
Q

Manifestations of pneumothorax

A

Small pneumothorax: mild tachycardia and dyspnea
Large pneumothorax:
- respiratory distress
- absent breath sounds over affected area

Diagnostic study: chest x-ray

95
Q

Types of pneumothorax

A
  • spontaneous: rupture of blebs (me)
  • iatrogenic: medical procedures
  • tension: accumulation of air in pleural space that cannot escape; medical emergency
  • hemothorax: blood in pleural space
  • hemopneumothorax
  • chylothorax: lymphatic fluid in pleural space
96
Q

Treatment of pneumothorax

A
  • Dependent on severity, underlying cause and hemodynamic stability
  • Emergency treatment—Cover wound with dressing secured on 3 sides
  • Treatments
    – *Chest tubes with water-seal drainage
    – Other: partial pleurectomy, stapling, or pleurodesis
  • Tension pneumothorax
    – Needle decompression— immediate
    – Chest tube and water-seal drainage
97
Q

Chest tubes and pleural drainage

A

chest tubes drain pleural space
reestablish negative pressure
allow lung to expand
- 20 inches long
- 12 to 40 F
– small: air
– medium: fluid
– large: blood
- pigtail tubes (10-14F)

98
Q

What is a flutter/heimlich valve?

A
  • Removes air from pleural space
    – Small to moderate-sized pneumothorax
  • Rigid plastic tube with one-way rubber valve inside
  • Attached to external end of chest tube
  • Two nozzles
    – Inlet nozzle: allows air to pass in the valve through chest drainage tube
    – Outlet nozzle—air passes to environment or colleting device during expiration
99
Q

Pleural drainage system: three basic compartments

A

Collection device for fluid, air, or blood from chest cavity

Three basic compartments
- 1st compartment or collection chamber
– Fluid stays in; air vents to 2nd compartment
- 2nd compartment or water-seal chamber
– Contains 2 cm of water; acts as one-way valve; air goes in, bubbles out, but can’t go back to patient
- 3rd compartment or suction control chamber
– Uses column of water to control suction from regulator

Bubbling in water-seal chamber
- Brisk at first, eventually disappears as lung expands
- Intermittent with exhalation, coughing, or sneezing
Tidaling in water-seal chamber
- Fluctuation of water with pressure changes during respiration
- Disappears as lung re-expands
- If stops suddenly, check for occlusion

Suction control chamber
- Wet suction
– Amount of water in chamber (20 cm) controls suction
– Excess suction from source vented
– Usual suction order = −20 cm H2O
– Adjust suction until gentle bubbling in third chamber
- Dry suction—no water (less noise)
– Dial regulator to pressure; visual alert

100
Q

Nursing management: chest drainage (set-up, insertion, drainage system)

A

Set-up and Insertion
- Consent/Aware of procedure
- Gather and set-up equipment as per order
Drainage system
- Keep tubing loosely coiled
- Keep connections tight; taped
- Observe: tidaling, bubbling, air leak, fluid levels

Chest drainage
- Keep below chest
- Mark and measure drainage
- Report greater than 200 mL/hr in first hour and 100 mL/hr thereafter; replace unit when full
- Avoid overturning unit
- Breakage of unit
– Place distal end of chest tube in 2 cm water in sterile container; replace unit
- No milking or stripping chest tubes

Wet suction chest drainage
Monitor:
Water levels
Suction at—20 cm H2O
Gentle bubbling
Dry suction chest drainage
Turn dial to ordered amount
If decrease suction; depress high-negativity vent and check water level in water-seal chamber

101
Q

What to assess and encourage patient to do with a chest tube?

