Unit Stan Test Flashcards
(259 cards)
1
Q
Due to the center of gravity of the basket and litter, survivors shall be brought into the cabin head first (situation permitting). True/False
A
True
Unit Stan Test
2
Q
During hoisting with a heavy load of 300lbs or more, what is required rest period between delivery and recovery?
A
30 seconds
Unit Stan Test
3
Q
How many boom motor circuit breakers must be pulled and reset for hoist boom failure?
A
2
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4
Q
How many fire detectors are in each engine compartment?
A
3
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5
Q
What temperature are engine fire detectors rated?
A
200 C and 400 C
Unit Stan Test
6
Q
The hoist is hydraulically raised and lowered utilizing _______ pressure from the secondary hydraulic system.
A
3000 PSI
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7
Q
Is the permissible to start engine 1 on external power, disconnect, and use aircraft power to start engine 2?
A
No
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8
Q
When should Rescue Check Part 2 be completed?
A
In a hover
Unit Stan Test
9
Q
The only member of the aircrew authorized to deploy the rescue swimmer is?
A
The PIC
Unit Stan Test
10
Q
Below 200ft and before touchdown the flight mech must confirm wheels down?
A
False
Unit Stan Test
11
Q
What is the maximum allowable load in the baggage compartment?
A
440 lbs
Unit Stan Test
12
Q
During a free fall deployment, after the command “deploy swimmer” is give the FM then_____.
A
Taps the swimmer on the shoulder 3 times and simultaneously release his hold of the harness
Unit Stan Test
13
Q
The hoist hook shall be in the LOCKED position for direct deployment of the rescue swimmer to a vertical surface and rescue litter recoveries? True/False
A
True
Unit Stan Test
14
Q
What is the maximum airspeed with NR HI?
A
135 kts
Unit Stan Test
15
Q
The MH-65D AC system produces how many volts and hertz?
A
200V three phase (115V single phase) 400 Hz
Unit Stan Test
16
Q
When leaving RS on scene after you MARK and RECORD POSITION the next step is?
A
Deploy lighted raft
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17
Q
During slope operations Landing with the nose of the helicopter pointed ____ slope is the most desirables procedure in a MH-65.
A
Up slope
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18
Q
What type of battery is the MAIN battery on an MH-65D?
A
Nickel-Cadmium
Unit Stan Test
19
Q
What is the maximum touchdown speed for a MH-65?
A
60 kts
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20
Q
What must be done after the rescue device is in the cabin (or at the door not being used) during a hoist utilizing manual override on an MH-65?
A
Close STEP 1 VALVE
Unit Stan Test
21
Q
Dewatering or salvage pumps may be deployed to a vessel by direct and indirect. True/False
A
True
Unit Stan Test
22
Q
When Direct-Deploying a rescue swimmer to the water, The RS shall be placed approximately ______ away from the survivor.
A
2 to 3 feet
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23
Q
If jettisoning fuel below _____ the landing gear is required to be down.
A
60 kts
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24
Q
The HOIST SHEAR can be accomplished at any station when the HOIST MASTER switch is in the off position. True/False
A
False
Unit Stan Test
25
Except for the 10-feet cable extremities, what is the variable speed of the hoist when operated from the hoist control panel, using normal power?
Variable speed from 0 to 200 fpm
Unit Stan Test
26
The secondary hydraulic system operates at a rate pressure of ______ psi on the MH-65?
3000
Unit Stan Test
27
The primary hydraulic system operates at a pressure rating of ____ psi on the MH-65?
870
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28
During free fall deployments what altitude if flight conditions permit should the aircraft remain below once the "go on hot mic check swimmer" command is given in the MH-65?
30
Unit Stan Test
29
Each EGI contains its own internal GPS receiver in the MH-65. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
30
During a hypothermic lift the rescue swimmer may require _____ to place both strops around the victim and prepare the survivor for the hoist.
20 minutes
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31
What is the phraseology for load jettison on the MH-65?
Pickle
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32
The _____ ____ is the primary device for hoisting individuals in most situations. It affords a measure of protection for the individual being hoisted from vessel rigging, etc., particularly for an untrained person on the MH-65D?
Rescue Basket
Unit Stan Test
33
The aircraft's current position is displayed on what CDU page on the MH-65?
PROG page
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34
The MGB and TGB are serviced with _____?
6086
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35
What is the phraseology response when checking the landing gear position on the landing/hover checklist on the MH-65?
