unit1 (9Qs)

Question 1

A preoperative nurse is assessing a client prior to surgery. Which information would be most important for the nurse to relay to the surgical team?

a. Allergy to bee and wasp stings
b. History of lactose intolerance
c. No previous experience with surgery
d. Use of multiple herbs and supplements

Answer 1

D

Some herbs and supplements can interact with medications, so this information needs to be reported as the priority. An allergy to bee and wasp stings should not affect the client during surgery. Lactose intolerance should also not affect the client during surgery but will need to be noted before a postoperative diet is ordered. Lack of experience with surgery may increase anxiety and may require higher teaching needs, but client safety is more important.

Question 2

A nurse works on the postoperative floor and has four clients who are being discharged tomorrow. Which one has the greatest need for the nurse to consult other members of the health care team for postdischarge care?

a. Married young adult who is the primary caregiver for children.

b. Middle-age client who is post-knee replacement, and needs physical therapy.

c. Older adult who lives alone at home despite some memory loss.

d. Young client who lives alone, and has family and friends nearby.

Answer 2

C

The older adult has the most potentially complex discharge needs. With memory loss, the client may not be able to follow the prescribed home regimen. The client’s physical abilities may be limited by chronic illness. This client has several safety needs that should be assessed. The other clients all have evidence of a support system and no known potential for serious safety issues.

Question 3

A clinic nurse is teaching a client prior to surgery. The client does not seem to comprehend the teaching, forgets a lot of what is said, and asks the same questions again and again. What action by the nurse is best?

a. Assess the client for anxiety.
b. Break the information into smaller bits.
c. Give the client written information.
d. Review the information again.

Answer 3

A

Anxiety can interfere with learning, coping, and cooperation. The nurse should assess the client for anxiety. The other actions are appropriate too, and can be included in the teaching plan, but effective teaching cannot occur if the client is highly anxious.

Question 4

A preoperative nurse is reviewing morning laboratory values on four clients waiting for surgery. Which result warrants immediate communication with the surgical team?

a. Creatinine: 1.2 mg/dL (106.1 umol/L)
b. Hemoglobin: 14.8 mg/dL (148 mmol/L)
c. Potassium: 2.9 mEq/L (2.9 mmol/L)
d. Sodium: 134 mEq/L (134 mmol/L)

Answer 4

C

The potassium level is critically low and can affect cardiac and respiratory status. The nurse would communicate this laboratory value immediately. The creatinine is at the high end of normal, the hemoglobin is normal, and the sodium is only slightly low so these values do not need to be reported immediately.

Question 5

An inpatient nurse brings an informed consent form to a client for an operation scheduled for tomorrow. The client asks about possible complications from the operation. What response by the nurse is best?

a. Answer the questions and document that teaching was done.
b. Do not have the client sign the consent and call the primary health care provider.
c. Have the client sign the consent, and then call the primary health care provider.
d. Remind the client of what teaching the primary health care provider has done.

Answer 5

B

In order to give informed consent, the client needs sufficient information. Questions about potential complications should be answered by the primary health care provider. The nurse can repeat some facts taught by the primary health care provider, but this topic is too broad for the nurse to address alone. The nurse should notify the primary health care provider to come back and answer the client’s questions before the client signs the consent form. The other actions are not appropriate.

Question 6

A client has a great deal of pain when coughing and deep breathing after abdominal surgery despite having pain medication. What action by the nurse is best?

a. Call the primary health care provider to request more analgesia.
b. Demonstrate how to splint the incision.
c. Have the client take shallower breaths.
d. Tell the client that a little pain is expected.

Answer 6

B

Splinting an incision provides extra support during coughing and activity and helps decrease pain. If the client is otherwise comfortable, no more analgesia is required. Shallow breathing can lead to atelectasis and pneumonia. The client should know that some pain is normal and expected after surgery, but that answer alone does not provide any interventions to help the client.

Question 7

A nurse is giving a client instructions for showering the night before surgery. What instruction is most appropriate?

a. “After you wash the surgical site, shave that area with your own razor.”
b. “Use the prescribed solution and wash the area where you will have surgery very
thoroughly.”
c. “Use a washcloth to wash the surgical site; do not take a full shower or bath.”
d. “Use warm water and scrub the surgical area vigorously.”

