Unit4 Study Questions - Virology Flashcards

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1
Q

Viral genomes vary greatly in size and may include from four genes to several hundred genes. Which of the following viral features is most apt to correlate with the size of the genome?

A) size of the viral capsomeres
B) RNA versus DNA genome
C) double- versus single-strand genomes
D) size and shape of the capsid
E) glycoproteins of the envelope
A

D - size and shape of the capsid

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2
Q

Viral envelopes can best be analyzed with which of the following techniques?

A) transmission electron microscopy
B) antibodies against specific proteins not found in the host membranes
C) staining and visualization with the light microscope
D) use of plaque assays for quantitative measurement of viral titer
E) immunofluorescent tagging of capsid proteins

A

B - antibodies against specific proteins not found in the host membranes

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3
Q

The host range of a virus is determined by

A) the enzymes carried by the virus.
B) whether its nucleic acid is DNA or RNA.
C) the proteins in the host’s cytoplasm.
D) the enzymes produced by the virus before it infects the cell.
E) the proteins on its surface and that of the host.

A

E - the proteins on its surface and that of the host

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4
Q

Most human-infecting viruses are maintained in the human population only. However, a zoonosis is a disease that is transmitted from other vertebrates to humans, at least sporadically, without requiring viral mutation. Which of the following is the best example of a zoonosis?

A) rabies
B) herpesvirus
C) smallpox
D) HIV
E) hepatitis virus
A

A - rabies

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5
Q

Which of the following accounts for someone who has had a herpesvirus-mediated cold sore or genital sore getting flare-ups for the rest of his or her life?

A) re-infection by a closely related herpesvirus of a different strain
B) re-infection by the same herpesvirus strain
C) co-infection with an unrelated virus that causes the same symptoms
D) copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host nuclei
E) copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host cell cytoplasm

A

D - copies of the herpres virus genome permanently maintained in the host nuclei

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6
Q

In many ways, the regulation of the genes of a particular group of viruses will be similar to the regulation of the host genes. Therefore, which of the following would you expect of the genes of the bacteriophage?

A) regulation via acetylation of histones
B) positive control mechanisms rather than negative
C) control of more than one gene in an operon
D) reliance on transcription activators
E) utilization of eukaryotic polymerases

A

C - control of more than one gene in an operon

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7
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of the lytic cycle?

A) Many bacterial cells containing viral DNA are produced.
B) Viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome.
C) The viral genome replicates without destroying the host.
D) A large number of phages are released at a time.
E) The virus-host relationship usually lasts for generations.

A

D - a large # of phages are released at a time

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8
Q

Which of the following statements describes the lysogenic cycle of lambda (λ) phage?

A) After infection, the viral genes immediately turn the host cell into a lambda-producing factory, and the host cell then lyses.
B) Most of the prophage genes are activated by the product of a particular prophage gene.
C) The phage genome replicates along with the host genome.
D) Certain environmental triggers can cause the phage to exit the host genome, switching from the lytic to the lysogenic.
E) The phage DNA is incorporated by crossing over into any nonspecific site on the host cell’s DNA.

A

C- the phage genome replicate along with the host genome

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9
Q

Why do RNA viruses appear to have higher rates of mutation?

A) RNA nucleotides are more unstable than DNA nucleotides.
B) Replication of their genomes does not involve proofreading.
C) RNA viruses replicate faster.
D) RNA viruses can incorporate a variety of nonstandard bases.
E) RNA viruses are more sensitive to mutagens.

A

B - replication of their genome does not involve proofreading

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10
Q

Most molecular biologists think that viruses originated from fragments of cellular nucleic acid. Which of the following observations supports this theory?

A) Viruses contain either DNA or RNA.
B) Viruses are enclosed in protein capsids rather than plasma membranes.
C) Viruses can reproduce only inside host cells.
D) Viruses can infect both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
E) Viral genomes are usually similar to the genome of the host cell.

A

E - viral genomes are usually similar to the genome of the host cell

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11
Q

A researcher lyses a cell that contains nucleic acid molecules and capsomeres of tobacco mosaic virus (TMV). The cell contents are left in a covered test tube overnight. The next day this mixture is sprayed on tobacco plants. Which of the following would be expected to occur?