Confirmed down (PAC/SP/FM)
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36
The weak link is a safety device used between the trail line and the hoist hook which protects the helicopter by no allowing more than ____ pounds of force to be applied to the hoist.
300
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37
MADPU is the acronym for ____________ __________ double pick up.
Military Aviator
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38
Fuel load is limited to ___________ lbs during hot refueling on the MH-65.
1500
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39
The hoist hook shall be in the UNLOCKED position for what type of hoist on the MH-65?
Bare hook recoveries of the rescue swimmer
Unit Stan Test
40
Multiple hot refueling operation are allowed so long as total flight time does not exceed _____ hours?
6
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41
What is the maximum angle of bank with NR in hi for the MH-65?
40 degrees
Unit Stan Test
42
Moving the spike suppression switch to "START PROTECTION" places the battery in what with DC external power?
Parallel
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43
What is the maximum load limit per square feet in the cabin area in a MH-65?
125 lbs/sq. ft.
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44
When shall the hoist hook be in the unlocked position?
During bare hook recovery
Unit Stan Test
45
The flight mech shall stand by the sliding door until on the MH-65?
40 knots and a positive rate of climb
Unit Stan Test
46
In rescue situations where the survivor is not ambulatory, what rescue device should be used?
Litter
Unit Stan Test
47
Boost pumps #1 and #3 provide pressure to what in the MH-65?
#1 engine
Unit Stan Test
48
The rescue hoist can be used to deliver "Small internal loads" to a Coast Guard cutter. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
49
Can Rescue check part 2 be completed on deck on the MH-65?
No
Unit Stan Test
50
What must be done if the crew raft is to be deployed from the MH-65?
Disconnect tether line
Unit Stan Test
51
During hot refuel operations, place as much distance between the refueling source and helicopter as the hose will permit. This should be at least ____.
50 feet
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52
The maximum cargo hook load is ____ in the MH-65.
2,000 LBS
Unit Stan Test
53
Emergency procedures can be practiced with the RS on the hook. True/False
False
Unit Stan Test
54
The secondary hydraulic reservoir has a capacity of ______ gallons in the MH-65?
2.1
Unit Stan Test
55
The handheld hoist pendant is fitted with a 7.5 foot coiled cord to provide the operator with mobility during a hoist procedure in the MH-65. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
56
When using the quick strop the side with the red webbing and reflective tape should be placed?
Facing outward and placed second on the hook
Unit Stan Test
Unit Stan Test
57
Use of HIP/SARM beyond _____ will require engine maintenance in the MH-65?
30 min
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58
SADPU is the acronym for ______ _____ Double Pick Up.
Sling Augmented
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59
The trail line prevents sailing and swinging of the rescue device during a high hoist or when the rescue device needs to be lowered to a restricted location. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
60
How far should the rescue devices be placed from the swimmer and survivor during recovery?
5-10 feet
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61
What is considered transition flight in the MH-65?
Flight from zero to 80 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS)
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Unit Stan Test
62
During hoisting with no load (only the rescue device attached), what is the REQUIRED rest period between delivery and recovery with the MH-65?
None required
Unit Stan Test
63
The BOOM STOW switch will operate regardless of MASTER or EMERGENCY switch position, as long as the #1 MAIN DC BUS is power. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
64
You are performing a trail line hoist. The device is through rigging on board the vessel that represents a snag hazard. Are you committed?
Yes
Unit Stan Test
65
Circuit breakers of associated components should only be reset one time. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
66
The landing gear shall be _____ whenever the cargo hook is installed.
Down
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67
What is the maximum speed for sliding door movement?
80 kts
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68
What is the maximum airspeed with floats armed?
90
Unit Stan Test
69
What is the maximum permissible load for the hoist?
600 lbs
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70
During hoisting with a normal load of 300 lbs or less, what is the required rest period between delivery and recovery?
10 sec
Unit Stan Test
71
A fully charged aircraft battery gives off how many volts?
24V
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72
What is the fixed rate speed of the hoist when operated from the pilot's collective control?
Fixed rate of 100 fpm
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73
When should RESCUE CHECK PART 1 be accomplished?
At altitude
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74
The Correct phraseology after the basket is well clear of deck and rigging, IAW the 1H-65D-1, is ___________.
Basket clear of vessel, clear to move ___ (as brief)
Unit Stan Test
75
During external load operations, what is the standard command for releasing cargo?
