Updated - INFO 310 FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

Protection of Assets, Prevention Detection, and Recovery

A

Goal of Cybersecurity

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2
Q

confidentiality, Integrity, Availability.

A

CIA

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3
Q

the concealment of information or resources

A

Confidentiality (CIA)

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4
Q

the trustworthiness of data or resources

A

Integrity (CIA)

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5
Q

the ability to use information or resources

A

Availability (CIA)

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6
Q

Deception, Disruption, Disclosure, Usurpation

A

Categories of Threats

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7
Q

The acceptance of false data

A

Deception (Category of threat)

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8
Q

the interruption or prevention of correct operation

A

Disruption (Category of threat)

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9
Q

The unauthorized access to information

A

Disclosure (Category of threat)

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10
Q

the unauthorized control of some part of a system

A

Usurpation (Category of threat)

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11
Q

the unauthorized interception of information, is a form of disclosure

A

Snooping or eavesdropping (Type of threat)

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12
Q

an unauthorized change of information is a form of usurpation, deception, and disclosure.

A

Modification or alteration (Type of threat)

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13
Q

an impersonation of one entity by another, is a form of both deception and usurpation.

A

Masquerading or spoofing (Type of threat)

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14
Q

a false denial that an entity sent (or created) something, is a form of deception.

A

Repudiation of origin

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15
Q

a false denial that an entity received some information or mes- sage, is a form of deception

A

Denial of receipt

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16
Q

a temporary inhibition of a service, is a form of usurpation, al- though it can play a supporting role in deception.

A

Delay

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17
Q

a long-term inhibition of service, is a form of usurpation often also used as a mechanism of deception.

A

Denial of service

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18
Q

Asset, Threat, Vulnerability, Risk

A

The Core of Cybersecurity

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19
Q

People, property, and information of value

A

Asset

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20
Q

Anything that can exploit a vulnerability, intentionally or acciden- tally, and obtain, damage, or destroy an asset.

A

Threat

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21
Q

Weaknesses or gaps in a security program that can be exploited by threats to gain unauthorized access to an asset.

A

Vulnerability

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22
Q

The potential for loss, damage or destruction of an asset as a result of a threat exploiting a vulnerability.

A

Risk

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23
Q

Asset + Threat + Vulnerability = Risk.

A

Formula for calculating risk

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24
Q

Any cipher based on substitution, using multiple substitution alphabets.

A

Polyalphabetic Ciphers

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25
Q

message wrapped around a rod of a certain size then can be read.

A

Scytale Encryption

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26
Q

A method of encryption by which the positions held by units of plaintext […] are shifted according to a regular system, so that the ciphertext constitutes a permutation of the plaintext.

A

Transposition Ciphers

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27
Q

The study of the frequency of letters or groups of letters in a ciphertext. The method is used as an aid to breaking classical ciphers.

A

Frequency Analysis

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28
Q

s the art or better yet, science, of skillfully maneuvering human beings to take action in some aspect of their lives.

A

Social Engineering

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29
Q

The practice of sending emails appearing to be from reputable sources with the goal of influencing or gaining personal information.

A

Phishing (SE)

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30
Q

The practice of eliciting information or attempting to influence action via the telephone, may include such tools as phone spoofing.

A

Vishing (SE)

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31
Q

The practice of pretexting as another person with the goal of obtaining information or access to a person, company, or computer system

A

Impersonation (SE)

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32
Q

· Ensures Authentication · Ensures Non-Repudiation · Ensures Confidentiality · Ensures Integrity

A

Properties of encryption

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33
Q

Uses a single key for both encryption and decryption

A

Secret Key Cryptography (SKC) (AKA Symmetric Encryption)

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34
Q

Uses one key for encryption and another for decryption

A

Public Key Cryptography (PKC) (AKA Asymmetric Encryption)

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35
Q

Uses a mathematical transformation to create a digital fingerprint or message digest

A

Hash Functions (AKA Checksum)

