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Archive > Stan Unit Test 2020 > Flashcards

Stan Unit Test 2020 Flashcards

1
Q

______ means extended flight is not recommended. The landing site and duration of the flight is at the discretion of the Pilot-in-Command (PIC).

A

Land as soon a practicable

Stan Unit Test 2020

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2
Q

How many seconds do you wait during cycle of a circuit breaker for an emergency procedure?

A

15 seconds

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3
Q

The first step in a MGB failure imminent is

A

200 foot checklist complete

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4
Q

What is the landing criteria for MGB fire that has NOT been confirmed?

A

Land as soon as possible

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5
Q

After completion of the 200 foot checklist, the next step in known or suspected aircraft damage/abnormal vibrations if moderate is?

A

Land as soon as possible

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6
Q

The title of Flight Mechanic in the MH-65D is a designation. (True/False)

A

False

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7
Q

The title of Basic Aircrew is a designation. (True/False)

A

True

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8
Q

Who has the authority to revoke a designation and qualification?

A

CO

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9
Q

Aviation mission specialist insignia are authorized to be worn permanently once an individual accumulates how many flight hours?

A
  • 200 rotary wing
  • 400 fixed wing

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10
Q

Who approves flight syllabi for all pilots and crew member designations?

A

CG-711

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11
Q

What is the fourth step of ENGINE COMPARTMENT FIRE ONDECK?

A

Boost Pumps - All off

Stan Unit Test 2020

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12
Q

The manual override (_______) shall be closed when the rescue device/RS is in the cabin to prevent hoist creep.

A

Step 1 valve

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13
Q

If you have smoke in the cabin, after securing heat and/or cool (HEAT/COOL SWITCHES - OFF), what shall you do next?

A

Ram air, cabin sliding door, and CP window - Open

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14
Q

Aircrew dry coverall (ADC) undergarments, ______ undergarments are not authorized to wear with the ADC as they will absorb preservation and make the person subject to chill, hypothermia, and frostbite.

A

Cotton

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15
Q

With the cockpit hoist master switch OFF, who has ability to shear the hoist cable?

A

No one

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16
Q

Rescue Checks are divided into _____ parts.

A

3

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17
Q

When inflated, the crew life raft is a dual-tube raft with a self-erecting canopy that supports a normal capacity of ______ persons but has a overload capacity of _____ persons.

A
  • 6
  • 9

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18
Q

Due to safety features, an engine won’t start unless the R. BK button is depressed (ON) or ______.

A

Rotor brake is off

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19
Q

If either VEMD screen fails, the remaining screen will be scrollable between FLI, Vehicle, and ______ pages.

A

Fuel/Caution

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20
Q

Each engine is provided N2 overspeed protection by its respective DECU in conjunction with the Engine Interface Unit (BIM) located _______.

A

in the baggage compartment.

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21
Q

Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury or loss of life is not carefully followed is the definition of a _____.

A

warning

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22
Q

Normally which CHECKLIST will not be completed with RESCUE CHECKS are in progress?

A

Landing/Hover Checklist

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23
Q

When octagram (eight-point star symbol) items have been placed in checklists after completing once, may be allowed to be omitted during the subsequent checklist?

A

True

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24
Q

What altitude should pilots avoid setting their RADALT bugs at?

A
  • 40 feet
  • 200 feet

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25
Q

Where should the engine oil level be on preflight without shaking the aircraft?

A

Between the bottom of sight glass and min line

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26
Q

Who may authorize removal of safety belts?

A

PIC

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27
Q

Our Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) primarily transmits a signal on what international distress frequencies?

A
  • 121.5 MHz
  • 406 MHz

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28
Q

The Master Warning lights and the “OIL TEMP” warning light will illuminate if either engine oil exceeds 105 degrees Celsius. (True/False)

A

False it is 115 degrees Celsius

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29
Q

Approximately what is the maximum capacity of each engine oil tank on the MH-65D?

A

2 Gallons

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30
Q

Each channel of the DECU contains identical software. If both channels enter a failed state, what kind of FADEC failure has occurred?

A

Major FADEC fail

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31
Q

Which calendar year requirement lapses upon PCS?

A

Operational Hazard Awareness Training

Stan Unit Test 2020

32
Q

Each crewmember shall have performed the duties in their designated crew position inflight at least once within the preceding ____ months?

A

6

Stan Unit Test 2020

33
Q

A resignation memo shall be signed by whom and maintained in the aircrew training record?

A

CO

Stan Unit Test 2020

34
Q

If the member has no flights in the aircraft type they are designated within the preceding ___ calendar months, the member must complete an approved designation or re-designation syllabus.

A

12

Stan Unit Test 2020

35
Q

If a member has not flown within the previous six calendar months, a standardization check flight is required for re-designation. (True/False)

A

True

Stan Unit Test 2020

36
Q

Who shall approves entry into a qualification syllabus?

A

CO

Stan Unit Test 2020

37
Q

Aircrew should consult who when they have the slightest doubt as to their fitness and requesting temporary grounding?

A

Flight surgeon

Stan Unit Test 2020

38
Q

Aircrew personnel shall temporarily ground following involvement in what type of mishaps?

A
  • Class A
  • Class B

Stan Unit Test 2020

39
Q

Who must evaluate aircrew personnel to find them physically qualified and aeronautically adaptable for aviation duties prior to resuming flight status?

A

Flight Surgeon

Stan Unit Test 2020

40
Q

At who’s discretion can aircrew members be temporarily grounded following Class C or Class D mishaps?