A) The plants would develop some but not all of the symptoms of the TMV infection.
B) The plants would develop symptoms typically produced by viroids.
C) The plants would develop the typical symptoms of TMV infection.
D) The plants would not show any disease symptoms.
E) The plants would become infected, but the sap from these plants would be unable to infect other plants.

A

C - the plants would develop the typical symptoms of the TMV infection

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12
Q

Which viruses have single-stranded RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis?

A) lytic phages
B) proviruses
C) viroids
D) bacteriophages
E) retroviruses
A

E - retrovirus

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13
Q

What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses?

A) It hydrolyzes the host cell’s DNA.
B) It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis.
C) It converts host cell RNA into viral DNA.
D) It translates viral RNA into proteins.
E) It uses viral RNA as a template for making complementary RNA strands.

A

B - it uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis

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14
Q

Which of the following describes plant virus infections?

A) They can be controlled by the use of antibiotics.
B) They are spread via the plasmodesmata.
C) They have little effect on plant growth.
D) They are seldom spread by insects.
E) They can never be passed vertically.

A

B - they are spread via the plasmodesmata

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15
Q

Which of the following represents a difference between viruses and viroids?

A) Viruses infect many types of cells, whereas viroids infect only prokaryotic cells.
B) Viruses have capsids composed of protein, whereas viroids have no capsids.
C) Viruses contain introns, whereas viroids have only exons.
D) Viruses always have genomes composed of DNA, whereas viroids always have genomes composed of RNA.
E) Viruses cannot pass through plasmodesmata, whereas viroids can.

A

B - viruses have capsides of protein, whereas viroids have no capsids

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16
Q

The difference between vertical and horizontal transmission of plant viruses is that

A) vertical transmission is transmission of a virus from a parent plant to its progeny, and horizontal transmission is one plant spreading the virus to another plant.
B) vertical transmission is the spread of viruses from upper leaves to lower leaves of the plant, and horizontal transmission is the spread of a virus among leaves at the same general level.
C) vertical transmission is the spread of viruses from trees and tall plants to bushes and other smaller plants, and horizontal transmission is the spread of viruses among plants of similar size.
D) vertical transmission is the transfer of DNA from one type of plant virus to another, and horizontal transmission is the exchange of DNA between two plant viruses of the same type.
E) vertical transmission is the transfer of DNA from a plant of one species to a plant of a different species, and horizontal transmission is the spread of viruses among plants of the same species.

A

A - vertical transmission is transmission of a virus from a parent plant to its progeny, and horizontal transmission is one plant spreading the virus to another plant.

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17
Q

What are prions?

A) mobile segments of DNA
B) tiny molecules of RNA that infect plants
C) viral DNA that has had to attach itself to the host genome
D) misfolded versions of normal brain protein
E) viruses that invade bacteria

A

D - misfolded versions of normal brain protein

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18
Q

Which of the following is the best predictor of how much damage a virus causes?

A) ability of the infected cell to undergo normal cell division
B) ability of the infected cell to carry on translation
C) whether the infected cell produces viral protein
D) whether the viral mRNA can be transcribed
E) how much toxin the virus produces

A

A - ability of the infected cell to undergo normal cell division

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19
Q

Antiviral drugs that have become useful are usually associated with which of the following properties?

A) ability to remove all viruses from the infected host
B) interference with viral replication
C) prevention of the host from becoming infected
D) removal of viral proteins
E) removal of viral mRNAs

A

B - interference with viral replication

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20
Q

Which of the following series best reflects what we know about how the flu virus moves between species?

A) An avian flu virus undergoes several mutations and rearrangements such that it is able to be transmitted to other birds and then to humans.
B) The flu virus in a pig is mutated and replicated in alternate arrangements so that humans who eat the pig products can be infected.
C) A flu virus from a human epidemic or pandemic infects birds; the birds replicate the virus differently and then pass it back to humans.
D) An influenza virus gains new sequences of DNA from another virus, such as a herpesvirus; this enables it to be transmitted to a human host.
E) An animal such as a pig is infected with more than one virus, genetic recombination occurs, the new virus mutates and is passed to a new species such as a bird, the virus mutates and can be transmitted to humans.

