Up to Quiz 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What technique would be: rhythmical, predictable, slow rocking movement

A

linear acceleration (or slow vestibular stimulation)

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2
Q

What technique would be: application of moderate/neutral heat to an area of spasticity - slightly warmer than just skin or air, NOT hot

A

neutral warmth

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3
Q

What technique would be: slow, firm stroking from proximal to distal, in a rhytmical and predictable pattern. Pressure is light but deep enough so to not trigger a ticklish response

A

slow stroking

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4
Q

What technique would be: firm pressure over the muscle belly or tendon - can carefully bow the tendon or the muscle belly and/or superior attachment. Using sandbags would be an example of this.

A

inhibitory pressure

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5
Q

What technique would be: maintained pressure or contact - NOT deep or firm pressure, just the weight of your hands. Cue is to have them imagine your hands are melting into their tissue, maintained for 60-90 seconds with diaphragmatic breathing.

A

maintained touch

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6
Q

Proximal to distal, fine vibrations would be considered a ___ technique.

Distal to proximal, coarse vibrations would be considered a ___ technique.

A

inhibitory

facilitatory

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7
Q

What technique would be: use of a soft brush or tissue, anything with a soft texture, used proximal to distal, slow and rhythmically

A

inhibitory brushing

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8
Q

Describe or demonstrate an upper limb flexor synergy.

A

wrist & elbow flexed
forearm supinated

shoulder externally rotated, abducted, elevated and retracted

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9
Q

Describe or demonstrate an upper limb extensor synergy.

A

everything is opposite to upper limb flexor synergy except the wrist in flexion

wrist flexed
forearm pronated
elbow extended
shoulder adducted, internally rotated, protracted and depressed

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10
Q

Describe or demonstrate a lower limb extensor synergy.

A

toes & ankle plantarflexed
knee extended
hip adducted & internally rotated

kind of like a ballet move/position

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11
Q

Describe or demonstrate a lower limb flexor synergy.

A

toes & ankle dorsiflexed and inverted

knee flexed

hip flexed, abducted and externally rotated

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12
Q

Which spinal cord syndrome is fairly rare, d/t hyperextension injury (usually in c/s) and sees upper limbs more affected than lower, loss of propathic sensory loss below injury level

A

central cord syndrome

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13
Q

Which spinal cord syndrome sees loss of: ipsilateral motor function, two point discrimination, proprioception and vibration sensory capacity

AND

contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation

A

Brown-Sequard syndrome

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14
Q

Epicritic neurons are found in the ____ tract, protopathic neurons are found in the ___ tract.

Where does each decussate

A

epicritic: dorsal column -> decussate in medulla
protopathic: spinothalamic tract -> decussate at same level as spinal nerve

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15
Q

Which spinal cord syndrome sees: BL loss of motor function, pain, temperature, and crude touch (epicritic ok), and is usually d/t direct trauma/hyperflexion injury?

A

anterior cord syndrome

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16
Q

UMN lesions at or above T12 will result in ___ of distal muscles and ___reflexia

A

spasticity and hyperreflexia

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17
Q

LMN lesions at T12 or below will result in __ of distal muscles and ___reflexia

A

flaccid (fully or partial) and hyporeflexia (diminished or absent)

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18
Q

Mixed spinal cord lesions result in mixed responds, occurring at level…

A

T12-L1

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19
Q

Everyone with cervical spinal cord lesions will have ____. There is a higher incidence of this with incomplete lesions.

A

spasticity

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20
Q

Sudden increases in spasticity may signal a medical problem, such as…

A

pressure sore, bladder/UTI

21
Q

With spinal cord lesions above __ to __, the person will be dependent on artificial ventilation

A

C1-C2

22
Q

Define heterotopic ossification:

A

formation of bone in the muscle or connective tissue after SCI, occurring usually 1-4 months post-injury

23
Q

Define autonomic dysreflexia:

A

acute episodes of exaggerated sympathetic response - bradycardia, severe HTN, sudden pounding headache, vasospasms and skin pallor, anxiety, sweating, flushed skin

24
Q

When is autonomic dysreflexia usually a risk?

A

persons with lesions at or above T6, M/C if quadriplegic

25
Q

What triggers autonomic dysreflexia?

A

primarily by painful or uncomfortable stimuli, especially in the abdomen or pelvic area -> includes a full bladder, muscle spasm, extensive muscle stretch, presence of infection or bed sore.

26
Q

What do you do if autonomic dysreflexia is triggered?

A

place the client in an upright position with the head raised up to 45 degrees, remove or loosen any tight clothing and noxious stimuli

seek medical attention if it continues

27
Q

What do you need to consider if someone has orthostatic HTN?

A

positional changes should be slow/gradual or dizziness, pallor, sweating and fainting may occur

28
Q

Prone and supine position are CI’d for SCI patients IF…

A

diaphragm function is severely compromised

29
Q

Why is massage beneficial even in areas without or with reduced sensation?

A

maintaining joint/tissue health and integration of the whole body

30
Q

Lower motor neurons originate in the ____ and ___ and directly innervate ____

A

brainstem and spinal cord, skeletal muscles

31
Q

Define hypokinetic:

A

diminished power of movement or motor function which may or may not be accompanied by mild paralysis

32
Q

Myotonia
Chorea
Spasticity
and hyperkinetic movement disorders

are all results of…

A

UMN lesions

33
Q

Spasticity usually involves __ of the upper limb and __ of the lower limb.

A

flexors of arms, extensors of legs

34
Q

Hypertonicity is usually associated with __ deep reflexes and ___ superficial reflexes.

A

increased, decreased

35
Q

Define myotonia:

A

condition in which a muscle or group of muscles does not readily relax after contracting

36
Q

Define chorea:

A

involuntary, purposeless, rapid motions such as flexing/extending the fingers, raising and lowering the shoulders, or grimacing

appear to be well coordinated and often go along with irritability, emotional instability, weakness, restlessness

37
Q

Paraplegia results from lesions at level __ and below, and quadriplegia at levels _ and above

A

T2, T1

38
Q

Paraplegia results from lesions at level __ and below, and quadriplegia at levels _ and above

A

T2, T1

39
Q

Approximation facilitates ___ of a ___ joint

A

extension of a flexed joint

40
Q

Heterotopic ossification occurs in __ %SCI patients

A

20% or 1/5

41
Q

What roods technique is this?

rapid fingertip tapotement over the muscle belly

A

quick stretch

42
Q

What roods technique is this?

rest the weight of your hand very gently on the patient’s forearm and ask them to really think about doing or imagine themselves completing a bicep curl. you will feel a tremor if you’re using too much pressure.

A

resistance

43
Q

What does traction facilitate?

A

flexion

44
Q

What roods technique is this:

lightly stroke the muscle belly manually or with ice, from distal to proximal

A

light touch

45
Q

In order for vibrations to be facilitatory, they would need to be __ and __

A

distal to proximal and coarse

46
Q

Define manual contact:

A

firm, deep pressure applied with the hands on an area of the body

47
Q

Differentiate manual contact from maintained touch from inhibitory pressure

A

Manual contact: deep, firm pressure to a specific area of the body

Maintained touch: maintained pressure or contact - very light

Inhibitory pressure: firm, long held pressure

48
Q

CI’s for spasticity include…

A

no heat
no facilitatory tqs
no overpowering the pt

49
Q

CI’s for flaccid tissue include…

A

extreme temperatures that cannot be sensed, too deep of pressure, inhibitory tqs, overpowering the pt, stretching