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Unit Stan Test Flashcards

1
Q

Due to the center of gravity of the basket and litter, survivors shall be brought into the cabin head first (situation permitting). True/False

A

True

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2
Q

During hoisting with a heavy load of 300lbs or more, what is required rest period between delivery and recovery?

A

30 seconds

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3
Q

How many boom motor circuit breakers must be pulled and reset for hoist boom failure?

A

2

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4
Q

How many fire detectors are in each engine compartment?

A

3

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5
Q

What temperature are engine fire detectors rated?

A

200 C and 400 C

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6
Q

The hoist is hydraulically raised and lowered utilizing _______ pressure from the secondary hydraulic system.

A

3000 PSI

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7
Q

Is the permissible to start engine 1 on external power, disconnect, and use aircraft power to start engine 2?

A

No

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8
Q

When should Rescue Check Part 2 be completed?

A

In a hover

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9
Q

The only member of the aircrew authorized to deploy the rescue swimmer is?

A

The PIC

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10
Q

Below 200ft and before touchdown the flight mech must confirm wheels down?

A

False

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11
Q

What is the maximum allowable load in the baggage compartment?

A

440 lbs

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12
Q

During a free fall deployment, after the command “deploy swimmer” is give the FM then_____.

A

Taps the swimmer on the shoulder 3 times and simultaneously release his hold of the harness

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13
Q

The hoist hook shall be in the LOCKED position for direct deployment of the rescue swimmer to a vertical surface and rescue litter recoveries? True/False

A

True

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14
Q

What is the maximum airspeed with NR HI?

A

135 kts

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15
Q

The MH-65D AC system produces how many volts and hertz?

A

200V three phase (115V single phase) 400 Hz

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16
Q

When leaving RS on scene after you MARK and RECORD POSITION the next step is?

A

Deploy lighted raft

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17
Q

During slope operations Landing with the nose of the helicopter pointed ____ slope is the most desirables procedure in a MH-65.

A

Up slope

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18
Q

What type of battery is the MAIN battery on an MH-65D?

A

Nickel-Cadmium

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19
Q

What is the maximum touchdown speed for a MH-65?

A

60 kts

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20
Q

What must be done after the rescue device is in the cabin (or at the door not being used) during a hoist utilizing manual override on an MH-65?

A

Close STEP 1 VALVE

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21
Q

Dewatering or salvage pumps may be deployed to a vessel by direct and indirect. True/False

A

True

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22
Q

When Direct-Deploying a rescue swimmer to the water, The RS shall be placed approximately ______ away from the survivor.

A

2 to 3 feet

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23
Q

If jettisoning fuel below _____ the landing gear is required to be down.

A

60 kts

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24
Q

The HOIST SHEAR can be accomplished at any station when the HOIST MASTER switch is in the off position. True/False

A

False

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25
Q

Except for the 10-feet cable extremities, what is the variable speed of the hoist when operated from the hoist control panel, using normal power?

A

Variable speed from 0 to 200 fpm

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26
Q

The secondary hydraulic system operates at a rate pressure of ______ psi on the MH-65?

A

3000

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27
Q

The primary hydraulic system operates at a pressure rating of ____ psi on the MH-65?

A

870

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28
Q

During free fall deployments what altitude if flight conditions permit should the aircraft remain below once the “go on hot mic check swimmer” command is given in the MH-65?

A

30

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29
Q

Each EGI contains its own internal GPS receiver in the MH-65. True/False

A

True

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30
Q

During a hypothermic lift the rescue swimmer may require _____ to place both strops around the victim and prepare the survivor for the hoist.

A

20 minutes

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31
Q

What is the phraseology for load jettison on the MH-65?

A

Pickle

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32
Q

The _____ ____ is the primary device for hoisting individuals in most situations. It affords a measure of protection for the individual being hoisted from vessel rigging, etc., particularly for an untrained person on the MH-65D?

A

Rescue Basket

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33
Q

The aircraft’s current position is displayed on what CDU page on the MH-65?

A

PROG page

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34
Q

The MGB and TGB are serviced with _____?