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36
Q

Physical, Link, Network, Transport, and Application

A

The Layers of the Internet Protocol Model

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37
Q

Wire, open air, optic fibers

A

Physical layer IPM

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38
Q

Ethernet, Wifi, 4G

A

Link layer IPM

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39
Q

Internet protocol, inter control ICMP (nter Control Messaging Protocol)

A

Network layer IPM

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40
Q

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

A

Transport Layer (IPM)

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41
Q

Email > Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) - Websites
>
HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) -
File Sharing
>
File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
>
Server Message Block (smb)

A

Application Layer IPM

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42
Q

public domain on the internet. Created by Internet Service Providers (ISP) to connect to other ISPs around the world. Creates the internet.

A

Public IP

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43
Q

private to a Local Area Network (LAN). They are assigned in a LAN by the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).

A

Private IP

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44
Q

it is a unique identifier. It has two components: the network address and the host address. A subnet mask then sep- arates the IP address into network and host addresses.

A

Internet Protocol (IP) Address

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45
Q

the process of verifying that an individual, entity or website is who it claims to be. This in the context of web applications is commonly performed by submitting a username or ID and one or more items of private information that only a given user should know

A

Authentication

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46
Q

An attestation of identity, qualification, competence, or authority issued to an individual by a third party

A

Credential

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47
Q

sequence of network HTTP request and response transactions associated to the same user. […] provide the ability to establish variables - such as access rights and localization settings - which will apply to each and every interaction a user has with the web application for the duration of the session.

A

Web Session

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48
Q

is almost exclusively in Javascript (JS) runs with an interpreter. Makes web pages come alive. Credential information is stored and sent from the client

A

Client side code

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49
Q

Server side services listen for a request and then respond to that request part of the N-tier application design

A

Server Side

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50
Q

Presentation, logic, data

A

N-Tier Application

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51
Q

Translates data in to something the user can understand

A

Presentation tier

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52
Q

Coordinates the application, processes commands makes logical decisions and evaluations and performs calculations. Provides communication between the presentation and data tier

A

Logic Tier

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53
Q

Information is stored and retrieved from a database, datastore or filesystem. Provides information back to the logic tier

A

Data Tier

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54
Q

does nothing except provide a pathway for the electrical signals to travel along

A

Hub

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55
Q

are the connectivity points of an Ethernet network that forward data only to the port that connects to the destination device. It does this by learning the MAC address of the devices attached to it, and then by matching the destination MAC address in the data it receives.

A

Switch

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56
Q

ill normally create, add, or divide on the Network Layer as they are normally IP-based devices.Receives a packet of data, it reads the header of the packet to define the destination address

A

Router

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57
Q

use the wireless infrastructure network mode to provide a connection point between WLANs and a wired Ethernet LAN.

A

Wireless Access Point

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58
Q

Encrypted Connection over the internet from a device to a network

A

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

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59
Q

A networking device, either hardware or software based, that controls access to your organization’s network.

A

Firewall

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60
Q

implemented through software applications to monitor and control network traffic between a computer or a network of computers and the internet or other networks- Use network operating systems such as Linux/Unix, Windows Servers and Mac OS Servers

A

Software Firewalls

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61
Q

Dedicated network device Many routers and WAPs have this functionality built in

A

Hardware Firewalls

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62
Q

a 32-bit number that masks an IP address, and divides the IP address into network address and host address. network bits to all “1”s and setting host bits to all “0”s

A

Subnet Mask

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63
Q

allocates and manages IP addresses on the internet. is a set of Internet protocol (IP) standards that is used to create unique identifiers for networks and individual devices.

A

Classless inter-domain routing (CIDR)

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64
Q

A dictionary of CVE attempting to standardize across the industry

A

CVE - Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures

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65
Q

Maintain accurate inventory of assets Define and set stan- dards>Maintain awareness and detect new vulnerabilities>Reme- diate or mitigate identified vulnerabilities >Continuously monitor IT environment

A

Goals of Vulnerability Management Program (4)

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66
Q

Apply Patches -
Update configurations -
Deactivate unnecessary services and channels

A

Remediation

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67
Q

reducing, lessening, or minimizing the severity, impact, or likelihood of potential threats, risks, or vulnerabilities- Compensating Network Controls - Procedural or Physical Controls

A

Mitigation

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68
Q

tend to lack motivation and rely on script created by more ad- vanced hackers. They utilize easy to use software to do things such as port scanning. Blue hats are “vindictive “ - these.