Answer 7

B

One or two days before the scheduled surgery, the surgeon may ask the patient to shower using an antiseptic solution, often chlorhexidine gluconate. This cleaning reduces contamination of the surgical field and the number of organisms at the site. Hair removal if needed is done in the operating suite using evidence-based practices such as clipping or a depilatory agent. While the client should wash the area thoroughly, vigorous scrubbing might scrape the skin, increasing the risk of infection.

Question 8

A postoperative client has an abdominal drain. What assessment by the nurse indicates that goals for the priority client problems related to the drain are being met?

a. Drainage from the surgical site is 30 mL less than yesterday.
b. There is no redness, warmth, or drainage at the insertion site.
c. The client reports adequate pain control with medications.
d. Urine is clear yellow and urine output is greater than 40 mL/hr.

Answer 8

B

The skin is the body’s first line of defense against infection and a drain of any type increases this risk. The priority client problem related to a surgical drain is the potential for infection. An insertion site that is free of redness, warmth, and drainage indicates that goals for this client problem are being met. The other assessments are normal, but not related to the drain.

Question 9

The perioperative nurse manager and the postoperative unit manager are concerned about the increasing number of surgical infections in their hospital. What action by the managers is best?

a. Audit charts to see if the Surgical Care Improvement Project (SCIP) outcomes
were met.
b. Encourage staff on both units to provide peer pressure to adhere to hand hygiene
policy.
c. Hold educational meetings with the nursing and surgical staff on infection
prevention.
d. Monitor staff on both units for consistent adherence to established hand hygiene
practices.

Answer 9

A

The SCIP project contains core measures to reduce surgical complications. Examples of focus included administration of prophylactic antibiotics, correct hair removal processes, the timing of discontinuation of urinary catheterization after surgery, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. These practices are now standard in surgical care. Prevention of infection is a heavy emphasis, so the managers would start by reviewing charts to see if the guidelines of this project were implemented. The other actions may be necessary too, but first the managers need to assess the situation.

Question 10

A nurse assesses a client in the preoperative holding area and finds brittle nails and hair, dry skin turgor, and muscle wasting. What action by the nurse is best?

a. Consult the primary health care provider about a dietitian referral.
b. Document the findings thoroughly in the client’s chart.
c. Encourage the client to eat more after recovering from surgery.
d. Refer the client to Meals on Wheels after discharge.

Answer 10

A

This client has signs of malnutrition, which can impact recovery from surgery. The nurse should consult the primary health care provider about prescribing a consultation with a dietitian in the postoperative period. The nurse should document the findings but needs to do more. Encouraging the client to eat more may be helpful, but the client needs a professional nutritional assessment so that the appropriate diet and supplements can be ordered. The client may or may not need Meals on Wheels after discharge.

Question 11

A client has arrived in the inpatient postoperative unit. What action by the inpatient nurse takes priority?

a. Assessing fluid and blood output
b. Checking the surgical dressings
c. Ensuring the client is warm
d. Participating in hand-off report

Answer 11

D
Hand-offs are a critical time in client care, and poor communication during this time can lead to serious errors. The inpatient nurse and postanesthesia care nurse participate in hand-off report as the priority. Assessing fluid losses and dressings can be done together as part of the report. Ensuring the client is warm is a lower priority.

Question 12

The postanesthesia care unit (PACU) charge nurse notes vital signs on four postoperative clients. Which client would the nurse assess first?

a. Client with a blood pressure of 100/50 mm Hg
b. Client with a pulse of 118 beats/min
c. Client with a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min
d. Client with a temperature of 96° F (35.6° C)

Answer 12

C

The respiratory rate is the most important vital sign for any client who has undergone general anesthesia or moderate sedation, or has received opioid analgesia. This respiratory rate is too low and indicates respiratory depression. The nurse would assess this client first. A blood pressure of 100/50 mm Hg is slightly low and may be within that client’s baseline. A pulse of 118 beats/min is slightly fast, which could be due to several causes, including pain and anxiety. A temperature of 96° F (35.6° C) is slightly low and the client needs to be warmed. But none of these other vital signs take priority over the respiratory rate.