A

6086

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35
Q

What is the phraseology response when checking the landing gear position on the landing/hover checklist on the MH-65?

A

Confirmed down (PAC/SP/FM)

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36
Q

The weak link is a safety device used between the trail line and the hoist hook which protects the helicopter by no allowing more than ____ pounds of force to be applied to the hoist.

A

300

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37
Q

MADPU is the acronym for ____________ __________ double pick up.

A

Military Aviator

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38
Q

Fuel load is limited to ___________ lbs during hot refueling on the MH-65.

A

1500

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39
Q

The hoist hook shall be in the UNLOCKED position for what type of hoist on the MH-65?

A

Bare hook recoveries of the rescue swimmer

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40
Q

Multiple hot refueling operation are allowed so long as total flight time does not exceed _____ hours?

A

6

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41
Q

What is the maximum angle of bank with NR in hi for the MH-65?

A

40 degrees

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42
Q

Moving the spike suppression switch to “START PROTECTION” places the battery in what with DC external power?

A

Parallel

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43
Q

What is the maximum load limit per square feet in the cabin area in a MH-65?

A

125 lbs/sq. ft.

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44
Q

When shall the hoist hook be in the unlocked position?

A

During bare hook recovery

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45
Q

The flight mech shall stand by the sliding door until on the MH-65?

A

40 knots and a positive rate of climb

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46
Q

In rescue situations where the survivor is not ambulatory, what rescue device should be used?

A

Litter

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47
Q

Boost pumps #1 and #3 provide pressure to what in the MH-65?

A

1 engine

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48
Q

The rescue hoist can be used to deliver “Small internal loads” to a Coast Guard cutter. True/False

A

True

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49
Q

Can Rescue check part 2 be completed on deck on the MH-65?

A

No

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50
Q

What must be done if the crew raft is to be deployed from the MH-65?

A

Disconnect tether line

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51
Q

During hot refuel operations, place as much distance between the refueling source and helicopter as the hose will permit. This should be at least ____.

A

50 feet

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52
Q

The maximum cargo hook load is ____ in the MH-65.

A

2,000 LBS

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53
Q

Emergency procedures can be practiced with the RS on the hook. True/False

A

False

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54
Q

The secondary hydraulic reservoir has a capacity of ______ gallons in the MH-65?

A

2.1

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55
Q

The handheld hoist pendant is fitted with a 7.5 foot coiled cord to provide the operator with mobility during a hoist procedure in the MH-65. True/False

A

True

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56
Q

When using the quick strop the side with the red webbing and reflective tape should be placed?

A

Facing outward and placed second on the hook

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57
Q

Use of HIP/SARM beyond _____ will require engine maintenance in the MH-65?

A

30 min

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58
Q

SADPU is the acronym for ______ _____ Double Pick Up.

A

Sling Augmented

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59
Q

The trail line prevents sailing and swinging of the rescue device during a high hoist or when the rescue device needs to be lowered to a restricted location. True/False

A

True

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60
Q

How far should the rescue devices be placed from the swimmer and survivor during recovery?

A

5-10 feet

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61
Q

What is considered transition flight in the MH-65?

A

Flight from zero to 80 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS)

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62
Q

During hoisting with no load (only the rescue device attached), what is the REQUIRED rest period between delivery and recovery with the MH-65?

A

None required

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63
Q

The BOOM STOW switch will operate regardless of MASTER or EMERGENCY switch position, as long as the #1 MAIN DC BUS is power. True/False

A

True

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64
Q

You are performing a trail line hoist. The device is through rigging on board the vessel that represents a snag hazard. Are you committed?

A

Yes

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65
Q

Circuit breakers of associated components should only be reset one time. True/False

A

True

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66
Q

The landing gear shall be _____ whenever the cargo hook is installed.

A

Down

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67
Q

What is the maximum speed for sliding door movement?

A

80 kts

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68
Q

What is the maximum airspeed with floats armed?

A

90

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69
Q

What is the maximum permissible load for the hoist?

A

600 lbs

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70
Q

During hoisting with a normal load of 300 lbs or less, what is the required rest period between delivery and recovery?

A

10 sec

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71
Q

A fully charged aircraft battery gives off how many volts?