A

Script Kiddies

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69
Q

newbie hackers. Unlike script kiddies, these hackers have the drive to become a more advanced hacker

A

Green Hat

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70
Q

malicious hacker who hacks for personal gain, typically financial

A

Black Hat

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71
Q

Use their skills in order to help individuals, businesses and gov- ernment.

A

White Hat/Ethical Hackers

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72
Q

: shifts between ethical and non-ethical hacking practices

A

Grey Hat

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73
Q

Digital vigilantes working to right a perceived wrong in the world

A

Hacktivists:

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74
Q

government employees who attempt to acquire classified informa- tion about other governments

A

Nation State Hackers (AKA APT)

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75
Q

: a disgruntled employee or corporate spy

A

Malicious Insider

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76
Q

1) Provide training 2)Define security requirements 3)Define met- rics and compliance reporting 4) Perform threat modeling 5) Establish design requirementsà6) Define and use cryptography standards 7)Manage the security risk of using 3rd party compo- nentsà8) Use approved tools 9) Perform SAST 10) Perform DAST 11)Perform penetration testing 12) Establish a standard incident response process

A

Microsoft secure development lifecycle 12 parts

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77
Q

Thesepermissions grants the right to read the contents of the file and read the permissions of a directory.

A

permission Read (r)

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78
Q

Implies the ability to change the contents of a file. Or create new files in a directory

A

Permission write(w)

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79
Q

the right to execute the files if they are programs. Regarding directories, it allows you to enter any directories and access files

A

Permission Execute (x)

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80
Q

exploiting a bug or design flaw to gain elevated access to re- sources that are normally protected from a user or application

A

Privilege escalation

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81
Q

o a lower level privilege user accesses functions or content revised for higher privilege users or applications

A

Vertical privilege escalation

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82
Q

o a normal user accesses functions or content reserved for other normal users

A

Horizontal privilege escalation

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83
Q

Type of permissions that only allow a person to have the permis- sions necessary to complete their role. For example, an employ will only be given permissions needed to complete their job. Pre- vents lower level employees from accessing additional information that is not relevant to them

A

Role Based Access Controls

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84
Q

a process by which potential threats, such as structural vulnera- bilities or the absence of appropriate safeguards, can be identi- fied, enumerated, and mitigations can be prioritized. This is about finding problems should be done early in the development.

A

Threat Modeling

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85
Q

lists all of the assets and considers how attacker could threaten them

A

Asset based approach (TM)

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86
Q

Talking about human threat agents can make the threat seem real

A

Modeling Attacker

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87
Q

models that focus on software being built or system being de- ployed

A

Software model

88
Q

any place where entities of different privilege interact. Threats tend to cluster around these.

A

Trust boundary

89
Q

follows the flows of data often ideal for threat modeling

A

Dataflow Diagrams (DFD) (Software model)

90
Q

This model is fairly complex if starting from scratch likely can be adapted

A

Unified modeling language (UML) (Software model)

91
Q

o represent flows between various participants; each lane edge is labeled to identify a participant; each message is represented by a line between participants.

A

Swim line diagrams (Software model)

92
Q

represents the various states a system could be in and the tran- sitions between those states.

A

state diagram (Software model)

93
Q

STRIDE: A well accepted approach to thinking of threats when threat modeling: List what each acronym stands for:

A

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, Elevation of privilege.

94
Q

Pretending to be someone or something other than yourself. This VIOLATES AUTHENTICATION.

A

spoofing

95
Q

Modification of something on a disk in memory or network. This VIOLATES INTEGRITY

A

Tampering

96
Q

claiming that you did not do something VIOLATES NONREPUDI- ATION

A

Repudiation

97
Q

Absorbing the resources needed to provide a service. VIOLATES AVAILABILITY.