A

Assess:
- Vital signs, lung sounds, pain
- Drainage amount
- Drainage site infection
- Subcutaneous emphysema
Encourage:
- Deep breathing/Incentive spirometry
- Range-of-motion exercises

102
Q

Nursing management: chest tube dressings

A
  • Change according to agency policy and procedure
    – Petroleum gauze
  • Aseptic technique
  • Monitor for infection
  • Document
103
Q

Nursing management: clamping chest tubes and monitoring for complications

A

Clamping chest tubes
- Not advocated during transport or disconnection due to risk for tension pneumothorax
- May clamp briefly to change drainage unit
Monitor for Complications
- Reexpansion pulmonary edema
- Hypotension
- Severe subcutaneous emphysema

104
Q

Removal of chest tubes

A
  • When lungs reexpanded and drainage minimal
  • Premedicate prior to removal
  • Valsalva maneuver during removal
  • Apply occlusive dressing
  • Chest x-ray
  • Monitor for respiratory distress
105
Q

What is a thoracentesis

A

Aspiration of intrapleural fluid for diagnosis and treatment
- 1000 to 1200 mL
- Larger volumes result in hypotension, hypoxemia, re-expansion pulmonary edema
- Chest x-ray: pneumothorax
- Monitor VS, pulse ox, and respiratory distress

106
Q

What are restrictive respiratory disorders?

A

Disorders that impair movement of the chest wall and diaphragm
Three categories:
- Extrapulmonary—Lung tissue normal but caused by CNS, neuro-muscular or chest wall disorders
- Intrapulmonary— Abnormal pleural or lung tissue disorders
Hallmark characteristic: reduced forced expiratory volume (FEV1) on PFTs

107
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

Collapsed, airless alveoli
- Decreased or absent breath sounds
- Dullness on percussion
- Caused by: secretions obstructing small airways
- At risk: bedridden and postop abdominal and chest surgery patients
- Prevention and treatment:
– Deep breathing exercises, incentive spirometry, early mobility

108
Q

What is pleurisy?

A

Inflammation of the pleura
Etiology: infection, cancer, autoimmune disorders, chest trauma, GI disease, and some medications
Manifestations
- Pain—sharp, worse with inspiration
- Breathing shallow—reduced movement
- Pleural friction rub—peak of inspiration
Treatment—underlying cause and pain management

109
Q

What is empyema?

A

purulent fluid in pleural space

110
Q

What is pleural effusion?

A

Abnormal amount of fluid in pleural space; sign of disease
Caused by: increased pulmonary capillary pressure, decreased oncotic pressure, increased pleural membrane permeability, or lymph flow obstruction
Types: (depend on protein content)
- Transudative—noninflammatory diseases
- Exudative—inflammatory diseases
- Empyema—purulent fluid in pleural space
– Antibiotics and/or drainage or other procedures

111
Q

Manifestations of pleural effusion

A
  • Dyspnea, cough, sharp chest pain
  • Decreased chest movement; dullness, decreased breath sounds on affected side
  • Chest x-ray and CT—location and volume
  • Empyema: above manifestation and fever, night sweats, cough, weight loss
112
Q

What is interstitial lung disease (ILD)?

A

Diffuse parenchymal lung disease
- Greater than 200 disorders caused by inflammation or scarring (fibrosis) between air sacs
- Two most common:
– Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
– Sarcoidosis
- Treatment—reduce exposure or treat underlying disease
– Corticosteroids, immunosuppressants; transplant

113
Q

What is idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Chronic, progressive disorder; chronic inflammation and scar tissue in connective tissue; poor prognosis
Risk factors: smoking; wood & metal dust
Manifestations: exertional dyspnea; dry, nonproductive cough, clubbing, crackles
Progression: weakness, anorexia, weight loss
Diagnostic Studies:
- PFTs: reduced vital capacity and impaired gas exchange
- * Open lung biopsy (VATS)—“gold standard”

114
Q

Treatment and survival of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

Treatment
-Corticosteroids and other immune suppressants
- Kinase inhibitor drugs
- Oxygen
- Pulmonary rehabilitation
- Lung transplant
5 year survival—30s% to 50% after diagnosis

115
Q

What is sarcoidosis

A

Chronic, granulomatous disease
- Primary affect on lungs
Dyspnea, cough, chest pain
Other: skin, eyes, liver, kidney, heart, lymph nodes
At risk: blacks and family history
Treatment—suppress inflammation
Follow 3 to 6 months: PFTs, chest x-ray, and CT scan for progression

116
Q

What is pulmonary edema?