A

24V

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72
Q

What is the fixed rate speed of the hoist when operated from the pilot’s collective control?

A

Fixed rate of 100 fpm

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73
Q

When should RESCUE CHECK PART 1 be accomplished?

A

At altitude

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74
Q

The Correct phraseology after the basket is well clear of deck and rigging, IAW the 1H-65D-1, is ___________.

A

Basket clear of vessel, clear to move ___ (as brief)

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75
Q

During external load operations, what is the standard command for releasing cargo?

A

Clear to Release

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76
Q

What is the emergency blow down bottle for landing gear serviced with?

A

May be serviced with nitrogen or dry compressed air

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77
Q

When is the Rescue Swimmer radio check to be completed?

A

During hoist check

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78
Q

During preflight, the engine oil level will be visible between the ______ and the ________ (without shaking the aircraft)

A

Bottom of the sight class/MIN line more than 15 minutes after shut down

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79
Q

Hoisting device must be placed ___ to ___ feet from survivor and rescue swimmer.

A

5-10 feet

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80
Q

What is the length of the triple-strand polypropylene trail line?

A

105 feet

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81
Q

What is the slope limitation for landing and stopping the rotor for the MH-65D?

A

10 degrees

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82
Q

What is the objective when hoisting?

A

To minimize the time spent in a hover due to single engine risk

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83
Q

Who is authorized to be used as a duck?

A

Active Duty Personnel, Qualified members of the Media

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84
Q

If the PIC determines that pilot NVG use would increase safety for personnel near the rotor arc, pilot may keep their NVGs in use. True/False

A

True

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85
Q

When NR drops below _____ rpm a 3 Hz tone is heard.

A

345

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86
Q

The trail line is _____ feet long.

A

105

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87
Q

What power setting must you be below in order to return the Training switch to normal position?

A

8

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88
Q

During engine rinse, what is the max permissible N1 decrease of the idled engine?

A

10%

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89
Q

Dynamically the main rotor blade can drop to ________.

A

5’2”

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90
Q

What is the maximum braking time for the rotor brake?

A

13 seconds

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91
Q

How many magnetic plugs are on each engine oil system?

A

3

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92
Q

What is the minimum flotation bottle pressure?

A

3100

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93
Q

What is required after cargo hook installation?

A

Landing gear to stay down

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94
Q

The use of the HSD is _______?

A

Used at the discretion of the RS

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95
Q

The chest strap on the rescue sling shall be used by all personnel with the exception of whom?

A

Rescue Swimmer

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96
Q

What is the minimum batter voltage required for battery start?

A

17 volts

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97
Q

The preferred emergency recovery method of the RS is?

A

rescue basket

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98
Q

If the aircrew observes a hazard to RS in the water, hoisting of the RS should be initiated by?

A

Place the rescue device or bare hook between the RS and the hazard

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99
Q

“ADVISE PILOT” is bold face in both the hoist electrical runaway and hoist failure emergency procedures. True/False

A

True

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100
Q

The hoist hook shall be locked during what rescue swimmer evolution?

A

Direct deployment to a vertical surface

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101
Q

For a catenary deployment of the Rescue Swimmer the correct placement of the swimmer and survivor is?

A

2-3 o’clock just outside the rotor wash

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102
Q

On startup, what do you do for a steady GOV light on the WCA?

A

Abort start

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103
Q

The flight mechanic’s RESCUE CHECK is divided into how many parts?

A

3

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104
Q

In AEO mode the Power Limit for Max Takeoff is?

A

10

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105
Q

The alternators will fail if the MRH rpm drops below ______.

A

320-330

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106
Q

The Sliding Door shall be opened ____.

A

Below 200 feet at 40 knots or less when over the water

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107
Q

What is the maximum permissible load for the hoist?

A

600

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108
Q

What is the total useable length of the hoist cable?

A

245

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109
Q

During the deployment of the rescue swimmer (except for free fall deployments) in high winds the rotor was may be displaced aft. In any event do not place the rescue swimmer closer than ___ from the survivor.

A

5’

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110
Q

During a DAY LOST SWIMMER emergency, after establishing a right hand orbit you should.