A

Denial of Service

98
Q

providing information to someone not authorized to see it VIO- LATES CONFIDENTALLITY

A

Information Disclosure

99
Q

Allowing someone to do something they are not authorized to do. Violates AUTHORIZATION

A

elevation of privilege

100
Q

SQL, Network file system NFS, Standard messaging block (SMB), Rsyslog

A

Data tier languages and Protocols List

101
Q
  • A language used in programming and designed to manage data held in databases. PORTS: 3306 (MySQL/MariaDB)>5432 Postgres>1433 MS SQL
A

Structured Query Language - SQL

102
Q

Distributed file system protocol runs on port: 2249

A

Network file system (NFS)

103
Q

o A network protocol for shared access to files printers and serial ports (445 or 139)

A

Standard messaging block (SMB)

104
Q

A utility for sending logs to remote log systems

A

Rsyslog

105
Q

Minimize attack surface, Principle of least privilege, Encryption, Tokenization, Federation

A

Protecting Data (5 rules)

106
Q

Implement physical, Network, logistical controls on data.

A

Minimizing attack surface

107
Q

access to data should be controlled by permissions that are veri- fied before allowing users to access the data.

A

Principle of least privilege

108
Q

prevents data visibility in the event of unauthorized access or theft

A

Encryption

109
Q

Substituting sensitive data with non-sensitive equivalent. This is then used to map back to the data

A

Tokenization

110
Q

A type of meta-database file system that is geographically de- centralized and transparently maps multiple databases in to one single one.

A

Federation

111
Q

o Categories: provide organizational structure o Specialty Areas: subgroups of categories containing cybersecu- rity work.
o Work Roles: the most detailed grouping of cybersecurity related work which includes KSAs and tasks for the role.
o Knowledge, skills and abilities: The skills required to perform a work role.
o Task - specific task assigned to the work role

A

NICE: National Initiative for Cybersecurity Education (parts and what they do

112
Q

Open Web Application Security Project

A

OWASP

113
Q

Top ten critical security risks to applications A1: Injection A2: Bro- ken authentication A3: Sensitive data exposure A4: XML External Entities A5: Broken access control A6: Security misconfiguration A7: Cross Site Scripting (XSS) A8: Insecure deserialization A9: Vulnerable components A10: Insufficient logging and monitoring.

A

OWASP TOP 10: list them

114
Q

Injection of a string in to a query in order to modify a response: attacker sends hostile data in to an interpreter How does it work: There are flaws in the code that when a specific string is injected do something different than they were meant to do.

A

SQLi

115
Q

requires keeping data separate from commands and queries. Use a vetted library or framework that does not allow this weakness to occur or provides constructs that make this weakness easier to avoid.”o Never Insert Untrusted Data Except in Allowed Locations o HTML Escape Before Inserting Untrusted Data into HTML Ele- ment Content
o Use a trusted library”

A

SQLi mitigation (3 parts)

116
Q

A type of application attack where the attacker takes advantage of scripting and input validation vulnerabilities in an interactive website to attack legitimate users.

A

XSS - Cross Site Scripting

117
Q

The application or API includes invalidated or un-escaped user input as HTML output.

A

Reflected XSS:

118
Q

The application or API stores unsanitized user input that can be viewed at a later date.

A

Stored XSS

119
Q

JavaScript frameworks, single-page applications, and APIs that dynamically include attacker-controllable data to a page are vul- nerable to this XSS attack.

A

DOM XSS

120
Q

Escaping untrusted HTTP request data based on the context in the HTML output, Using frameworks that automatically escape XSS by design, such as the latest Ruby on Rails and React JS.

A

XSS mitigation

121
Q

the analysis of computer software that is performed WITHOUT executing programs.

A

Static Application Security Testing (SAST):

122
Q

the analysis of computer programs DURING their execution. It does not require the source code and therefore detects vulnera- bilities by performing attacks itself.

