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CYNJ > UOM/ Agreements > Flashcards

UOM/ Agreements Flashcards

1
Q

CYNJ Tower Frequency

A

119.0

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2
Q

CYNJ Ground Frequency

A

121.9

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3
Q

CYNJ ATIS

A

124.5

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4
Q

Emergency Frequency

A

121.5

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5
Q

Fort Langley Frequency

A

122.72

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6
Q

Glen Valley Frequency

A

122.72

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7
Q

Victoria Terminal

A

132.7

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8
Q

Vancouver Terminal

A

125.2

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9
Q

RPA at YNJ is ….ft for all runways

A

75

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10
Q

Runway length available:
Runway 25 Taxiway B:
Runway 25 int Runway 19:
Runway 25 Taxiway H:

A

Runway 25 Taxiway B: 2500
Runway 25 int Runway 19: 2400
Runway 25 Taxiway H: 1400

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11
Q

Runway length available:
Runway 07 Taxiway H:
Runway 19 Taxiway E/ K:

A

Runway 07 Taxiway H: 1300
Runway 19 Taxiway E/ K: 1700

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12
Q

Runway … and Helipad …… are set up on an automatic timer system for airport lighting.

A

01/19
A and B

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13
Q

Runway 07/25 has … runway lights

A

no

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14
Q

Runway 25 operations:
* Avoid giving departing ground traffic a taxi departure clearance until it is certain …..
* Make use of taxiways … and … whenever possible
* Hold aircraft on taxiway … until there is room on… (a long delay on … is not a reason to taxi down runway …)
* Departing aircraft from the westside who don’t require a runup on Apron … should be taxied to… and offered a … from there. This will reduce congestion on the … of Apron 1. Do not taxi aircraft from …, down runway … , to line up on runway 25.
* Consider reducing traffic… and limiting arrivals entering the airspace if required
* Anticipate conflicts on ground and assume pilots won’t listen or will do the wrong thing by …

A
  • they will not conflict with southbound traffic
  • Juliet and Foxtrot
  • Golf / Bravo / Golf / 19
  • 1 / Foxtrot / backtrack / north side / Echo / 01
  • in the CCT
  • ensuring there is more space between aircraft on approach when approving a crossing
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15
Q

Runway 07 Operations:
* Encourage arrivals to exit taxiway … whenever possible
* Backtrack arrivals to … when it makes sense to do so
* Once an aircraft has reached taxi speed, you may instruct them to … and then cross conflicting traffic …
* Avoid giving departing ground traffic a taxi departure clearance on … until you can be reasonably sure the aircraft will be able to … Coordinate with tower if working ground to ensure everyone is in the picture.
* Consider reducing traffic in the … and limiting … in the zone to ensure there is enough time and space for aircraft to safely exit the runway
* A destination of the … is not a justification for taxiing an aircraft down … in and of itself. Instead have the aircraft exit at … if that is not possible have them exit at … and take them via … to the westside.

A
  • foxtrot
  • foxtrot
  • hold short of runway 19 (or taxiway Bravo) / in front of them
  • Bravo / cross the runway ahead of any arrivals. Coordinate with tower if working ground to ensure everyone is in the picture.
  • CCT / arriving aircraft
  • westside / runway 19 / foxtrot / Bravo / Kilo
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16
Q

RVOP is in effect when visibility is …

A

below 1/2SM (RVR2600)

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17
Q

Access gates …. and … are primary entry points for emergency personal

A

1 and 6

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18
Q

VR ACC shall inform Langley Tower when the aircraft is issued an approach other than

A

RNAV01

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19
Q

Langley Tower shall:
Automatically assume control of an arriving IFR aircraft ….. when weather has a ceiling of ….. and visibility of ….

A
  • established on final leg
  • 1000ft or more
  • 3 miles or more
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20
Q

Authorize circling to the active runway for all IFR arrivals regardless of whether or not Langley Tower is ….