Clear to Release
Unit Stan Test
76
What is the emergency blow down bottle for landing gear serviced with?
May be serviced with nitrogen or dry compressed air
Unit Stan Test
77
When is the Rescue Swimmer radio check to be completed?
During hoist check
Unit Stan Test
78
During preflight, the engine oil level will be visible between the ______ and the ________ (without shaking the aircraft)
Bottom of the sight class/MIN line more than 15 minutes after shut down
Unit Stan Test
79
Hoisting device must be placed ___ to ___ feet from survivor and rescue swimmer.
5-10 feet
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80
What is the length of the triple-strand polypropylene trail line?
105 feet
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81
What is the slope limitation for landing and stopping the rotor for the MH-65D?
10 degrees
Unit Stan Test
82
What is the objective when hoisting?
To minimize the time spent in a hover due to single engine risk
Unit Stan Test
83
Who is authorized to be used as a duck?
Active Duty Personnel, Qualified members of the Media
Unit Stan Test
84
If the PIC determines that pilot NVG use would increase safety for personnel near the rotor arc, pilot may keep their NVGs in use. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
85
When NR drops below _____ rpm a 3 Hz tone is heard.
345
Unit Stan Test
86
The trail line is _____ feet long.
105
Unit Stan Test
87
What power setting must you be below in order to return the Training switch to normal position?
8
Unit Stan Test
88
During engine rinse, what is the max permissible N1 decrease of the idled engine?
10%
Unit Stan Test
89
Dynamically the main rotor blade can drop to ________.
5'2"
Unit Stan Test
90
What is the maximum braking time for the rotor brake?
13 seconds
Unit Stan Test
91
How many magnetic plugs are on each engine oil system?
3
Unit Stan Test
92
What is the minimum flotation bottle pressure?
3100
Unit Stan Test
93
What is required after cargo hook installation?
Landing gear to stay down
Unit Stan Test
94
The use of the HSD is _______?
Used at the discretion of the RS
Unit Stan Test
95
The chest strap on the rescue sling shall be used by all personnel with the exception of whom?
Rescue Swimmer
Unit Stan Test
96
What is the minimum batter voltage required for battery start?
17 volts
Unit Stan Test
97
The preferred emergency recovery method of the RS is?
rescue basket
Unit Stan Test
98
If the aircrew observes a hazard to RS in the water, hoisting of the RS should be initiated by?
Place the rescue device or bare hook between the RS and the hazard
Unit Stan Test
99
"ADVISE PILOT" is bold face in both the hoist electrical runaway and hoist failure emergency procedures. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
100
The hoist hook shall be locked during what rescue swimmer evolution?
Direct deployment to a vertical surface
Unit Stan Test
101
For a catenary deployment of the Rescue Swimmer the correct placement of the swimmer and survivor is?
2-3 o'clock just outside the rotor wash
Unit Stan Test
102
On startup, what do you do for a steady GOV light on the WCA?
Abort start
Unit Stan Test
103
The flight mechanic's RESCUE CHECK is divided into how many parts?
3
Unit Stan Test
104
In AEO mode the Power Limit for Max Takeoff is?
10
Unit Stan Test
105
The alternators will fail if the MRH rpm drops below ______.
320-330
Unit Stan Test
106
The Sliding Door shall be opened ____.
Below 200 feet at 40 knots or less when over the water
Unit Stan Test
107
What is the maximum permissible load for the hoist?
600
Unit Stan Test
108
What is the total useable length of the hoist cable?
245
Unit Stan Test
109
During the deployment of the rescue swimmer (except for free fall deployments) in high winds the rotor was may be displaced aft. In any event do not place the rescue swimmer closer than ___ from the survivor.
5'
Unit Stan Test
110
During a DAY LOST SWIMMER emergency, after establishing a right hand orbit you should.
Look and listen for RS Signal
Unit Stan Test
111
During RESCUE CHECK PART 3, the Flight Mechanic shall stand close the cabin door and stand by until a safe single engine speed of ____ and a ____ of climb are achieved.
40 KIAS, No rate
Unit Stan Test
112
Main landing gear operate at what PSI?
2000 psi
Unit Stan Test
113
What is hoist cable foot-per-minute speed for the 10-foot extremities when operated from the pilot's collective control?
Fixed rate of 50 fpm
Unit Stan Test
114
When doing an indirect pump deployment, the non-weak link end of the trail line is clipped to ______.
