Unstable Angina Flashcards

1
Q

On the EKG, inversion of T waves and, when more severe, displacement of ST segments is indicative of what?

A

ischemia;Transient T-wave inversion probably reflects nontransmural, intramyocardial ischemia; transient ST-segment depression often reflects patchy subendocardial ischemia; and ST-segment elevation is thought to be caused by more severe transmural ischemia.

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2
Q

Most patients who die suddenly from IHD do so as a result of ischemia-induced what?

A

ventricular tachyarrhythmias

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3
Q

Transient T-wave inversion probably reflects nontransmural, intramyocardial ischemia - what does transmural mean?

A

through the septal wall

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4
Q

when myocardial ischemia leads to electrical instability, what are the three consequences in terms of rhythm that will happen?

A

vtach, vfib, and pvc - esp the first two represent ischemic ventricular rhythms

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5
Q

what does the EKG tell you about the pulse of a patient who is experiencing angina?

A

NOTHING - EKG does not measure pulse!! you can have no pulse and have normal sinus rhythm

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6
Q

what is the radiation pattern of angina with MI?

A

radiations to neck, jaw, shoulder, arm

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7
Q

what happens to patients lung sounds when they have UA? why?

A

wide basilar rales, due to left ventricular failure; patients also will develop acute CHF and hypotension

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8
Q

what is the best lead to look at for myocardial ischemia?

A

5

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9
Q

new t wave inversion of what size is diagnostic of myocardial ischemia?

A

> .3mV

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10
Q

your patient presents as pain free and have negative biomarkers, do you send them for a stress test?

A

YES

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11
Q

your patient presents with no pain, but has positive biomarkers, do you send them for a stress test?

A

NO

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12
Q

what are your seven factors that comprise the TIMI? ‘Thrombolysis In Myocardial Infarction’

A
A Age, Aspirin, Angina 
B Biomarker
C CAD risk factors
D Diagnosis of CAD
E EKG changes;
age 65 years (A), three or more risk factors for CAD (C), documented CAD at catheterization (D), development of UA/NSTEMI while on aspirin (A), more than two episodes of angina within the preceding 24 h (A), ST deviation 0.5 mm (E), and an elevated cardiac marker (B)
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13
Q

chest pain early in the morning (MONDAY) within a few hours of waking is indicative of what?

A

MI

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14
Q

Although STEMI may commence at any time of the day or night, _______ have been reported such that clusters are seen in the morning within a few hours of awakening.

A

circadian variations (remember, your heart rate and metabolic rate slows down when you are sleeping)

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15
Q

what are the 5 differential diagnoses of pain of STEMI?

A

acute pericarditis, PE, acute aortic dissection, costochondritis, and gastrointestinal disorders. Lau also included GERD, and variant angina.

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16
Q

The combination of substernal chest pain persisting for >30 min and diaphoresis strongly suggests what?

A

STEMI

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17
Q

_____ is essential in the management of patients with suspected STEMI and is effective across the entire spectrum of acute coronary syndromes.

A

aspirin; but remember, pts must chew the aspirin so the saliva can activate the enzymes!!!! DO NOT give water, b/c you don’t want them to swallow

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18
Q

_______ (treatment) can be given safely to most patients with STEMI. Up to THREE doses of___mg should be administered at about 5-min intervals.

A

sublingual nitroglycerin; .4mg

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19
Q

nitroglycerin may be capable of doing what to preload? and myocardial o2 demand? and myocardial o2 supply? How does it do all of these?

A

nitroglycerin may be capable of both decreasing myocardial oxygen demand (by lowering preload) and increasing myocardial oxygen supply (by dilating infarct-related coronary vessels or collateral vessels)

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20
Q

Therapy with nitrates should be avoided in patients who present with what? (2)

A

low systolic pressures (less than 90mmHg); suspicion of right ventricular infarction

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21
Q

Nitrates should not be administered to patients who have taken what other drugs? why?

A

phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor sildenafil (viagara) for erectile dysfunction within the preceding 24 h, because it may potentiate the hypotensive effects of nitrates.

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22
Q

what is the antidote for accidentally giving a pt nitrate with viagara?