A

E - An animal such as a pig is infected with more than one virus, genetic recombination occurs, the new virus mutates and is passed to a new species such as a bird, the virus mutates and can be transmitted to humans.

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21
Q

Which of the following is the most probable fate of a newly emerging virus that causes high mortality in its host?

A) It is able to spread to a large number of new hosts quickly because the new hosts have no immunological memory of them.
B) The new virus replicates quickly and undergoes rapid adaptation to a series of divergent hosts.
C) A change in environmental conditions such as weather patterns quickly forces the new virus to invade new areas.
D) Sporadic outbreaks will be followed almost immediately by a widespread pandemic.
E) The newly emerging virus will die out rather quickly or will mutate to be far less lethal.

A

E - the newly emerging virus will die out rather quickly or will mutate to be far less lethal

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22
Q

If scientists are trying to use what they know about HSV to devise a means of protecting other people from being infected, which of the following would have the best chance of lowering the number of new cases of infection?

A) vaccination of all persons with preexisting cases
B) interference with new viral replication in preexisting cases
C) treatment of the HSV lesions to shorten the breakout
D) medication that destroys surface HSV before it gets to neurons
E) education about avoiding sources of infection

A

B - interference with new viral replication in preexisting cases

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23
Q

In electron micrographs of HSV infection, it can be seen that the intact virus initially reacts with cell surface proteoglycans, then with specific receptors. This is later followed by viral capsids docking with nuclear pores. Afterward, the capsids go from being full to being “empty.” Which of the following best fits these observations?

A) Viral capsids are needed for the cell to become infected; only the capsids enter the nucleus.
B) The viral envelope is not required for infectivity, since the envelope does not enter the nucleus.
C) Only the genetic material of the virus is involved in the cell’s infectivity, and is injected like the genome of a phage.
D) The viral envelope mediates entry into the cell, the capsid entry into the nuclear membrane, and the genome is all that enters the nucleus.
E) The viral capsid mediates entry into the cell, and only the genomic DNA enters the nucleus, where it may or may not replicate.

A

D - the viral envelope mediates entry into the cell, the capsid entry into the nuclear membrane and the genome is all that enters the nucleus

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24
Q

Which of the following characteristics, structures, or processes is common to both bacteria and viruses?

A) metabolism
B) ribosomes
C) genetic material composed of nucleic acid
D) cell division
E) independent existence
A

C - genetic material composed of nucleic acid

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25
Q

Emerging viruses arise by

A) mutation of existing viruses.
B) the spread of existing viruses to new host species.
C) the spread of existing viruses more widely within their host species.
D) mutation of existing viruses, the spread of existing viruses to new host species, and the spread of existing viruses more widely within their host species.
E) none of these.

A

D - mutation of existing virus, the spread of existing virus to new host species and the spread of existing viruses more widely within their host species

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26
Q

To cause a human pandemic, the H5N1 avian flu virus would have to

A) spread to primates such as chimpanzees.
B) develop into a virus with a different host range.
C) become capable of human-to-human transmission.
D) arise independently in chickens in North and South America.
E) become much more pathogenic.

A

C - become capable of human-to-human transmission

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27
Q

A bacterium is infected with an experimentally constructed bacteriophage composed of the T2 phage protein coat and T4 phage DNA. The new phages produced would have

A) T2 protein and T4 DNA.
B) T2 protein and T2 DNA.
C) a mixture of the DNA and proteins of both phages.
D) T4 protein and T4 DNA.
E) T4 protein and T2 DNA.
A

D - T4 protein and T4 DNA

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28
Q

RNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymes because

A) host cells rapidly destroy the viruses.
B) host cells lack enzymes that can replicate the viral genome.
C) these enzymes translate viral mRNA into proteins.
D) these enzymes penetrate host cell membranes.
E) these enzymes cannot be made in host cells.