A

Look and listen for RS Signal

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111
Q

During RESCUE CHECK PART 3, the Flight Mechanic shall stand close the cabin door and stand by until a safe single engine speed of ____ and a ____ of climb are achieved.

A

40 KIAS, No rate

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112
Q

Main landing gear operate at what PSI?

A

2000 psi

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113
Q

What is hoist cable foot-per-minute speed for the 10-foot extremities when operated from the pilot’s collective control?

A

Fixed rate of 50 fpm

Unit Stan Test

114
Q

When doing an indirect pump deployment, the non-weak link end of the trail line is clipped to ______.

A

The two pump bridle “D’ rings

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115
Q

The aircrafts wheels must be down during all over water evolutions (approaches, CASTCH, etc.)? True/False

A

False

Unit Stan Test

116
Q

The rescue hoist operates at what psi?

A

3000

Unit Stan Test

117
Q

Engine oil should be checked within ____ after shut down?

A

15

Unit Stan Test

118
Q

If the aircraft has been damaged and the engineering officer or other qualified maintenance officer has evaluated the damage to be non-structural or cosmetic, the ___ may clear the aircraft for further flight.

A

Commanding Officer

Unit Stan Test

119
Q

Off duty time must be such that it allows a minimum of ____ of bed rest.

A

8

Unit Stan Test

120
Q

For SAR missions in which saving life is probable, the crew rest requirements and limits may be waived by the ____ on a calculated risk basis. this authority may not be delegated.

A

CO

Unit Stan Test

121
Q

Approved litters aboard cutters or at Small Boat stations shall be marked as ______.

A

helicopter hoistable

Unit Stan Test

122
Q

The use of personal firearms on Coast Guard aircraft is prohibited. True/False

A

True

Unit Stan Test

123
Q

Aircrew personnel shall obtain permission from the ___ before donating blood.

A

CO

Unit Stan Test

124
Q

A flight crewmember shall be relieved from all duty for not less than 24 consecutive hours at least once during any ____ consecutive days.

A

8

Unit Stan Test

125
Q

Flights may be made by Coast Guard flight crewmembers while in a leave status and can be logged to meet semiannual training requirements. True/False

A

True

Unit Stan Test

126
Q

If an individual fails a standardization or instrument check, the individual lapses to ___.

A

Unqualified

Unit Stan Test

127
Q

Under normal circumstances, flight personnel shall not fly or participate in low-pressure chamber flights within _____ following SCUBA diving, compressed air dives, or high-pressure chamber evolutions.

A

24 hours

Unit Stan Test

128
Q

Aviation personnel are restricted from aerial flight for ___ hours after last alcohol use and must have no residual effects.

A

12 hours

Unit Stan Test

129
Q

H-65 aircraft shall avoid flight through known icing conditions. True/False

A

True

Unit Stan Test

130
Q

A flight crewmember shall not fly as a crewmember more than ___ hours is any seven consecutive days.

A

50

Unit Stan Test

131
Q

In unpressurized aircraft, oxygen shall be used at all altitudes above ____ feet above mean sea level (MSL).

A

10,000

Unit Stan Test

132
Q

Aircraft personnel should consult their ____ when the slightest doubt as to their fitness exists.

A

Flight Surgeon or Other Doctor

Unit Stan Test

133
Q

The primary responsibility and authority for the operation of Coast Guard aircraft is vested in the _____.

A

Commandant

Unit Stan Test

134
Q

The ____ is responsible for the safe, orderly, efficient, and effective performance of the aircraft and aircrew and passengers during the entire mission, whether it is a single sortie from home station or many sorties while deployed away from home.

A

PIC

Unit Stan Test

135
Q

Who is the CG’s Primary reviewer for aircraft modification and changes?

A

ACCB

Unit Stan Test

136
Q

_____ allows randomly selected aviators to form a disciplined, coordinated crew on any aircraft in which they have been designated as qualified in type and model.

A

Standardization

Unit Stan Test

137
Q

_____ develops and promulgates standardized flight procedures. It evaluates adherence to these procedures through annual Standardization Program Visits to all operational units.