A

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

123
Q

operated solely for a single organization

A

Private: cloud infrastructure

124
Q

services are rendered over a network that is open for public use

A

Public cloud infrastructure

125
Q

a composition of public cloud and private environment

A

Hybrid cloud

126
Q

refers to online services that provide high-level APIs used to deref- erence various low-level details of underlying network infrastruc- ture like physical computing resources,location, data partitioning, scaling, security, backup etc.

A

Infrastructure as a service

127
Q

consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infra- structure. This includes the network, servers, operating systems or storage. The user does control the deployed applications and possible the configuration settings for the application hosting en- vironment.

A

Platform as a service

128
Q

the applications are accessible via a thin client interface such as a web browser or program interface. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure, including network, servers, operating systems, storage and even individual application capabilities.

A

Software as a Service (SaaS)

129
Q

These primarily contain computer security-related information

A

Networking Security Logs

130
Q

contains system events and audit records

A

Operating System logs

131
Q

contains application level events or audit information

A

Application logs

132
Q

typically hidden within another seemingly innocuous program. It can create copies of itself and insert them into other programs and files to perform a harmful action. Uncommon today and comprises less than 10% of all malware

A

Viruses

133
Q

It’s distinctive trait is that it is self-replicating and can spread without user action.

A

Worms

134
Q

Masquerades as a legitimate program but contains malicious code. It requires the user to execute the corrupted/malicious file. Typically spread via social engineering

A

Trojan Horse

135
Q

Most these programs are trojans, which means they must be spread through social engineering of some sort. Once the user executes the corrupted/malicious file, it looks for and encrypts the users’ files. The hacker then holds the files as hostage in exchange for a ransom. Can be prevented by creating a good backup. According to studies, about 25% of victims choose to pay the ransom while 30% do not get their files unlocked

A

Ransomware

136
Q

if you get infected with this, you’re basically **ed. These allow the hacker to have “root” privilege and create/edit/delete files as they please. They can conceal themselves from anti-mal- ware systems and are very difficult to detect. This is because “root” privilege is greater than that of the victim/user. They are extraordinarily hard to create and only the most advanced attacks utilize them. Tech companies are very proactive about patching vulnerabilities that are susceptible to a these.

A

Rootkit

137
Q

a method of bypassing normal authentication procedures, typically over a connection to a network such as the internet. It allows the hacker to spy, invisibly, on the victims activities. May be installed by Trojan horses, worms, implants or “other methods”.

A

Backdoor

138
Q

attempts to expose the victim to unwanted and potentially ma- licious advertising. Common ____ programs may re-direct a user’s browser searches to a copycat page that contains promo- tions for other products

A

Adware

139
Q

a logical collection of internet-connected devices whose security has been compromised and control ceded to a third party. Each compromised device is known as “bot”. They are rented out by cyber criminals as commodities for a variety of purposes (such as a DDoS attack)

A

Botnet

140
Q

many viruses have a “signature”, or a recognizable series of ones and zeros. These anti-virus programs work by spotting these signatures and stopping the files before they can cause damage

A

Signature Based Detection

141
Q

monitors system processes to determine if a program is attempt- ing to engage in malicious behavior against the operating system

A

Behavior Based Detection

142
Q

the most common first step, works by moving the malicious file into a protected area on the hard drive. This area is separate from any other file that could activate the malicious software

A

Quarantining Removal

143
Q

aims to stop the initialization and spread of the virus during the start up process

A

Startup Detection/Removal

144
Q

Operating system ____ ____ provides administrators with a known working point to which they can restore the settings back to.

A

Restore points

145
Q

Asymmetric cryptography requires that both the encoder and decoder have a shared key? T/F

A

FALSE

146
Q

Masquerading is a form of both deception and disruption. T/F

A

FALSE

147
Q

AES is an algorithm for which type of encryption?

A

Symmetric Key Encryption

148
Q

Select the one that best describes Asymmetric cryptography :- Requires a secured channel to exchange a shared key. - Securely generates a shared key between two parties over an insecure channel. - Has been superseded by elliptical curve based encryption. - Leverages the same key to encrypt and decrypt data.