A

IV atropine

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23
Q

_____(drug) is a very effective analgesic for the pain associated with STEMI, but what is the one requirement for the patient profile? why?

A

morphine; good BP (cannot have low BP); b/c morphine may reduce sympathetically mediated arteriolar and venous constriction, and the resulting venous pooling may reduce cardiac output and arterial pressure

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24
Q

morphine is a good DOC for what other major heart disease? THINK …

A

CHF b/c of it’s venodilator effects

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25
Q

beta blockers or ccb for use during acute setting MI? and why?

A

Beta blocker! b/c ccb can cause vasodilation which can promote CHF which is already a big problem post MI.

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26
Q

PVA doc of what? what’s the next line therapy? (prinzmetal variant angina)

A

CCB; nitro

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27
Q

what drug should absolutely not be given to pts suffering from PVA? (prinzmetal variant angina) why?

A

aspirin. b/c may actually increase the severity of ischemic episodes, possibly as a result of the exquisite sensitivity of coronary tone to modest changes in the synthesis of prostacyclin.

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28
Q

how can you tell the difference between a person having unstable angina and pva? (prinzmetal variant angina)

A

you cannot tell! best bet is to coronary angiography.

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29
Q

any pt that comes into the ER with chest pain must be treated with what?

A

aspirin - even though if the person has PVA it might actually make it worse

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30
Q

what do you give a patient who comes in with chest pain, but is allergic to aspirin? (both names)

A

Plavix (clopidogrel) -keeps the platelets in your blood from coagulating (clotting) to prevent unwanted blood clots that can occur with certain heart or blood vessel conditions.

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31
Q

The proportion of painless STEMIs is greater in patients with ______ and it increases with age.

A

diabetes mellitus; this patient may present with diaphoresis

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32
Q

Intermittent claudication is significant for what?

A

peripheral vascular disease - remember, intermittent claudication is a clinical diagnosis given for muscle pain (ache, cramp, numbness or sense of fatigue), classically in the calf muscle, which occurs during exercise, such as walking, and is relieved by a short period of rest.

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33
Q

a clenched fist held over the chest to describe ischemic chest pain - pressing/crushing vase-like chest pain.

A

levine sign

34
Q

CK-MB, CK, and troponin - what’s the big diff?

A

CK-MB is usually ordered along with total CK in persons with chest pain to determine whether the pain is due to a heart attack. It may also be ordered in a person with a high CK to determine whether damage is to the heart or other muscles.

Increased CK-MB can usually be detected in heart attack patients about 3-4 hours after onset of chest pain. The concentration of CK-MB peaks in 18-24 hours and then returns to normal within 72 hours.

Although CK-MB is a very good test, it has been largely replaced by troponin, which is more specific for damage to the heart.

35
Q

how many sets of troponin should be ordered to rule out heart attack? how many of cp-k?

A

1 set; 3 sets

36
Q

is myoglobin a good cardiac specific marker?

A

no, it’s better for Rhabdomyolysis

37
Q

what are the minimum initial lab tests you should run when pt comes in with possibly MI?

A

SMA 7, CBC, PT/PTT, troponin and CP-K (Creatine phosphokinase); plus ekg, cxr, and u/a (non blood tests)

38
Q

Troponins are protein components of striated muscle. There are three different troponins: troponin C, troponin T and troponin I. Troponins T and I are only found in cardiac muscle

A

Again, Troponins T and I are only found in cardiac muscle

39
Q

metabolic acidosis tends to be caused by what?

A

hyperkalemia

40
Q

Troponin T or I is both more specific and sensitive.

A

Troponin I

41
Q

elevation is useful for predicting in-hospital risk for unstable angina patients - which troponin?

A

I - The association of ECG changes and high troponin I identifies a population at very high risk;

42
Q

T or F: no physical findings are pathognomonic for angina pectoris

A

True

43
Q

which murmur do you send to the cardiologist immediately without echo? why? THiNK!!!

A

mitral regurgitation POST MI; b/c you want to know if the heart attack caused the MR; and if it did then Papillary muscle rupture has happened

44
Q

how do you check for peripheral vascular disease?

A

check the pulses

45
Q

presence of Xanthoma suggests what?