The two pump bridle "D' rings
Unit Stan Test
115
The aircrafts wheels must be down during all over water evolutions (approaches, CASTCH, etc.)? True/False
False
Unit Stan Test
116
The rescue hoist operates at what psi?
3000
Unit Stan Test
117
Engine oil should be checked within ____ after shut down?
15
Unit Stan Test
118
If the aircraft has been damaged and the engineering officer or other qualified maintenance officer has evaluated the damage to be non-structural or cosmetic, the ___ may clear the aircraft for further flight.
Commanding Officer
Unit Stan Test
119
Off duty time must be such that it allows a minimum of ____ of bed rest.
8
Unit Stan Test
120
For SAR missions in which saving life is probable, the crew rest requirements and limits may be waived by the ____ on a calculated risk basis. this authority may not be delegated.
CO
Unit Stan Test
121
Approved litters aboard cutters or at Small Boat stations shall be marked as ______.
helicopter hoistable
Unit Stan Test
122
The use of personal firearms on Coast Guard aircraft is prohibited. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
123
Aircrew personnel shall obtain permission from the ___ before donating blood.
CO
Unit Stan Test
124
A flight crewmember shall be relieved from all duty for not less than 24 consecutive hours at least once during any ____ consecutive days.
8
Unit Stan Test
125
Flights may be made by Coast Guard flight crewmembers while in a leave status and can be logged to meet semiannual training requirements. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
126
If an individual fails a standardization or instrument check, the individual lapses to ___.
Unqualified
Unit Stan Test
127
Under normal circumstances, flight personnel shall not fly or participate in low-pressure chamber flights within _____ following SCUBA diving, compressed air dives, or high-pressure chamber evolutions.
24 hours
Unit Stan Test
128
Aviation personnel are restricted from aerial flight for ___ hours after last alcohol use and must have no residual effects.
12 hours
Unit Stan Test
129
H-65 aircraft shall avoid flight through known icing conditions. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
130
A flight crewmember shall not fly as a crewmember more than ___ hours is any seven consecutive days.
50
Unit Stan Test
131
In unpressurized aircraft, oxygen shall be used at all altitudes above ____ feet above mean sea level (MSL).
10,000
Unit Stan Test
132
Aircraft personnel should consult their ____ when the slightest doubt as to their fitness exists.
Flight Surgeon or Other Doctor
Unit Stan Test
133
The primary responsibility and authority for the operation of Coast Guard aircraft is vested in the _____.
Commandant
Unit Stan Test
134
The ____ is responsible for the safe, orderly, efficient, and effective performance of the aircraft and aircrew and passengers during the entire mission, whether it is a single sortie from home station or many sorties while deployed away from home.
PIC
Unit Stan Test
135
Who is the CG's Primary reviewer for aircraft modification and changes?
ACCB
Unit Stan Test
136
_____ allows randomly selected aviators to form a disciplined, coordinated crew on any aircraft in which they have been designated as qualified in type and model.
Standardization
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137
_____ develops and promulgates standardized flight procedures. It evaluates adherence to these procedures through annual Standardization Program Visits to all operational units.
ATC Mobile, AL
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138
If a precautionary landing is made away from home station observed or suspected aircraft malfunction or damage, the ____ shall ensure that a proper inspection of the aircraft is conducted by competent maintenance personnel and the results reported to the home stations engineering officer or other qualified maintenance officer.
PIC
Unit Stan Test
139
The _____ is responsible for the safe, orderly, efficient, and effective performance of the aircraft, aircrew, and passengers during the entire mission, whether it is a single sortie form home station or many sorties while deployed away from home.
PIC
Unit Stan Test
140
The minimum aircrew required for a day HH-65 SAR flight is ____.
Flight Mechanic
Unit Stan Test
141
A new 24-hour period will begin any time a crewmember has completed _____ of rest, regardless of duty status.
10
Unit Stan Test
142
How many hours of off duty time are required for individual flight time of 7 hours?
12 hours
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143
How many hours of off duty time are required for crew mission time of 10 hours?
10 hours
Unit Stan Test
144
How many hours of off duty time are required for individual flight time of 6 hours for two or more consecutive days?
12 hours
Unit Stan Test
145
Off duty time must be such that it allows a minimum of ______ of bed rest.