A

accepting automatic transfer of control (auto-overs)

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21
Q

Langley control zone:
Class:
Height:
Radius:

A

Class: C
Height: 1900’
Radius: 3 miles

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22
Q

Langley Tower shall:
Issue an IFR clearance to departing IFR aircraft as follows:
1. clearance limit shall be …..
2. the aircraft shall be instructed to fly the …
3. after HUH the aircraft shall be cleared … unless … in which case the … shall be delivered to the pilot
4. the aircraft shall be cleared to climb and maintain …. unless otherwise coordinated
5. departure frequency

A
  1. the destination aerodrome including round-robin flights
  2. Published Departure Procedure to HUH
  3. via Flight Planned Route /
    an FRC is indicated in the route / revised routing
  4. 2000ft
  5. Victoria Terminal 132.7
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23
Q

IFR clearance phraseology

A

(ACID) CLEARED TO THE (ZZZZ) AIRPORT VIA THE PUBLISHED DEPARTURE PROCEDURE TO THE WHATCOM VORTAC, [FRC (if required )] FLIGHT-PLANNED ROUTE, CLIMB AND MAINTAIN 2000, SQUAWK (CODE), CONTACT VICTORIA TERMINAL 132.7 WHEN ADVISED

24
Q

Inform Victoria Terminal of IFR aircraft that are taxiing, and the runway to be used for departure, via … In the event of a failure, this shall be accomplished by …

A

EXCDS / landline voice coordination

25
Q

Obtain clearance validation from Victoria Terminal via …. for … depatures

A

landline or hotline / all IFR

26
Q

Langley Tower shall always advertise the …. Approach as the IFR approach on ATIS/OIDS

A

RNAV 01

27
Q

In the event of a a missed approach:
1. Inform …
2. Instruct …

A
  1. Victoria Terminal of the missed approach
  2. the aircraft of contact Victoria Terminal on 132.7
28
Q

When Traffic Management Initiatives are in place for an airport, facilities may be place for an airport, facilities may be placed in a

A

CFR/ GDP program and APREQ’s required

29
Q

Threshold Rwy 01 displaced:

A

104 ft

30
Q

Threshold Rwy 19 displaced:

A

96 ft

31
Q

Threshold Rwy 07 displaced:

A

654 ft

32
Q

Threshold Rwy 25 displaced:

A

343 ft

33
Q

Pitt Meadows VOR
Designator:
Frequency:
Location:

A

Designator: YPK
Frequency: 112.4
Location: 7.7 NW

34
Q

Whatcom VOR/ DME
Designator:
Frequency:
Location:

A

Designator: HUH
Frequency: 113.0/ CH 77
Location: 9.6 SSE

35
Q

White Rock NDB
Designator:
Frequency:
Location:

A

Designator: WC
Frequency: 332
Location: 7.6 SW

36
Q

Departure routes contain an altitude restriction of …

A

1000ft

37
Q

Inbound aircraft must call at or above … and may descend once …

A

1500ft
they have been issued a clearance from tower

38
Q

RVOP
1. Vehicles and aircraft shall contact ATC to obtain the required clearance for …
2. ATC shall limit movement of aircraft or vehicle to …

A
  • transit of any manoeuvering area of the airport surface
  • 1 at a time on the manoeuvring area
39
Q

…. flights will never be delayed due to Traffic Management restrictions.

A

Medevac/Lifeguard

40
Q

ADT

A

Approved Departure Time
- departure window of +/- 2 min of an aircraft included in a Call for Release program

41
Q

CDT

A

Controlled Departure Time
- departure window of +/- 5 min for an aircraft included in a GDP

42
Q

EDCT

A

Expect Departure Clearance Time
- departure window of +/- 5 min for an aircraft included in a Ground Delay Program (GDP)

43
Q

PDT

A

Proposed Departure Time
- a pilot’s estimated time of departure taking into account for taxi, traffic, known IFR/ other delays

44
Q

AAR

A

Airport Arrival Rate

45
Q

CFR

A

Call for Release

46
Q

MIT

A

Miles In Trail

47
Q

TFMS

A

Traffic Flow Management System

48
Q

TMI

A

Traffic Management Initiatives

49
Q

Forward PIREPs received from pilots to the FIC via …

A

land/hot line

50
Q

MINIT

A

Minutes In Trail

51
Q

Abbotsford
Outer Tower:
Inner Tower:

A

Outer Tower: 121.0
Inner Tower: 119.4

52
Q

Boundary Bay
Outer Tower:
Inner Tower:

A

Outer Tower: 127.6
Inner Tower: 118.1

53
Q

Pitt Meadows Tower

A

126.3

54
Q

Alouette Lake frequency

A

122.72

55
Q

Dickson Lake frequency

A

122.77

56
Q

Sumas frequency

A

122.77

CYNJ (8 decks)

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