A

hypercholesterolemia

46
Q

what is the difference between the EKG findings of pericarditis and STEMI?

A

PC has diffused ST elevation (meaning it appears on every lead)

47
Q

what is the most common cause of pericarditis?

A

Group B coxsackieviruses

48
Q

T or F - stress testing is not indicated in asymptotic patients as a screening test

A

True

49
Q

what type of murmur precludes you from getting a stress test?

A

Aortic stenosis (esp if symptomatic)

50
Q

if there is a new ST segment depression on your ekg post stress test, what does that mean?

A

> 1mm means they induced an MI

51
Q

hypertensive or hypotensive response to exercise indicates the stress test was positive

A

hypo

52
Q

what is the alternate stress test for elderly pt or those that live a sedentary lifestyle?

A

bruce protocol stress test - still treadmill just lower workload

53
Q

what is the score that is used during the bruce protocol stress test? what does this score ultimately tell you?

A

duke treadmill score; it’s a prediction of coronary heart disease in a patient with chest pain

54
Q

T or F: acute PE, myocarditis, pericarditis or aortic dissection is contraindicated to stress testing

A

True

55
Q

pts with LBBB (specifically if it’s new) is indicative of what?

A

MI; if it was there previously (on an old EKG) then it’s not an MI

56
Q

what are the best drugs to use in hypertensive crisis? (3)

A

esmolol; Sodium nitroprusside;Labetalol

57
Q

what does ETT help us to do?

A

exercise tolerance test; helps to confirm and evaluate the severity of coronary artery disease

58
Q

what are you most concerned about with pts who have chf? (from the echo)

A

ejection fraction decreased (below 40 indicates pt needs a new heart)

59
Q

is there any pt that is contraindicated to cath?

A

no

60
Q

in which vessel bypass is the pt prognosis the worse?

A

LAD - the widowmaker

61
Q

sudden cardiac death typically indicates what two arrhythmias?

A

vfib and pulseless vtach

62
Q

what are the three indications for surgical therapy with patient who have UA?

A

medical therapy doesn’t work; LAD involved, or 3 vessels involved in disease (esp of left ventricular function is impaired).

63
Q

what is the cornerstone therapy for UA?

A

nitrate

64
Q

T or F if the pt has atherosclerosis nitrates do no work as well to cause venous dilation

A

FALSE - they still work !

65
Q

when is the best time to administer the nitrates?

A

at night time - when sleeping

66
Q

nitrogen and betablockers have synergistic therapeutic effect!!

A

this is why nitrates plus CCB is not the preferred combo.

67
Q

what does calcium do, per lau?

A

stabilizes the membrane

68
Q

extreme generalized edema

A

Anasarca

69
Q

renal failure or CHF? (in terms of edema)

A

leg edema (CHF); Anasarca (renal failure)

70
Q

what is the NO. ONE side effect of taking nitrates?

A

HA

71
Q

how many times should a UA pt take nitro? dose?

A

.4mg 3x (sublingual)

72
Q

what is the storage procedure for nitro?

A

avoid sunlight b/c it deactivates it

73
Q

DO NOT SWALLOW NITRO

A

it’s sublingual, duh!

74
Q

in NG OD what is the usually outcome?

A

methemoglobinemia

75
Q

what happens to patients who are on nitro for long periods of time? how do you prevent this?

A

tolerance is built - pts typically need 10-12 hours of a nitro-free period to avoid

76
Q

what type of beta blocker is atenolol?

A

Atenolol is a selective β1 receptor antagonist

77
Q

which class of drugs is known to permit unopposed alpha mediated v/c (Raynaud’s phenom)

A

beta blockers

78
Q

NOTE: beta blockers can both increase and decrease your sugar - how ?

A

by masking either hypo or hyper glycemia

79
Q

what drug class does Pindolol below to?

A

beta blocker with ISA

80
Q

what is the preferred type of beta blocker to give to DM pt?

A

beta blockers with ISA b/c of less derangement of lipid and glucose

81
Q

should beta blockers be withdrawn before coronary artery surgery?

A

NO

82
Q

always remember alternate pain when diabetics present with MI

A

such as pain when chewing; sudden onset of breathlessness; sudden loc;