A

ATC Mobile, AL

Unit Stan Test

138
Q

If a precautionary landing is made away from home station observed or suspected aircraft malfunction or damage, the ____ shall ensure that a proper inspection of the aircraft is conducted by competent maintenance personnel and the results reported to the home stations engineering officer or other qualified maintenance officer.

A

PIC

Unit Stan Test

139
Q

The _____ is responsible for the safe, orderly, efficient, and effective performance of the aircraft, aircrew, and passengers during the entire mission, whether it is a single sortie form home station or many sorties while deployed away from home.

A

PIC

Unit Stan Test

140
Q

The minimum aircrew required for a day HH-65 SAR flight is ____.

A

Flight Mechanic

Unit Stan Test

141
Q

A new 24-hour period will begin any time a crewmember has completed _____ of rest, regardless of duty status.

A

10

Unit Stan Test

142
Q

How many hours of off duty time are required for individual flight time of 7 hours?

A

12 hours

Unit Stan Test

143
Q

How many hours of off duty time are required for crew mission time of 10 hours?

A

10 hours

Unit Stan Test

144
Q

How many hours of off duty time are required for individual flight time of 6 hours for two or more consecutive days?

A

12 hours

Unit Stan Test

145
Q

Off duty time must be such that it allows a minimum of ______ of bed rest.

A

8 hours

Unit Stan Test

146
Q

If adequate crew rest facilities are not available between multiple sorties, crew mission time shall continue to accrue. True/False

A

True

Unit Stan Test

147
Q

One half of the number of flight hours spent deadheading shall count as mission time. True/False

A

True

Unit Stan Test

148
Q

An aircraft may continue flight operations so long as no member of the minimum crew required for the mission exceeds the individual flight time or crew mission time limits. True/False

A

True

Unit Stan Test

149
Q

A flight crewmember shall be relieved from all duty for not less than 24 consecutive hours at least once during any ______ consecutive days (192 hours).

A

8

Unit Stan Test

150
Q

A flight cremember shall not fly as a crewmember more than _____ hours in any seven consecutive days.

A

50

Unit Stan Test

151
Q

For SAR mission in which saving life is probable, the crew rest requirement and limits may be waived by the ____ on a calculated risk basis. This authority may not be delegated .

A

Commanding Officer

Unit Stan Test

152
Q

Aviation personnel are restricted from aerial flight for _____ hours after last use of alcohol and must have no residual effects.

A

12

Unit Stan Test

153
Q

Aircrew personnel shall obtain permission from the ____ before donating blood.

A

Commanding Officer

Unit Stan Test

154
Q

Aircrew personnel should not be permitted to engage in flights above 35,000 feet, night flying, or other demanding flights for a period of _____ after blood donation.

A

7 days

Unit Stan Test

155
Q

Under normal circumstances, flight personnel shall not fly or participate in low-pressure chamber flights within _____ following SCUBA diving, compressed air dives, or High-pressure chamber evolutions.

A

24 hours

Unit Stan Test

156
Q

Egress breathing device training does not limit personnel from flight or low pressure chamber training. True/False

A

True

Unit Stan Test

157
Q

Standard takeoff minimums are meteorological visibility of _____ statute mile for non-operational missions: and meteorological visibility of _____ statute mile for operational missions.

A

1/2
1/4

Unit Stan Test

158
Q

H-65 aircraft shall avoid flight through known icing conditions. True/False

A

True

Unit Stan Test

159
Q

NVGs shall not be used during takeoff/landing except when conducting specifically authorized _____ operations.

A

Level II NVG

Unit Stan Test

160
Q

Handguns carried by flight crewmembers shall be carried with _____

A

Magazine inserted, round chambered, decocked, with the decocking or safety lever in the SAFE position

Unit Stan Test

161
Q

The use of personal firearms on Coast Guard aircraft is prohibited. True/False

A

True

Unit Stan Test

162
Q

Transportation of privately owned/eased vehicles, including automobiles, motorcycles, and boast, aboard Coast Guard Aircraft, is ____.

A

Prohibited

Unit Stan Test

163
Q

If not current, rotary wing aircrews must complete SWET within ____ days of arrival at a unit.