A

CO

Stan Unit Test 2020

41
Q

Recovery and salvage of a mishap aircraft and the assignment of a salvage officer is the responsibility of the reporting custodian (normally the ___ of the Coast Guard aviation unit or Coast Guard cutter with a deployed aircraft).

A

CO

Stan Unit Test 2020

42
Q

Use of VFDR data for maintenance troubleshooting is not authorized IAW Safety and Environmental Health Manual, COMDINSTR M5100.47 (series). (True/False)

A

False

Stan Unit Test 2020

43
Q

Only the Engineering Officer can authorized aircraft flights without a VFDR. (True/False)

A

True

Stan Unit Test 2020

44
Q

Who shall ensure all non-aircrew mission essential personnel are equip with the appropriate protective, equipment, or any other mission applicable safety equipment?

A

PIC

Stan Unit Test 2020

45
Q

Unit _____ shall ensure flight equipment is maintained IAW manufacturer’s standards or guidance of Coast Guard Aviation Life Support Equipment (ALSE) Manual?

A

EO

Stan Unit Test 2020

46
Q

Individuals who have flown in a simulator should not be scheduled to fly for ____ hours following the simulator exposure.

A

24

Stan Unit Test 2020

47
Q

When should Rescue Check Part 1 be accomplished?

A

At altitude

Stan Unit Test 2020

48
Q

When should Rescue Check Part 2 be accomplished?

A

Hover established

Stan Unit Test 2020

49
Q

When should Rescue Check Part 3 be accomplished?

A

Accomplished at the end of all hoisting

Stan Unit Test 2020

50
Q

Which door position is determined for departure and forward flight after “Ready for Forward Flight, Departure Brief.”?

A

Recommended Closed

Stan Unit Test 2020

51
Q

If the hoist cable has parted, careful consideration should be given to continuing the use of the hoist cable/quick splice and should only be done _______.

A

In extreme circumstances

Stan Unit Test 2020

52
Q

The flight mechanic or passenger must wear the gunner’s belt snug around the _____ to prevent inadvertent release to the latch mechanism.

A

Waist

Stan Unit Test 2020

53
Q

The gunner’s belt shall be worn with the leather flap on the wearer’s _____ to facilitate a _____-hand release.

A
  • Left
  • Right

Stan Unit Test 2020

54
Q

When transitioning to and from a seat harness and a gunner’s belt, aircrew and passengers should remain secured to the aircraft at all times. (True/False)

A

True

Stan Unit Test 2020

55
Q

What is the required hoist rest peroid for a heavy load (300+) of any length of cable?

A

30 sec

Stan Unit Test 2020

56
Q

Each pilot and aircrew member designated in rotary-wing aircraft shall have completed Underwater Egress Training (Dunker) with no critical failure with the proceeding _____ calendar months.

A

75

Stan Unit Test 2020

57
Q

Each crew member shall have performed his or her designated crew position in-flight at least once within the preceding _____ months.

A

6

Stan Unit Test 2020

58
Q

Two boost pumps located in the fuel supply system feed tanks are incorporated into each fuel system to _____ and aid in the delivery of fuel to the engine-driven fuel pump.

A

Pressurize fuel lines

Stan Unit Test 2020

59
Q

How many fire detectors are located in each engine compartment?

A

3

Stan Unit Test 2020

60
Q

Under normal conditions, what are the two indictions of the landing gear being down and locked?

A
  • Three green arrows on monitoring panel
  • LDG LOCK annunciation on VEMD Fuel/Caution page

Stan Unit Test 2020

61
Q

When does the Heating Shut-off Valve (SOV) get checked?

A

First Flight of the Day checks

Stan Unit Test 2020

62
Q

Rescue sling chest retainer strap _____ be stowed prior to deployment.

A

Shall

Stan Unit Test 2020

63
Q

The Host Static Discharge (HSD) cable shall only be attached to _____. Attachment to personnel or rescue devices may cause serious injury.

A

Rescue hoist hook

Stan Unit Test 2020

64
Q

Which device is intended for hoist survivors during helicopter rescue operations and affords a measure of protection for individual being hoisted?

A

Basket

Stan Unit Test 2020

65
Q

Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.

A

Caution

Stan Unit Test 2020

66
Q

The FLI will switch to the _____ mode whenever N1 on both engines is higher than 40% and there is a difference of at least 6% N1 between two engines.

A

OEI Gov

Stan Unit Test 2020

67
Q

In AEO mode, what does the red diode at 10.7 FLI indicate?

A

Maximum transient power

Stan Unit Test 2020

68
Q

Two _____ convert 115 VAC into 25 VAC for instrument and avionics usage.

A

Transformers

Stan Unit Test 2020

69
Q

How many modules is the Arriel 2C2-CG engine divided into?

A

5

Stan Unit Test 2020

70
Q

With the flight director uncoupled, you can still perform a CATCH? (True/False)

A

False

Stan Unit Test 2020

71
Q

For Lost RS during the day, what step comes after TRANSITION AND ESTABLISH RIGHT ORDBIT?

A

Look and listen for RS signal

Stan Unit Test 2020

72
Q

If you fail to relocate RS at night, what step do you perform next?

A

Complete leaving RS on scene procedure

Stan Unit Test 2020

73
Q

What is the third step of LEAVING RS ONSCENE?

A

Deploy DMB

Stan Unit Test 2020

74
Q

A SAR-capable helicopter providing cover shall have a Rescue Swimmer as part of the aircrew; this requirement may be waived by the unit _____.

A

CO

Stan Unit Test 2020

75
Q

What is the fourth step of ENGINE COMPARTMENT FIRE ONDECK?

A

Boost Pumps - All off

Stan Unit Test 2020

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