A

B - host cells lack enzymes that can replicate into the viral genome

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29
Q

Which of the following is not a possible reservoir of infection?
A) A healthy person
B) Contaminated soil or water
C) A sick person
D) A sick animal
E) all of the above are possible reservoirs of infection

A

E - all of the above

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30
Q
Plague transmitted by a flea is an example of 
A) Vector transmission.
B) Direct contact. 
C) Vehicle transmission. 
D) Droplet transmission. 
E) Fomite transmission.
A

A - vector transmission

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31
Q
Which of the following is a fomite? 
A) Droplets from a sneeze 
B) A hypodermic needle 
C) Water 
D) Pus 
E) Insects
A

B - hypodermic needle

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32
Q

The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the
A) Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.
B) Parenteral route.
C) Mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract.
D) Skin.
E) All are used equally

A

A - mucous membrane of the respiratory tract

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33
Q

Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms
A) Are changes felt by the patient.
B) Always occur as part of a syndrome.
C) Are specific for a particular disease.
D) Are changes observed by the physician.
E) None of the above.

A

A - changes felt by the patient

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34
Q
The fraction of the population having a specific disease at a specific time
A) incidence
B) morbidity
C) epidemidence
D) prevalence
E) prodromal rate
A

D - prevalence

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35
Q

Which of the following is the best definition of an endemic disease?
A) a disease constantly present within a population
B) a disease caused by an opportunistic pathogen
C) a disease which is increasing in incidence or prevalence
D) a disease that causes the initial illness
E) a disease present in a person from birth

A

A - disease constantly present within a population

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36
Q

Probiotics are
A) live microbial cultures of beneficial organisms
B) nutrients that encourage microbial growth
C) similar to antibiotics
D) microbial virulence factors
E) microbes that are paid to produce vitamins

A

A - live microbial cultures of beneficial organisms

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37
Q

Which of the following is true in regard to A-B toxins?
A) they are a type of endotoxin
B) they are produced only by Gram-negative organisms
C) the A subunit binds to an animal cell surface
D) the B portion is similar to LPS
E) only the A subunit is toxic

A

E- only the A subunit is toxic

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38
Q
Which of the following is not a microbial virulence factor?
A) antibodies
B) siderophores
C) kinases
D) hemolysins
E) capsules
A

A - antibodies

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39
Q
Endotoxin is
A) found in all Gram-negative bacteria. 
B) excreted from the cell. 
C) part of the Peptidoglycan. 
D) associated with gram-positive bacteria. 
E) also called leukocidin.
A

A - found in G- bacteria

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40
Q

Superantigens are
A) molecules on the surface of some pathogens
B) similar to antibiotic resistance genes
C) toxins which nonspecifically activate T-cells
D) molecules on T-cells that interact with S.aureus
E) similar to antibodies

A

C - toxins which non-specifically activate T-cells

41
Q

A viral envelope is acquired during which of the following steps?
A. uncoating of the virus
B. attachment of the virus to the host cell
C. penetration of the virus into the cell
D. release of virus from the host cell
E. biosynthesis of viral components

A

D - release of the virus from the host cell

42
Q
A virus may contain any of any of the following except:   A.  lipid envelope 
B.  ribosomes 
C.  spike proteins 
D. capsid proteins 
E.  double-stranded RNA
A

B - ribosomes

43
Q
Which one of the following steps does not occur during multiplication of a + strand RNA virus?
A. synthesis of DNA
B. sythesis of viral proteins
C. synthesis of – strand RNA
D. synthesis of + strand RNA
E. synthesis of an RNA polymerase
A

A - synthesis of DNA

44
Q

Which of the following happens first following uncoating of a (-) strand RNA virus?
A. translation of an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
B. synthesis of more (-) strand RNA
C. synthesis of + strand RNA
D. transcription of early genes
E. translation of capsid proteins

A

C - synthesis of + strand RNA

45
Q

Which of the following is not a reasonable treatment for flu?
A. a drug which blocks uncoating
B. a drug which inhibits translation
C. a drug which blocks attachment
D. a drug which inhibits neuraminidase
E. a drug which inhibits viral polymerase

A

B - a drug which inhibits translation

CANT DO THIS bc the virus uses our ribosomes and this would kill our own cells

46
Q

A drug inhibiting the conversion of RNA into DNA would be most effective on
A. retroviruses
B. RNA viruses
C. influenza
D. DNA viruses
E. none of the above- this drug would kill our cells.

A

A - retroviruses

47
Q

Viral size is generally measured in

A

nanometers

48
Q

A clear area against a confluent “lawn” of bacteria is called a

A

plaque

49
Q

An infectious protein is a

A

prion

50
Q

An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps?

A

release

51
Q

Most RNA viruses carry which of the following enzymes?