A

60

164
Q

The LPU-26PE may be used as a survival vest, but not as an egress breathing device by who have not completed the initial and recurrent shallow water egress training (SWET). True/False

A

True

Unit Stan Test

165
Q

In unpressurized aircraft, oxygen shall be used at all altitudes above ______ feet above mean sea level (MSL).

A

10,000

Unit Stan Test

166
Q

When no oxygen equipment is available, an unpressurized aircraft may ascend to 12,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) provided it does not remain above 10,000 feet MSL for more than ____.

A

.5

Unit Stan Test

167
Q

Personnel hoisting devices maintained at air stations shall be enrolled in____.

A

AMCS

Unit Stan Test

168
Q

Flights may be made by Coast Guard flight crewmembers while in a leave status and can be logged to meet semiannual training requirements. True/False

A

True

Unit Stan Test

169
Q

Flight made while in a leave status may not be considered as meeting minimum flight requirements for crediting of flight pay True/False

A

True

Unit Stan Test

170
Q

Instructor/Flight Examiner designations lapse upon PCS. True/False

A

True

Unit Stan Test

171
Q

If an individual fails a standardization or instrument checks, the individual lapses to ____.

A

Unqualified

Unit Stan Test

172
Q

Any pilot or other crew member who has not flown in his or her primary crew position (in flight or in an approved simulator) during the previous ___ days will be required to fly a warm up flight prior to flying in that crew position on an operational mission.

A

30

Unit Stan Test

173
Q

helicopter crew members shall attend 9D5 training at least once every ____ months.

A

75

Unit Stan Test

174
Q

Is gravity hot refueling an authorized method of refueling?

A

No

Unit Stan Test

175
Q

Repetitive hot refueling an MH/HH-65 aircraft should not routinely exceed how many hours?

A

6

Unit Stan Test

176
Q

In the even of a leak or fuel spill while hot refueling aboard ship, what should happen?

A

Secure the JP-5 pump, secure and evacuate the helicopter

Unit Stan Test

177
Q

What is the marking on the flight deck where the HIFR rig is to be delivered to/retrieved from a Coast Guard cutter flight deck?

A

H

Unit Stan Test

178
Q

What is the signal from the LSO when the JP-5 pump is secured?

A

Red flag/paddle over green flag/paddle

Unit Stan Test

179
Q

What is the signal from the LSO that the JP-5 pump is pumping?

A

Green flag/paddle over Red flag/paddle

Unit Stan Test

180
Q

what is the only aviation fuel authorized for use aboard Coast Guard cutters?

A

JP-5

Unit Stan Test

181
Q

What is the color helmet, jersey and vest of the LSO should wear?

A

Yellow helmet, yellow jersey, and yellow vest

Unit Stan Test

182
Q

What is the color of the helmet, jersey, and vest of the tiedown crew should wear?

A

Blue helmet, blue jersey, blue vest

Unit Stan Test

183
Q

What is the color of the helmet, jersey and vest of the fire party should wear?

A

Red helmet, red jersey, red vest

Unit Stan Test

184
Q

What is the color of the helmet, jersey and vest of the Fuel detail crew should wear?

A

Purple Helmet, purple jersey, purple vest

Unit Stan Test

185
Q

What is the color of the helmet, jersey and vest of the Medical Detail should wear?

A

White helmet, white jersey, white vest

Unit Stan Test

186
Q

What does the AMBER deck status light mean?

A

Helicopter is cleared to start engines and engage/disengage rotors

Unit Stan Test

187
Q

What does the RED deck status light mean?

A

Helicopter is not cleared

Unit Stan Test

188
Q

What does the Green deck status light mean?

A

Helicopter is cleared to perform the desired evolution

Unit Stan Test

189
Q

How many standard aircraft cargo strap assemblies are used on the tail boom for heavy weather tiedowns?

A

2

Unit Stan Test

190
Q

What is the only signal from the LSO that is mandatory for the pilots?

A

Wave-off

Unit Stan Test

191
Q

Are the deck status lights to be used during NVG operations?