Question 13

A client had a surgical procedure with spinal anesthesia. The client’s blood pressure was 122/78 mm Hg 30 minutes ago and is now 138/60 and the client reports nausea. What action by the nurse is best?

a. Call the Rapid Response Team.
b. Increase the IV fluid rate.
c. Notify the primary health care provider.
d. Nothing; this is expected.

Answer 13

C

A widening pulse pressure (44 to 78 mm Hg) and nausea may indicate autonomic blockade, a complication of spinal anesthesia causing widespread vasodilation. The nurse would notify the primary health care provider. The Rapid Response Team is not yet warranted; the nurse would not increase the IV rate without a prescription.

Question 14

A postoperative client vomited. After cleaning and comforting the client, which action by the nurse is most important?

a. Allow the client to rest.
b. Auscultate lung sounds.
c. Document the episode.
d. Encourage the client to eat dry toast.

Answer 14

B
Vomiting after surgery has several complications, including aspiration. The nurse would listen to the client’s lung sounds. The client should be allowed to rest after an assessment. Documenting is important, but the nurse needs to be able to document fully, including an assessment. The client should not eat until nausea has subsided.

Question 15

A postoperative client has just been admitted to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU). What assessment by the PACU nurse takes priority?

a. Airway
b. Bleeding
c. Breathing
d. Cardiac rhythm

Answer 15

A
Assessing the airway always takes priority, followed by breathing and circulation. Bleeding is part of the circulation assessment, as is cardiac rhythm.

Question 16

A postoperative client has respiratory depression after receiving morphine for pain. Which medication and dose does the nurse prepare to administer?

a. Flumazenil 0.2 to 1 mg
b. Flumazenil 2 to 10 mg
c. Naloxone 0.4 to 2 mg
d. Naloxone 4 to 20 mg

Answer 16

C
The nurse would prepare to administer naloxone, an opioid antagonist, at a dose of between 0.04 and 0.05 mg up to 2 mg, depending on the client’s symptoms. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist.

Question 17

A nurse on the postsurgical inpatient unit is observing a client perform leg exercises. What action by the client indicates a need for further instruction?

a. Client states “This will help prevent blood clots in my legs.”

b. Bends both knees, pushes against the bed until calf and thigh muscles contract.

c. Dorsiflexes and plantar flexes each foot several times an hour.

d. Makes several clockwise then counterclockwise ankle circles with each foot.

Answer 17

B
The client should perform this leg exercise one leg at a time. The other actions are correct.

Question 18

A registered nurse (RN) is watching a new nurse change a dressing and perform care around a Penrose drain. What action by the new nurse warrants intervention?

a. Cleaning around the drain per agency protocol

b. Placing a new sterile gauze under the drain

c. Securing the drain’s safety pin to the sheets

d. Using sterile technique to empty the drain

Answer 18

C
The safety pin that prevents the drain from slipping back into the client’s body would not be pinned to the client’s bedding. Pinning it to the sheets will cause it to pull out when the client turns. The other actions are appropriate.

Question 19

A postoperative nurse is caring for a client who received a neuromuscular blocking agent during surgery. On assessment the nurse notes the client has weak hand grasps. What assessment does the nurse conduct next?

a. Ability to raise head off the bed
b. Blood pressure and pulse
c. Signs of oxygenation
d. Level of orientation

Answer 19

C
When neuromuscular blocking agents are retained, muscle weakness could affect the diaphragm and impair gas exchange. Symptoms include the inability to maintain a head lift, weak hand grasps, and an abdominal breathing pattern. Since the client has weak hand grasps, the nurse would assess for signs of systemic oxygenation next. The nurse would assess head lift ability, but this does not take priority over oxygenation. Blood pressure, pulse, and level of orientation are all important in the postoperative period, but oxygenation would come first.