A

RNA -dependent RNA polymerase

52
Q

Viral envelopes are generally

A

composed of a lipid bi-layer

53
Q

Which of the following is not a method of culturing viruses?

A

in a culture medium

54
Q

Reverse transcriptase is a(n)

A

RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

55
Q

Enveloped viral membranes are generally __________ with associated virus-specific __________.

A

lipid bi-layers; proteins

56
Q

Which of the following is most likely a product of an early gene?

A

DNA polymerase

57
Q

What are prions?

A

misfolded versions of normal brain protein

58
Q

Which of the following is not used as a criterion to classify viruses?

A

biochemical tests

59
Q

Latent viruses are present in cells as

A

proviruses

60
Q

In which of the following ways do viruses differ from bacteria?

A

viruses are not composed of cells

61
Q

What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses?

A

uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis

62
Q
Retroviruses
  include the virus that causes AIDS.
  transcribe DNA from RNA
  may cause cancer.
  all of the above.
A

all of the above

63
Q

A commensal bacterium

A

may be an opportunistic pathogen

64
Q

All of the following are methods of avoiding host antibodies except

  Membrane-disrupting toxins.
  Antigenic change.
  IgA protease.
  Invasims.
  None of the above
A

membrane disrupting toxins

65
Q

Endotoxins are

A

part of the G- cell wall

66
Q

Which of the following definitions is incorrect?
Sporadic a disease that affects a population occasionally
Endemic a disease that is constantly present in a population
Epidemic fraction of the population having a disease at a specified time
Pandemic a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time
None of the above

A

Epidemic

67
Q

Which organism most easily causes an infection?

  Legionella pneumophila ID50-1
  E. coli O157:H7 ID50-20
  Shigella ID50-10
  Treponema pallidum ID50-57
  Can't tell
A

Legionella pneumophila ID50-1

68
Q

Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called?

A

septicemia

69
Q
Emergence of infectious diseases can be due to all of the following except
  Climatic changes.
  Digging up soil.
  Microbes trying to cause disease.
  Antibiotic resistance.
  Travel.
A

Microbes trying to cause disease

70
Q

Table 15.1
Use these data to answer the following question:

Bacteria Portal of entry ID50
Staphylococcus aureus Wound
S. aureus Wound+ampicillin 300

The administration of ampicillin before surgery

A

decreases the risk of infection

71
Q

The ID50 is a

A

Dose that will cause an infection in 50% of the test population.

72
Q

Which of the following is not true of staphylococcal enterotoxin?
It is an exotoxin.
It causes diarrhea.
It causes vomiting.
It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host’s intestines.
None of the above.

A

It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host’s intestines.

73
Q

Septic shock due to gram-positive bacteria is caused by

A

superantigens

74
Q

Which of the following definitions is incorrect?
Primary infection an initial illness
Acute a short-lasting primary infection
Secondary infection a long-lasting illness
Inapparent infection characteristic of a carrier state
Chronic a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months

A

Secondary infection a long-lasting illness

75
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) At least one member must not benefit in a symbiotic relationship.
B) Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other.
C) A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host.
D) Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other.
E) At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.

A

E - at least one member must benefit

76
Q

Which of the following is NOT a verified exception in the use of Koch’s postulates?

A) Some diseases have poorly defined etiologies.
B) Some pathogens can cause several disease conditions.
C) Some human diseases have no other known animal host.
D) Some diseases are not caused by microbes.
E) Some diseases are noncommunicable.

A

E - some diseases are noncommunicable

77
Q

Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection?

A) botulism
B) tuberculosis
C) measles
D) the common cold
E) diphtheria
A

A - botulism

78
Q

Biological transmission differs from mechanical transmission in that biological transmission

A) requires an arthropod.
B) involves fomites.
C) involves specific diseases.
D) requires direct contact.
E) works only with noncommunicable diseases.
C) involves specific diseases.
A

C - involves a specific disease

79
Q

Focal infections initially start out as

A) sepsis.
B) bacteremia.
C) local infections.
D) septicemia.
E) systemic infections.
C) local infections.
A

local infections

80
Q

The rise in herd immunity amongst a population can directly attributed to

A) increased use of antibiotics.
B) improved handwashing.
C) vaccinations.
D) antibiotic-resistant microorganisms.
E) None of the answers is correct.
A

C - vaccinations

81
Q

Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections?