A

No

Unit Stan Test

192
Q

Primary tiedowns are installed on which Tiedown rings on the MH/HH-65?

A

Forward Tiedown rings and aft tiedown rings (just above the MLG

Unit Stan Test

193
Q

If the aircraft is to be spotted on the flight deck for more than ____ after shut down or before start up, primary tiedowns shall be installed with enough slack to allow the structs to decompress and the TALON system disengaged to release pressure on the landing gear struts.

A

1 hours

Unit Stan Test

194
Q

The flight deck shall be completely free of _____ to operate or traverse a helicopter without tiedowns.

A

Ice and snow

Unit Stan Test

195
Q

What are the two types of primary tiedown assemblies?

A

Upper and lower

Unit Stan Test

196
Q

How many people are required to manually traverse a helicopter?

A

9

Unit Stan Test

197
Q

What must all involved personnel be equipped with during traversing evolutions?

A

whistle

Unit Stan Test

198
Q

The Flight Deck Director (FDD) for helicopter traversing shall normally be?

A

One of the pilots or the senior enlisted member AVDET

Unit Stan Test

199
Q

The Brake Rider for helicopter traversing shall normally be

A

PIC

Unit Stan Test

200
Q

What shall the Brake Rider wear when the helicopter is moved on a ship?

A

Cranial or helmet and inflatable vest

Unit Stan Test

201
Q

Who shall the Driver normally be for helicopter traversing?

A

A member of the AVDET

Unit Stan Test

202
Q

The primary hydraulic system operates at what pressure?

A

870

Unit Stan Test

203
Q

How many chip detectors on each engine?

A

1

Unit Stan Test

204
Q

What is the normal operating pressure of the secondary hydraulic system?

A

3000

Unit Stan Test

205
Q

How many volts does the aircraft battery supply?

A

24

Unit Stan Test

206
Q

What is the capacity of the primary hydraulic reservoir?

A

1 gallon

Unit Stan Test

207
Q

The primary hydraulic filter clogging indicator is located on the regulation manifold? True/False

A

True

Unit Stan Test

208
Q

The primary hydraulic system supplies a rated pressure of 870 PSI to the _____ bodies of the main rotor flight control servos and the _____ body of the tail rotor control servo.

A

Upper
Right

Unit Stan Test

209
Q

The secondary hydraulic reservoir has a capacity of 2.5 Gallons? True/False

A

False

Unit Stan Test

210
Q

The secondary hydraulic system supplies fluid at _____ psi to the landing gear.

A

2000

Unit Stan Test

211
Q

The isolation valves may be activated by the TAIL HYD ISOLATE switch, mounted on the overhead control panel, to the ______ position.

A

Cutoff

Unit Stan Test

212
Q

The nose landing gear assembly is dual wheel, _____ degree swiveling-type gear.

A

360

Unit Stan Test

213
Q

What indication is given outside the helicopter that the nosewheel is in the locked position?

A

Red metal flag

Unit Stan Test

214
Q

A blue light, mounted externally on the fuselage and forward of the nose gear, illuminates to confirm to a ground observer that all wheels are down and locked. (True/False)

A

True

Unit Stan Test

215
Q

The hoist is capable of lifting _____ pounds.

A

600

Unit Stan Test

216
Q

The hoist is hydraulically raised and lowered utilizing ______ PSI from the secondary hydraulic system.

A

3000

Unit Stan Test

217
Q

What is the total usable length of the hoist cable?

A

245 ft

Unit Stan Test

218
Q

The hoist assembly is mounted on the ______-driven pivoting boom.

A

electrically

Unit Stan Test

219
Q

The guarded EMERGENCY HOIST POWER switch provides power directly from the ______ should the electrical system fail.

A

Battery

Unit Stan Test

220
Q

Hoist rate in the manual mode is preset at ______.

A

50 fpm

Unit Stan Test

221
Q

How many positions are there for the HOIST master switch on the overhead control panel?

A

3

Unit Stan Test

222
Q

How many modules are there on the engine?

A

5

Unit Stan Test

223
Q

What component provides overspeed protection to the engines?