A

Securely generates a shared key between two parties over an insecure channel.

149
Q

What algorithm is considered a secure hash today?

A

SHA3-512

150
Q

Diffe-Hellman and RSA are algorithms for which type of encryption?

A

Asymmetric Key Encryption

151
Q

The polyalphabetic cipher is intended to prevent frequency analysis? T/F

A

TRUE

152
Q

The Vigenère cipher is an example of what?

A

A polyalphabetic cipher

153
Q

A 404 HTTP response indicates that the URL requested is not found on the server. T/F

A

TRUE

154
Q

[_______] translates more readily memorized domain names to the numerical IP addresses.

A

Domain Name System

155
Q

Which protocols are not part of the application layer? 1- TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) 2 - SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) 3 - HTTP (HyperText Transfer Protocol) 4 - ICMP (ping)

A

1 and 4

156
Q

A 5XX HTTP response status indicates an error occurred on the server. T/F

A

TRUE

157
Q

The network ID for IP address 172.35.16.12 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 is:

A

172.35.16.0

158
Q

What would you type into a command prompt in order to view the IP address of your computer (Windows or Linux is acceptable)?

A

ipconfig

159
Q

[______] is a process by which a server maintains the state of an entity interacting with it.

A

Session Management

160
Q

[_____] data is a combination of structured and unstructured data and requires mapping or advanced tools to derive information.

A

Big

161
Q

The process of verifying that an individual, entity, or website is who it claims to be.

A

Authentication

162
Q

When the secure flag is set on a cookie, JavaScript cannot access the cookie.T/F

A

FALSE

163
Q

[_______] is a sequence of network HTTP request and response transactions associated to the same user.

A

A Web session

164
Q

Any inactive data that is stored physically in any digital form is called [________].

A

Data at Rest

165
Q

The [___________] coordinates the application, processes commands, makes logical decisions and evaluations, and performs calculations.Correct!

A

Logic Tier

166
Q

Compute the Network ID and Host ID for the IP address 192.168.1.55 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0.

A

Network ID: 192.168.1.0Host ID: 0.0.0.55

167
Q

Which binary is computated under the 1’s of the subnet mask?

A

Network ID

168
Q

Which binary is computated under the 0’s of the subnet mask?

A

Host ID

169
Q

This type of malware masquerades as a legitimate program but contains malicious instructions.

A

Trojan

170
Q

This type of malware has the distinctive trait that it’s self-replicating without required interaction.

A

Worm

171
Q

The two broad techniques for detecting malware are ____ -based and ___ -based.

A

signature behavior

172
Q

The most common first step in malware removal and recovery is:

A

quarantining

173
Q

The type of malware that provides a method of bypassing normal authentication procedures, usually over a connection to a network such as the Internet, is called a:

A

backdoor

174
Q

The process of learning more about the assets that you can access including the network, computers, applications, and their versions is called:

A

footprinting

175
Q

When a social engineer uses a lie with a made-up story to go along with it in order to gain trust, it is called:

A

pretexting

176
Q

The practice of sending emails appearing to be from reputable sources with the goal of influencing or gaining personal information is called:

A

phishing

177
Q

[________] use their skills in order to help individuals, businesses, and government.

A

ethical hackers

178
Q

Government employees attempting to acquire classified information about other governments are often known as [__________]

A

Advanced Persistent Threats

179
Q

The four forms of valid credentials are :

A

What you know, what you have, what you are, and where you are.

180
Q

What cipher should an developer select for symmetric encryption?

A

AES

181
Q

This type of response status indicates a client-side error response from the server.

A

4XX

182
Q

This type of response status indicates a server side error response from the server.

A

5XX

183
Q

192.168.0.35 is an example of this type of IP address.

A

IPv4

184
Q

Which protocols are NOT part of the Application layer (select all that apply)?1. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) 2. ICMP (ping) 3. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) 4. HTTP (HyperText Transfer Protocol ) 5. TCP(Transmission Control Protocol ) 6. IP (Internet Protocol)

A

56

185
Q

The polyalphabetic cipher is intended to prevent frequency analysis? T/F

A

TRUE

186
Q

What are the domains within the field of cybersecurity?