A) antibiotic resistance
B) lapse in aseptic techniques
C) gram-negative cell walls
D) lack of handwashing
E) lack of insect control
A

C- - gram negative cell walls

82
Q

Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota in that transient microbiota

A) cause diseases.
B) are found in a certain location on the host.
C) are always acquired by direct contact.
D) are present for a relatively short time.
E) never cause disease.

A

D - are present for a relatively short time

83
Q

Which of the following statements about nosocomial infections is FALSE?

A) They occur in compromised patients.
B) They may be caused by opportunists.
C) They may be caused by drug-resistant bacteria.
D) They may be caused by normal microbiota.
E) The patient was infected before hospitalization.

A

E - the patient was infected before hospitalization

84
Q

One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in

A) body odor.
B) fewer diseases.
C) increased susceptibility to disease.
D) normal microbiota returning immediately.
E) no bacterial growth because washing removes their food source.

A

C - increased susceptibility to disease

85
Q

Which of the following statements about biological transmission is FALSE?

A) The pathogen reproduces in the vector.
B) The pathogen may enter the host in the vector’s feces.
C) Houseflies are an important vector.
D) The pathogen may be injected by the bite of the vector.
E) The pathogen may require the vector as a host.

A

C - houseflies are an important vector

86
Q

The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called

A) ecology.
B) epidemiology.
C) communicable disease.
D) morbidity and mortality.
E) public health.
B) epidemiology.
A

epidemiology

87
Q

Emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT

A) antibiotic resistance.
B) climatic changes.
C) new strains of previously known agents.
D) ease of travel.
E) None of the answers is correct; the emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of these.

A

E - none

88
Q

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) malaria vector
B) salmonellosis vehicle transmission
C) syphilis direct contact
D) influenza droplet infection
E) None of the pairs is mismatched.
A

E - none

89
Q

Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections?

A) using syringes more than once
B) normal microbiota on the operating room staff
C) errors in aseptic technique
D) antibiotic resistance
E) All of the answers are correct.
A

E - all

90
Q

A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is an example of

A) direct contact.
B) droplet transmission.
C) fomite.
D) vector.
E) vehicle transmission
A

C - fomite

91
Q

A researcher has performed a prospective study on the disease tetanus. To which specific kind of epidemiological study is this referring?

A) analytical
B) case control
C) descriptive
D) experimental
E) prodromal
A

C - descriptive

92
Q

In which of the following diseases can gender be considered a viable predisposing factor?

A) urinary tract infections
B) pneumonia
C) salmonellosis
D) tetanus
E) anthrax
A

A - urinary tract infections

93
Q

In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms?

A) prodromal
B) decline
C) convalescence
D) incubation
E) incubation and convalescence
A

E - incubation and convalescence

94
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism?

A) acid production by bacteria
B) bacteriocin production
C) bacteria occupying host receptors
D) bacteria causing disease
E) bacteria producing vitamin K
A

D - bacteria causing disease

95
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a zoonosis?

A) cat-scratch disease
B) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
C) rabies
D) tapeworm
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are zoonoses.
A

E - none

96
Q

Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a

A) communicable disease.
B) latent infection.
C) nosocomial infection.
D) sporadic disease.
E) None of the answers is correct.
A

C - nosocomial infection

97
Q

Hypertension, aka high blood pressure, is a disease in which the blood pressure is chronically high. Its cause include a poor diet, stress, and genetics. How is hypertension classified?

A. Communicable disease
B. Noncommunicable disease
C. Contagious disease
D. Infectious disease

A

B - noncommunicable

98
Q

Which is an example of vehicle disease transmission?

A. The transmission of MRSA from skin to skin contact.
B. Touching a telephone with cold viruses on its surface.
C. The bite of a mosquito containing malaria.
D. The presence of Listeria on undercooked chicken served for dinner.
E. Transmission of influenza via contacting a door handle from a taxi cab.

A

D

99
Q

Sepsis is caused by a bacterial infection. Signs and symptoms include fever, chills, and shock. Sepsis is an example of a _____ infection.

A. Local
B. Systemic
C. Focal

A

B - systemic