Question 20

The postanesthesia care unit (PACU) nurse is caring for an older client following a lengthy surgery. The client’s pulse is 48 beats/min which is 20 beats/min lower than the preoperative baseline. What assessment does the nurse make next?

a. Temperature
b. Level of consciousness
c. Blood pressure
d. Rate of IV infusion

Answer 20

A
Bradycardia in the immediate postoperative client can indicate anesthesia effect or hypothermia. Older adults are at higher risk for hypothermia because of age-related changes in temperature regulation, decreased body fat, or prolonged exposure to cool environments, such as an OR suite. The nurse would first assess the client’s temperature and take measures to correct any existing hypothermia. Level of consciousness, blood pressure, and IV infusion rate are not related, although all are important assessments in the postoperative period.

Question 21

The postoperative nurse is caring for a client who reports feeling “something popped” after vomiting. What action by the nurse is best?

a. Administer an antiemetic medication.
b. Call the primary health care provider.
c. Instruct client to avoid coughing.
d. Gather sterile nonadherent dressings.

Answer 21

D
The client may have a wound dehiscence. The nurse would gather needed supplies and assess the wound under the dressing. If the incision has dehisced, the nurse would cover it with a sterile nonadherent dressing or saline-moistened gauze dressing then call the primary health care provider. The client may need an antiemetic, but this is not the most important action at this time.

Question 22

A new perioperative nurse is receiving orientation to the surgical area and learns about the Surgical Care Improvement Project (SCIP) goals. What major areas do these measures focus on? (Select all that apply.)

a. Hemorrhage prevention
b. Infection prevention
c. Malignant hyperthermia testing
d. Stroke recognition
e. Thromboembolism prevention
f. Correct hair removal

Answer 22

B, E, F
The Surgical Care Improvement Project (SCIP), a set of core compliance measures, was initiated in 2006 to reduce surgical complications. Examples of focus included administration of prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infection, correct hair removal processes, the timing of discontinuation of urinary catheterization after surgery, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. These practices are now standard in surgical care.

Question 23

A nurse is learning about different surgical procedures and their classifications. Which examples below does this include? (Select all that apply.)

a. Rhinoplasty: curative
b. Liver biopsy: diagnostic
c. Arthroscopy: preventative. Ileostomy: palliative. Total shoulder replacement: reconstructive
d. Body contouring: cosmetic

Answer 23

B, C, D
A cosmetic procedure is designed to improve the client’s appearance or self-confidence; a body contouring procedure is an example. A diagnostic procedure is performed to determine the origin and cause of a disorder by taking a tissue sample with the intention of diagnosing (and staging, if applicable) a condition, such as a liver biopsy. A preventative procedure is performed with the intention that a specific condition will not occur. An example of this is a prophylactic bilateral mastectomy in a woman who carries the BRCA 1 or BRCA 2 gene to prevent the development of breast cancer. A palliative procedure is designed to improve quality of life; an example is an ileostomy. A reconstructive operation improves functional ability is an abnormal or damaged structure. A total shoulder replacement would be an example. A curative operation is performed to resolve a health problem by repairing or removing the cause; a gallbladder removal is an example.

Question 24

A nurse is caring for several clients in the morning prior to surgery. Which medications taken by the clients require the nurse to consult with the primary health care provider about their administration? (Select all that apply.)
a. Insulin
b. Omega-3 fatty acids
c. Phenytoin
d. Metoprolol
e. Warfarin
f. Prednisone

Answer 24

A, C, D, E, F
Although the client will be on NPO status before surgery, the nurse should check with the primary health care provider about allowing the client to take medications prescribed for diabetes, hypertension, cardiac disease, seizure disorders, depression, glaucoma, anticoagulation, or depression and steroids. Metformin is used to treat diabetes; phenytoin is for seizures; metoprolol is for cardiac disease and/or hypertension; and warfarin is an anticoagulant. The omega-3 fatty acids can be held the day of surgery.

Question 25

A nurse recently hired to the preoperative area learns that certain clients are at higher risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE). Which clients are considered to be at high risk? (Select all that apply.)

a. Client with a humerus fracture
b. Morbidly obese client
c. Client who smokes
d. Client with severe heart failure
e. Wheelchair-bound client
f. 50 years of age or older

Answer 25

B, C, D, E
All surgical clients should be assessed for VTE risk. Those considered to be at higher risk include those who are obese; are over 40; have cancer; have decreased mobility, immobility, or a spinal cord injury; have a history of any thrombotic event, varicose veins, or edema; take oral contraceptives or smoke; have decreased cardiac output; have a hip fracture; or are having total hip or knee surgery.