A

Abnormal accumulation of fluid in alveoli and interstitial spaces
- Complication of heart and lung diseases
- Most common cause: left-sided HF

117
Q

What is a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A

Etiology and Pathophysiology
- Blockage of one or more pulmonary arteries by thrombus, fat or air embolus, or tumor tissue
- Clot in venous system into pulmonary circulation then lodges in small blood vessel and obstructs alveolar perfusion
- Most often affects lower lobes

118
Q

Risk factors for PE

A
  • immobility or reduced mobility
  • surgery within 3 months (especially pelvic and lower extremity)
  • history of VTE
  • cancer
  • obesity
  • oral contraceptives/hormone therapy
  • smoking
  • prolonged air travel
  • heart failure
  • pregnancy
  • clotting disorders
119
Q

Manifestations and complications of PE

A

Manifestations
- Depend on type, size, and extent of emboli
- Dyspnea most common (85%); mild-moderate hypoxemia
- Other: tachypnea, cough, chest pain, hemoptysis, crackles, wheezing, fever, tachycardia, syncope, pulmonic heart sound
- Massive PE: change in mental status, hypotension, impending doom, death
Complications
- Pulmonary infarction
- Pulmonary hypertension

120
Q

Diagnostic studies for PE

A
  • D-dimer
  • spiral (helical) CT scan/ CT angiography (CTA)
  • ventilation-perfusion scan (V/Q)

important but not diagnostic:
- ABG
- chest x-ray
- EKG
- troponin levels
- BNP

121
Q

Goals of treatment for PE

A

Adequate tissue perfusion and respiratory function
Prevent:
- Further growth or extension of lower extremity thrombi
- Prevent embolization from upper or lower extremities to pulmonary vascular system
- Prevent further recurrence of PE
Support cardiopulmonary status
- Oxygen: intubation/mechanical ventilation
- Pulmonary hygiene: prevent atelectasis
- Shock: fluids, vasopressors
- HF: diuretics
- Pain: opioids

122
Q

Drug therapy for PE

A

Anticoagulation - immediate
- Low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH)
- Unfractionated IV heparin
- Warfarin (Coumadin) or alternative—admission: 3 months (or longer)
Fibrinolytic agents—dissolve clot
- Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
- Alteplase (Activase)

123
Q

Nursing management for PE: prevention and immediate treatment

A

Prevention
- Intermittent pneumatic compression devices
- Early ambulation
- Anticoagulation
Immediate treatment
- Bed rest in semi-fowler’s position
- Assess cardiopulmonary status
- Administer: oxygen, IV fluids and medications
- Monitor: coagulation and complications

124
Q

Nursing management for PE: patient support and education

A

Patient support
- Anxiety, pain, dyspnea, fear of death
Patient education
- Regarding long-term anticoagulant therapy
- Measures to prevent VTE
- Importance of follow-up exams

125
Q

What is pulmonary hypertension?

A

Elevated pulmonary artery pressure due to an increase in resistance to blood flow through the pulmonary circulation.
Mean pulmonary artery pressures
- Normal 12 to16 mm Hg
- Greater than 25 mm Hg at rest
- Greater than 30 mm Hg with exercises
May be primary disease or secondary complication

126
Q

What is Cor Pulmonale

A

Enlarged right ventricle secondary to disorder of respiratory system; COPD
- Pulmonary hypertension preexists; HF

127
Q

What are manifestations of cor pulmonale?

A
  • Exertional dyspnea, tachypnea, cough, fatigue, RV hypertrophy (ECG), increased intensity in S2 heart sound, polycythemia
  • HF: peripheral edema, weight gain, distended neck veins, full, bounding pulse, enlarged liver
128
Q

Treatment for cor pulmonale

A

Early identification before irreversible heart changes
- Determine and treat underlying cause
Long-term oxygen
Other individualized therapies

129
Q

Lung transplantation

A

Option for end-stage lung disease
- Treat diseases: COPD, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, cystic fibrosis, IPAH, alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency
Preoperative Care
- Evaluation
- Contraindications
- Able to adhere and cope with postoperative regimen
United Network for Organ Sharing (UNOS)
- Lung Allocation Score (LAS)