8 hours
Unit Stan Test
146
If adequate crew rest facilities are not available between multiple sorties, crew mission time shall continue to accrue. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
147
One half of the number of flight hours spent deadheading shall count as mission time. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
148
An aircraft may continue flight operations so long as no member of the minimum crew required for the mission exceeds the individual flight time or crew mission time limits. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
149
A flight crewmember shall be relieved from all duty for not less than 24 consecutive hours at least once during any ______ consecutive days (192 hours).
8
Unit Stan Test
150
A flight cremember shall not fly as a crewmember more than _____ hours in any seven consecutive days.
50
Unit Stan Test
151
For SAR mission in which saving life is probable, the crew rest requirement and limits may be waived by the ____ on a calculated risk basis. This authority may not be delegated .
Commanding Officer
Unit Stan Test
152
Aviation personnel are restricted from aerial flight for _____ hours after last use of alcohol and must have no residual effects.
12
Unit Stan Test
153
Aircrew personnel shall obtain permission from the ____ before donating blood.
Commanding Officer
Unit Stan Test
154
Aircrew personnel should not be permitted to engage in flights above 35,000 feet, night flying, or other demanding flights for a period of _____ after blood donation.
7 days
Unit Stan Test
155
Under normal circumstances, flight personnel shall not fly or participate in low-pressure chamber flights within _____ following SCUBA diving, compressed air dives, or High-pressure chamber evolutions.
24 hours
Unit Stan Test
156
Egress breathing device training does not limit personnel from flight or low pressure chamber training. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
157
Standard takeoff minimums are meteorological visibility of _____ statute mile for non-operational missions: and meteorological visibility of _____ statute mile for operational missions.
1/2
1/4
Unit Stan Test
158
H-65 aircraft shall avoid flight through known icing conditions. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
159
NVGs shall not be used during takeoff/landing except when conducting specifically authorized _____ operations.
Level II NVG
Unit Stan Test
160
Handguns carried by flight crewmembers shall be carried with _____
Magazine inserted, round chambered, decocked, with the decocking or safety lever in the SAFE position
Unit Stan Test
161
The use of personal firearms on Coast Guard aircraft is prohibited. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
162
Transportation of privately owned/eased vehicles, including automobiles, motorcycles, and boast, aboard Coast Guard Aircraft, is ____.
Prohibited
Unit Stan Test
163
If not current, rotary wing aircrews must complete SWET within ____ days of arrival at a unit.
60
164
The LPU-26PE may be used as a survival vest, but not as an egress breathing device by who have not completed the initial and recurrent shallow water egress training (SWET). True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
165
In unpressurized aircraft, oxygen shall be used at all altitudes above ______ feet above mean sea level (MSL).
10,000
Unit Stan Test
166
When no oxygen equipment is available, an unpressurized aircraft may ascend to 12,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) provided it does not remain above 10,000 feet MSL for more than ____.
.5
Unit Stan Test
167
Personnel hoisting devices maintained at air stations shall be enrolled in____.
AMCS
Unit Stan Test
168
Flights may be made by Coast Guard flight crewmembers while in a leave status and can be logged to meet semiannual training requirements. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
169
Flight made while in a leave status may not be considered as meeting minimum flight requirements for crediting of flight pay True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
170
Instructor/Flight Examiner designations lapse upon PCS. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
171
If an individual fails a standardization or instrument checks, the individual lapses to ____.
Unqualified
Unit Stan Test
172
Any pilot or other crew member who has not flown in his or her primary crew position (in flight or in an approved simulator) during the previous ___ days will be required to fly a warm up flight prior to flying in that crew position on an operational mission.
30
Unit Stan Test
173
helicopter crew members shall attend 9D5 training at least once every ____ months.
75
Unit Stan Test
174
Is gravity hot refueling an authorized method of refueling?
No
Unit Stan Test
175
Repetitive hot refueling an MH/HH-65 aircraft should not routinely exceed how many hours?
6
Unit Stan Test
176
In the even of a leak or fuel spill while hot refueling aboard ship, what should happen?
Secure the JP-5 pump, secure and evacuate the helicopter
Unit Stan Test
177
What is the marking on the flight deck where the HIFR rig is to be delivered to/retrieved from a Coast Guard cutter flight deck?
H
Unit Stan Test
178
What is the signal from the LSO when the JP-5 pump is secured?
Red flag/paddle over green flag/paddle
Unit Stan Test
179
What is the signal from the LSO that the JP-5 pump is pumping?