A

BIM

Unit Stan Test

224
Q

The TOT for each engine is measured at the free power turbine inlet by ______ dual-thermocouples connected to a temperature conformation box.

A

8

Unit Stan Test

225
Q

Where is the engine oil temperature sensor located?

A

Downstream of the oil tank

Unit Stan Test

226
Q

The engine fuel pump is a ____ ____ ____.

A

Dual stage pump

Unit Stan Test

227
Q

Where is the fuel filter located?

A

Before the high-pressure pump

Unit Stan Test

228
Q

The engine oil pump unit is made up of a rotor pump and three scavenger elements all driven on the same shaft.(True/False)

A

True

Unit Stan Test

229
Q

Proper engine oils servicing levels will be checked within ___ minutes of shutdown dues to draining from the oil tank to the engine gearbox.

A

15

Unit Stan Test

230
Q

How many engine oil coolers are there?

A

2

Unit Stan Test

231
Q

Where are the DECUs located?

A

Baggage compartment

Unit Stan Test

232
Q

Where are FADEC backup switches located

A

Overhead quadrant

Unit Stan Test

233
Q

What is the RED Pie Symbol on the VEMD?

A

OEI HI

Unit Stan Test

234
Q

Under normal operations, the top LCD of the VEMD will display the System Status Page. True/False

A

False

Unit Stan Test

235
Q

Which page are hydraulic pressures displayed on the VEMD?

A

Vehicle Page

Unit Stan Test

236
Q

Where is the MGB oil sight gauge located?

A

Forward, lower, right

Unit Stan Test

237
Q

The left accessory gearbox drives the secondary hydraulic pump and the No. 1 alternator. True/False

A

True

Unit Stan Test

238
Q

How many lubricating systems does the MGB have?

A

2

Unit Stan Test

239
Q

How is the TGB lubricated?

A

Splash lubricated

Unit Stan Test

240
Q

How are the Main Rotor Blades attached?

A

Pins

Unit Stan Test

241
Q

The no. 1 fuel system has three cells: the right forward, left forward, and _____.

A

Left Center

Unit Stan Test

242
Q

How many boost pumps are located in each fuel system’s feed tank?

A

2

Unit Stan Test

243
Q

Moving the EMERGENCY CUTOFF switch down (off) opens the battery relays and disconnects both generators and both alternators. True/False

A

True

Unit Stan Test

244
Q

Where is the spike suppression switch located?

A

Forward right chine panel

Unit Stan Test

245
Q

What temperatures are engine fire detectors rated?

A

200 C and 400 C

Unit Stan Test

246
Q

Depressing the primary (PRI) fire extinguishing pushbutton for the #1 engine will discharge the right extinguisher into the left engine compartment. True/False

A

False

Unit Stan Test

247
Q

The float bottles are filled with _____.

A

Helium

Unit Stan Test

248
Q

What is the cargo hook rated at?

A

2000 lbs

Unit Stan Test

249
Q

The wheel brake accumulator is charged by placing the ELEC PMP switch in the “Test” position. True/False

A

False

Unit Stan Test

250
Q

How many people are required for towing the MH-65?

A

4

Unit Stan Test

251
Q

What is the maximum pressure for single-point pressure refueling?

A

55

Unit Stan Test

252
Q

How many people are required for hot refuel?

A

4

Unit Stan Test

253
Q

What is the proper oil for servicing the engines?

A

Mobil Jet 254

Unit Stan Test

254
Q

What hydraulic fluid is used on the aircraft?

A

Mil-H-83282

Unit Stan Test

255
Q

What oil is used to service the MGB and TGB?

A

MIL-PRF 6086E Grade M

Unit Stan Test

256
Q

What is the minimum distance between the aircraft and the refueling source during a hot refuel?

A

50ft

Unit Stan Test

257
Q

What is the maximum duel load in pounds that may be achieved during hot refueling operations?

A

1500

Unit Stan Test

258
Q

The towing speed of the aircraft shall not exceed that of the walking team members Ture/False

A

True

Unit Stan Test

259
Q

Where is the external air conditioning receptacle located?

A

Left side forward of the ECS exhaust port

Unit Stan Test

Archive (12 decks)

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