UOM/ Agreements Flashcards

1
Q

CYNJ Tower Frequency

A

119.0

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2
Q

CYNJ Ground Frequency

A

121.9

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3
Q

CYNJ ATIS

A

124.5

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4
Q

Emergency Frequency

A

121.5

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5
Q

Fort Langley Frequency

A

122.72

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6
Q

Glen Valley Frequency

A

122.72

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7
Q

Victoria Terminal

A

132.7

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8
Q

Vancouver Terminal

A

125.2

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9
Q

RPA at YNJ is ….ft for all runways

A

75

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10
Q

Runway length available:
Runway 25 Taxiway B:
Runway 25 int Runway 19:
Runway 25 Taxiway H:

A

Runway 25 Taxiway B: 2500
Runway 25 int Runway 19: 2400
Runway 25 Taxiway H: 1400

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11
Q

Runway length available:
Runway 07 Taxiway H:
Runway 19 Taxiway E/ K:

A

Runway 07 Taxiway H: 1300
Runway 19 Taxiway E/ K: 1700

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12
Q

Runway … and Helipad …… are set up on an automatic timer system for airport lighting.

A

01/19
A and B

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13
Q

Runway 07/25 has … runway lights

A

no

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14
Q

Runway 25 operations:
* Avoid giving departing ground traffic a taxi departure clearance until it is certain …..
* Make use of taxiways … and … whenever possible
* Hold aircraft on taxiway … until there is room on… (a long delay on … is not a reason to taxi down runway …)
* Departing aircraft from the westside who don’t require a runup on Apron … should be taxied to… and offered a … from there. This will reduce congestion on the … of Apron 1. Do not taxi aircraft from …, down runway … , to line up on runway 25.
* Consider reducing traffic… and limiting arrivals entering the airspace if required
* Anticipate conflicts on ground and assume pilots won’t listen or will do the wrong thing by …

A
  • they will not conflict with southbound traffic
  • Juliet and Foxtrot
  • Golf / Bravo / Golf / 19
  • 1 / Foxtrot / backtrack / north side / Echo / 01
  • in the CCT
  • ensuring there is more space between aircraft on approach when approving a crossing
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15
Q

Runway 07 Operations:
* Encourage arrivals to exit taxiway … whenever possible
* Backtrack arrivals to … when it makes sense to do so
* Once an aircraft has reached taxi speed, you may instruct them to … and then cross conflicting traffic …
* Avoid giving departing ground traffic a taxi departure clearance on … until you can be reasonably sure the aircraft will be able to … Coordinate with tower if working ground to ensure everyone is in the picture.
* Consider reducing traffic in the … and limiting … in the zone to ensure there is enough time and space for aircraft to safely exit the runway
* A destination of the … is not a justification for taxiing an aircraft down … in and of itself. Instead have the aircraft exit at … if that is not possible have them exit at … and take them via … to the westside.

A
  • foxtrot
  • foxtrot
  • hold short of runway 19 (or taxiway Bravo) / in front of them
  • Bravo / cross the runway ahead of any arrivals. Coordinate with tower if working ground to ensure everyone is in the picture.
  • CCT / arriving aircraft
  • westside / runway 19 / foxtrot / Bravo / Kilo
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16
Q

RVOP is in effect when visibility is …

A

below 1/2SM (RVR2600)

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17
Q

Access gates …. and … are primary entry points for emergency personal

A

1 and 6

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18
Q

VR ACC shall inform Langley Tower when the aircraft is issued an approach other than

A

RNAV01

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19
Q

Langley Tower shall:
Automatically assume control of an arriving IFR aircraft ….. when weather has a ceiling of ….. and visibility of ….

A
  • established on final leg
  • 1000ft or more
  • 3 miles or more
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20
Q

Authorize circling to the active runway for all IFR arrivals regardless of whether or not Langley Tower is ….