Question 26

A client has received several doses of midazolam. The nurse assesses the client to be difficult to arouse with respirations of 6 breaths/min. What actions by the nurse are most important? (Select all that apply.)

a. Administer oxygen per protocol.
b. Obtain one dose of flumazenil.
c. Obtain naloxone, 0.04 mg for IV push.
d. Ensure suction is working
e. Transfer the client to intensive care.
f. Monitor client every 10 to 15 minutes for the next 2 hours.

Answer 26

A, D, E

Midazolam is a benzodiazepine and its reversal agent is flumazenil. Naloxone is for opioid reversal. The nurse would apply oxygen as prescribed or by policy and obtain several doses at once because the drug can be given every 2 to 3 minutes if needed. Flumazenil can cause vomiting, so the nurse ensures suction equipment is present and working. Since flumazenil is metabolized more quickly than the midazolam, the client must be monitored every 10 to 15 minutes for the next 2 hours. The client may or may not need to be transferred.

Question 27

A nurse learns older adults are at higher risk for complications after surgery. What reasons for this does the nurse understand? (Select all that apply.)

a. Decreased cardiac output
b. Decreased oxygenation
c. Frequent nocturia
d. Mobility alterations
e. Inability to adapt to changes
f. Slower reaction times

Answer 27

A, B, C, D, F
Older adults have many age-related physiologic changes that put them at higher risk of falling and other complications after surgery. Some of these include decreased cardiac output, decreased oxygenation of tissues, nocturia, mobility alterations, and slower reaction times. They also have a decreased ability to adapt to new surroundings, but that is not the same as being unable to adapt.

Question 28

A nurse working in the preoperative holding area performs which functions to ensure client safety? (Select all that apply.)

a. Allow small sips of plain water.
b. Check that consent is on the chart.
c. Ensure that the client has an armband on.
d. Have the client help mark the surgical site.
e. Allow the client to use the toilet before giving sedation.
f. Assess the client for fall risks.

Answer 28

B, C, D, E, F
Providing for client safety is a priority function of the preoperative nurse. Checking for appropriately completed consent, verifying the client’s identity, having the client assist in marking the surgical site if applicable, assessing for fall risk, and allowing the client to use the toilet prior to sedating him or her are just some examples of important safety measures. The preoperative client should be NPO, so water should not be provided unless an oral medication is ordered to be given in pre-op.

Question 29

A postanesthesia care unit (PACU) nurse is assessing a postoperative client with a nasogastric (NG) tube. What laboratory values would warrant intervention by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)
a. Blood glucose: 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L)
b. Hemoglobin: 7.8 mg/dL (78 mmol/L)
c. pH: 7.68
d. Potassium: 2.9 mEq/L (2.9 mmol/L)
e. Sodium: 142 mEq/L (142 mmol/L)

Answer 29

B, C, D
Fluid and electrolyte balance are assessed carefully in the postoperative client because many imbalances can occur. The low hemoglobin may be from blood loss in surgery. The higher pH level indicates alkalosis, possibly from losses through the NG tube. The potassium is very low. The blood glucose is within normal limits for a postsurgical client who has been fasting. The sodium level is normal.

Question 30

A nurse on the postoperative nursing unit provides care to reduce the incidence of surgical wound infection. What actions are best to achieve this goal? (Select all that apply.)

a. Administering antibiotics for 72 hours
b. Disposing of dressings properly
c. Leaving draining wounds open to air
d. Performing proper hand hygiene
e. Removing and replacing wet dressings

Answer 30

B, D, E
Interventions necessary to prevent surgical wound infection include proper disposal of soiled dressings, performing proper hand hygiene, and removing wet dressings as they can be a source of infection. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given to clients at risk for infection, but not all clients need them for 72 hours. Draining wounds would always be covered.