Green flag/paddle over Red flag/paddle
Unit Stan Test
180
what is the only aviation fuel authorized for use aboard Coast Guard cutters?
JP-5
Unit Stan Test
181
What is the color helmet, jersey and vest of the LSO should wear?
Yellow helmet, yellow jersey, and yellow vest
Unit Stan Test
182
What is the color of the helmet, jersey, and vest of the tiedown crew should wear?
Blue helmet, blue jersey, blue vest
Unit Stan Test
183
What is the color of the helmet, jersey and vest of the fire party should wear?
Red helmet, red jersey, red vest
Unit Stan Test
184
What is the color of the helmet, jersey and vest of the Fuel detail crew should wear?
Purple Helmet, purple jersey, purple vest
Unit Stan Test
185
What is the color of the helmet, jersey and vest of the Medical Detail should wear?
White helmet, white jersey, white vest
Unit Stan Test
186
What does the AMBER deck status light mean?
Helicopter is cleared to start engines and engage/disengage rotors
Unit Stan Test
187
What does the RED deck status light mean?
Helicopter is not cleared
Unit Stan Test
188
What does the Green deck status light mean?
Helicopter is cleared to perform the desired evolution
Unit Stan Test
189
How many standard aircraft cargo strap assemblies are used on the tail boom for heavy weather tiedowns?
2
Unit Stan Test
190
What is the only signal from the LSO that is mandatory for the pilots?
Wave-off
Unit Stan Test
191
Are the deck status lights to be used during NVG operations?
No
Unit Stan Test
192
Primary tiedowns are installed on which Tiedown rings on the MH/HH-65?
Forward Tiedown rings and aft tiedown rings (just above the MLG
Unit Stan Test
193
If the aircraft is to be spotted on the flight deck for more than ____ after shut down or before start up, primary tiedowns shall be installed with enough slack to allow the structs to decompress and the TALON system disengaged to release pressure on the landing gear struts.
1 hours
Unit Stan Test
194
The flight deck shall be completely free of _____ to operate or traverse a helicopter without tiedowns.
Ice and snow
Unit Stan Test
195
What are the two types of primary tiedown assemblies?
Upper and lower
Unit Stan Test
196
How many people are required to manually traverse a helicopter?
9
Unit Stan Test
197
What must all involved personnel be equipped with during traversing evolutions?
whistle
Unit Stan Test
198
The Flight Deck Director (FDD) for helicopter traversing shall normally be?
One of the pilots or the senior enlisted member AVDET
Unit Stan Test
199
The Brake Rider for helicopter traversing shall normally be
PIC
Unit Stan Test
200
What shall the Brake Rider wear when the helicopter is moved on a ship?
Cranial or helmet and inflatable vest
Unit Stan Test
201
Who shall the Driver normally be for helicopter traversing?
A member of the AVDET
Unit Stan Test
202
The primary hydraulic system operates at what pressure?
870
Unit Stan Test
203
How many chip detectors on each engine?
1
Unit Stan Test
204
What is the normal operating pressure of the secondary hydraulic system?
3000
Unit Stan Test
205
How many volts does the aircraft battery supply?
24
Unit Stan Test
206
What is the capacity of the primary hydraulic reservoir?
1 gallon
Unit Stan Test
207
The primary hydraulic filter clogging indicator is located on the regulation manifold? True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
208
The primary hydraulic system supplies a rated pressure of 870 PSI to the _____ bodies of the main rotor flight control servos and the _____ body of the tail rotor control servo.
Upper
Right
Unit Stan Test
209
The secondary hydraulic reservoir has a capacity of 2.5 Gallons? True/False
False
Unit Stan Test
210
The secondary hydraulic system supplies fluid at _____ psi to the landing gear.
2000
Unit Stan Test
211
The isolation valves may be activated by the TAIL HYD ISOLATE switch, mounted on the overhead control panel, to the ______ position.
Cutoff
Unit Stan Test
212
The nose landing gear assembly is dual wheel, _____ degree swiveling-type gear.
360
Unit Stan Test
213
What indication is given outside the helicopter that the nosewheel is in the locked position?
Red metal flag
Unit Stan Test
214
A blue light, mounted externally on the fuselage and forward of the nose gear, illuminates to confirm to a ground observer that all wheels are down and locked. (True/False)
True
Unit Stan Test
215
The hoist is capable of lifting _____ pounds.