A

Operational Security, Network Security, Application Security, End-user Education, Information Security

187
Q

The host ID for IP Address 172.35.16.12 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 is :

A

0.0.0.12

188
Q

a method, tool, or procedure for enforcing a security policy is called a:

A

security mechanism

189
Q

[_____] is any sequence of one or more symbols given meaning by specific act(s) of interpretation.

A

data

190
Q

The [___________] coordinates the application, processes commands makes logical decisions and evaluations and performs calculations.

A

logic tier

191
Q

Weaknesses or gaps in a security program that can be exploited by threats to gain unauthorized access to an asset are called a :

A

vulnerability

192
Q

Web session management commonly uses a session identifier stored in a [_________] sent from the client to the server.

A

cookie

193
Q

Permission validation and web session security occurs in the

A

logic tier

194
Q

Encryption can provide four properties

A

confidentiality, integrity, authentication, non-repudiation

195
Q

What is the five high-level functions described in the NIST Cybersecurity Framework core?

A

Identify
Protect
Detect
Respond
Recover

196
Q

What are types of input for assessing an NIST CSF subcategory?

A

Maturity Level
Primary Threat
Likelihood of Threat Occurrence
Impact of Threat Occurrence

197
Q

The NIST is a government agency that stands for National Information on Standards and Technology. T/F

A

FALSE: National Institute of Standards and Technology

198
Q

Core, tiers, and [_________] are the three main components for the NIST Cybersecurity Framework.

A

profile

199
Q

An IG1 enterprise’s biggest challenge to implementing security would be:

A

Limited IT department

200
Q

The CIS CSCs and the NIST CSF are incompatible frameworks. T/F

A

FALSE

201
Q

According to CIS Control 8, Implementation Group 3 should implement all security controls implemented by Group 2. T/F

A

TRUE

202
Q

[BLANK] is completely addressing the root cause of a vulnerability by applying a patch, updating a configuration or deactivating an unnecessary service.

A

Remediation

203
Q

Why is logging important? 1. Sometimes, logging records are the only evidence of a successful attack.
2. Logging plays a significant role in preventing attacks from occurring.
3. If properly instructed, logging can provide the time and place of every event that has occurred in your network or system.
4. Log records create an easy way to understand the scope of a breach without the need for reporting or filtering.

A

134

204
Q

The last step of incident response is recovery. T/F

A

FALSE

205
Q

The three main categories of logs are:

A

Networking Security, Operating System, and Application.

206
Q

The Principle of [___________] states: A user, process, or program must be able to access only the information and resources that are necessary for its legitimate purpose.

A

Least Privilage

207
Q

The first step of incident response is preparation. T/F

A

TRUE

208
Q

The name of the dictionary used to serve as a common baseline standard for weakness identification, mitigation, and prevention efforts is:

A

Common Weakness Enumeration

209
Q

The name of the 501(c)(3) organization that has a mission to make software security visible so that individuals and organizations are able to make informed decisions is:

A

Open Web Application Security Project

210
Q

The name of the security weakness that matches the definition below: The lack of verification of proper access to the requested object (AKA OWASP 2021 A01)

A

Broken Access Control

211
Q

What generic cybersecurity technique do we use to ensure the confidentiality of data in transit and at rest?

A

Encryption

212
Q

Which of the following are OWASP design principles (select all that apply): 1. Minimize attack surface area
2. Keep security simple
3. Avoid security by obscurity
4. Use default settings
5. Principle of Least Privilege
6. Trust services

A

1, 2, 3, 5

213
Q

What methodology is used in preventing attacks in SQL injection?

A

Parameterized Queries

214
Q

When a secure flag is set on a cookie, JS cannot access the cookie? T/F

A

FALSE

215
Q

What are the five core parameters of log management?

A

collection, storage, search, correlation, and output