A

accepting automatic transfer of control (auto-overs)

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21
Q

Langley control zone:
Class:
Height:
Radius:

A

Class: C
Height: 1900’
Radius: 3 miles

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22
Q

Langley Tower shall:
Issue an IFR clearance to departing IFR aircraft as follows:
1. clearance limit shall be …..
2. the aircraft shall be instructed to fly the …
3. after HUH the aircraft shall be cleared … unless … in which case the … shall be delivered to the pilot
4. the aircraft shall be cleared to climb and maintain …. unless otherwise coordinated
5. departure frequency

A
  1. the destination aerodrome including round-robin flights
  2. Published Departure Procedure to HUH
  3. via Flight Planned Route /
    an FRC is indicated in the route / revised routing
  4. 2000ft
  5. Victoria Terminal 132.7
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23
Q

IFR clearance phraseology

A

(ACID) CLEARED TO THE (ZZZZ) AIRPORT VIA THE PUBLISHED DEPARTURE PROCEDURE TO THE WHATCOM VORTAC, [FRC (if required )] FLIGHT-PLANNED ROUTE, CLIMB AND MAINTAIN 2000, SQUAWK (CODE), CONTACT VICTORIA TERMINAL 132.7 WHEN ADVISED

24
Q

Inform Victoria Terminal of IFR aircraft that are taxiing, and the runway to be used for departure, via … In the event of a failure, this shall be accomplished by …

A

EXCDS / landline voice coordination

25
Obtain clearance validation from Victoria Terminal via .... for ... depatures
landline or hotline / all IFR
26
Langley Tower shall always advertise the .... Approach as the IFR approach on ATIS/OIDS
RNAV 01
27
In the event of a a missed approach: 1. Inform ... 2. Instruct ...
1. Victoria Terminal of the missed approach 2. the aircraft of contact Victoria Terminal on 132.7
28
When Traffic Management Initiatives are in place for an airport, facilities may be place for an airport, facilities may be placed in a
CFR/ GDP program and APREQ's required
29
Threshold Rwy 01 displaced:
104 ft
30
Threshold Rwy 19 displaced:
96 ft
31
Threshold Rwy 07 displaced:
654 ft
32
Threshold Rwy 25 displaced:
343 ft
33
Pitt Meadows VOR Designator: Frequency: Location:
Designator: YPK Frequency: 112.4 Location: 7.7 NW
34
Whatcom VOR/ DME Designator: Frequency: Location:
Designator: HUH Frequency: 113.0/ CH 77 Location: 9.6 SSE
35
White Rock NDB Designator: Frequency: Location:
Designator: WC Frequency: 332 Location: 7.6 SW
36
Departure routes contain an altitude restriction of ...
1000ft
37
Inbound aircraft must call at or above ... and may descend once ...
1500ft they have been issued a clearance from tower
38
RVOP 1. Vehicles and aircraft shall contact ATC to obtain the required clearance for ... 2. ATC shall limit movement of aircraft or vehicle to ...
- transit of any manoeuvering area of the airport surface - 1 at a time on the manoeuvring area
39
.... flights will never be delayed due to Traffic Management restrictions.
Medevac/Lifeguard
40
ADT
Approved Departure Time - departure window of +/- 2 min of an aircraft included in a Call for Release program
41
CDT
Controlled Departure Time - departure window of +/- 5 min for an aircraft included in a GDP
42
EDCT
Expect Departure Clearance Time - departure window of +/- 5 min for an aircraft included in a Ground Delay Program (GDP)
43
PDT
Proposed Departure Time - a pilot's estimated time of departure taking into account for taxi, traffic, known IFR/ other delays
44
AAR
Airport Arrival Rate
45
CFR
Call for Release
46
MIT
Miles In Trail
47
TFMS
Traffic Flow Management System
48
TMI
Traffic Management Initiatives
49
Forward PIREPs received from pilots to the FIC via ...
land/hot line
50
MINIT
Minutes In Trail
51
Abbotsford Outer Tower: Inner Tower:
Outer Tower: 121.0 Inner Tower: 119.4
52
Boundary Bay Outer Tower: Inner Tower:
Outer Tower: 127.6 Inner Tower: 118.1
53
Pitt Meadows Tower
126.3
54
Alouette Lake frequency
122.72
55
Dickson Lake frequency
122.77
56
Sumas frequency
122.77