600
Unit Stan Test
216
The hoist is hydraulically raised and lowered utilizing ______ PSI from the secondary hydraulic system.
3000
Unit Stan Test
217
What is the total usable length of the hoist cable?
245 ft
Unit Stan Test
218
The hoist assembly is mounted on the ______-driven pivoting boom.
electrically
Unit Stan Test
219
The guarded EMERGENCY HOIST POWER switch provides power directly from the ______ should the electrical system fail.
Battery
Unit Stan Test
220
Hoist rate in the manual mode is preset at ______.
50 fpm
Unit Stan Test
221
How many positions are there for the HOIST master switch on the overhead control panel?
3
Unit Stan Test
222
How many modules are there on the engine?
5
Unit Stan Test
223
What component provides overspeed protection to the engines?
BIM
Unit Stan Test
224
The TOT for each engine is measured at the free power turbine inlet by ______ dual-thermocouples connected to a temperature conformation box.
8
Unit Stan Test
225
Where is the engine oil temperature sensor located?
Downstream of the oil tank
Unit Stan Test
226
The engine fuel pump is a ____ ____ ____.
Dual stage pump
Unit Stan Test
227
Where is the fuel filter located?
Before the high-pressure pump
Unit Stan Test
228
The engine oil pump unit is made up of a rotor pump and three scavenger elements all driven on the same shaft.(True/False)
True
Unit Stan Test
229
Proper engine oils servicing levels will be checked within ___ minutes of shutdown dues to draining from the oil tank to the engine gearbox.
15
Unit Stan Test
230
How many engine oil coolers are there?
2
Unit Stan Test
231
Where are the DECUs located?
Baggage compartment
Unit Stan Test
232
Where are FADEC backup switches located
Overhead quadrant
Unit Stan Test
233
What is the RED Pie Symbol on the VEMD?
OEI HI
Unit Stan Test
234
Under normal operations, the top LCD of the VEMD will display the System Status Page. True/False
False
Unit Stan Test
235
Which page are hydraulic pressures displayed on the VEMD?
Vehicle Page
Unit Stan Test
236
Where is the MGB oil sight gauge located?
Forward, lower, right
Unit Stan Test
237
The left accessory gearbox drives the secondary hydraulic pump and the No. 1 alternator. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
238
How many lubricating systems does the MGB have?
2
Unit Stan Test
239
How is the TGB lubricated?
Splash lubricated
Unit Stan Test
240
How are the Main Rotor Blades attached?
Pins
Unit Stan Test
241
The no. 1 fuel system has three cells: the right forward, left forward, and _____.
Left Center
Unit Stan Test
242
How many boost pumps are located in each fuel system's feed tank?
2
Unit Stan Test
243
Moving the EMERGENCY CUTOFF switch down (off) opens the battery relays and disconnects both generators and both alternators. True/False
True
Unit Stan Test
244
Where is the spike suppression switch located?
Forward right chine panel
Unit Stan Test
245
What temperatures are engine fire detectors rated?
200 C and 400 C
Unit Stan Test
246
Depressing the primary (PRI) fire extinguishing pushbutton for the #1 engine will discharge the right extinguisher into the left engine compartment. True/False
False
Unit Stan Test
247
The float bottles are filled with _____.
Helium
Unit Stan Test
248
What is the cargo hook rated at?
2000 lbs
Unit Stan Test
249
The wheel brake accumulator is charged by placing the ELEC PMP switch in the "Test" position. True/False
False
Unit Stan Test
250
How many people are required for towing the MH-65?
4
Unit Stan Test
251
What is the maximum pressure for single-point pressure refueling?
55
Unit Stan Test
252
How many people are required for hot refuel?
4
Unit Stan Test
253
What is the proper oil for servicing the engines?
Mobil Jet 254
Unit Stan Test
254
What hydraulic fluid is used on the aircraft?
Mil-H-83282
Unit Stan Test
255
What oil is used to service the MGB and TGB?
MIL-PRF 6086E Grade M
Unit Stan Test
256
What is the minimum distance between the aircraft and the refueling source during a hot refuel?
50ft
Unit Stan Test
257
What is the maximum duel load in pounds that may be achieved during hot refueling operations?
1500
Unit Stan Test
258
The towing speed of the aircraft shall not exceed that of the walking team members Ture/False
True
Unit Stan Test
259
Where is the external air conditioning receptacle located?
Left side forward of the ECS exhaust port
Unit Stan Test
