Unit J-Cardiac Dysrhythmias with Medications

Question 1

A nurse assesses a client who had a myocardial infarction and has a blood pressure of 88/58 mm Hg. Which additional assessment finding would the nurse expect?

a. Heart rate of 120 beats/min
b. Cool, clammy skin
c. Oxygen saturation of 90%
d. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min

Answer 1

ANS: A
When a client experiences hypotension, baroreceptors in the aortic arch sense a pressure decrease in the vessels. The parasympathetic system responds by lessening the inhibitory effect on the sinoatrial node. This results in an increase in heart rate and respiratory rate. This tachycardia is an early response and is seen even when blood pressure is not critically low. An increased heart rate and respiratory rate will compensate for the low blood pressure and maintain oxygen saturation and perfusion. The client may not be able to compensate for long and decreased oxygenation and cool, clammy skin will occur later.

Question 2

A nurse assesses a client after administering a prescribed beta blocker. Which assessment would the nurse expect to find?

a. Blood pressure increased from 98/42 to 132/60 mm Hg.
b. Respiratory rate decreased from 25 to 14 breaths/min.
c. Oxygen saturation increased from 88% to 96%.
d. Pulse decreased from 100 to 80 beats/min.

Answer 2

ANS: D
Beta blockers block the stimulation of beta1-adrenergic receptors. They block the sympathetic (fight-or-flight) response and decrease the heart rate (HR). The beta blocker will decrease HR and blood pressure, increasing ventricular filling time. It usually does not have effects on beta2-adrenergic receptor sites. Cardiac output may drop because of decreased HR, but slowing the rate may allow for better filling and better cardiac output.

Question 3

A nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client would the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease?

a. An 86-year-old man with a history of asthma.
b. A 32-year-old man with colorectal cancer.
c. A 65-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus.
d. A 53-year-old postmenopausal woman who takes bisphosphonates.

Answer 3

ANS: C
Of the options, the client with diabetes has a two- to four-fold increase in risk for death due to cardiovascular disease. Advancing age also increases risk, but not as much. Asthma, colorectal cancer, and bisphosphonate therapy do not increase the risk for cardiovascular disease.

Question 4

A nurse assesses an older adult client who has multiple chronic diseases. The client’s heart rate is 48 beats/min. What action would the nurse take first?

a. Document the finding in the chart.
b. Initiate external pacing.
c. Assess the client’s medications.
d. Administer 1 mg of atropine.

Answer 4

ANS: C
Pacemaker cells in the conduction system decrease in number as a person ages, potentially resulting in bradycardia. However, the nurse would first check the medication reconciliation for medications that might cause such a drop in heart rate, and then would inform the primary health care provider. Documentation is important, but it is not the first action. The heart rate is not low enough for atropine or an external pacemaker to be needed unless the client is symptomatic, which is not apparent.

Question 5

An emergency department nurse obtains the health history of a client. Which statement by the client would alert the nurse to the occurrence of heart failure?

a. “I get short of breath when I climb stairs.”
b. “I see halos floating around my head.”
c. “I have trouble remembering things.”
d. “I have lost weight over the past month.”

Answer 5

ANS: A
Dyspnea on exertion is an early manifestation of heart failure and is associated with an activity such as stair climbing. The other findings are not specific to early occurrence of heart failure.

Question 6

A nurse obtains the health history of a client who is newly admitted to the medical unit. Which statement by the client would alert the nurse to the presence of edema?

a. “I wake up to go to the bathroom at night.”
b. “My shoes fit tighter by the end of the day.”
c. “I seem to be feeling more anxious lately.”
d. “I drink at least eight glasses of water a day.”

Answer 6

ANS: B
Weight gain can result from fluid accumulation in the interstitial spaces. This is known as edema. The nurse would note whether the client feels that his or her shoes or rings are tight, and would observe, when present, an indentation around the leg where the socks end. The other answers do not describe edema.

Question 7

A nurse assesses female client who is experiencing a myocardial infarction. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect?

a. Excruciating pain on inspiration
b. Left lateral chest wall pain
c. Fatigue and shortness of breath
d. Numbness and tingling of the arm

Answer 7

ANS: C
In women, fatigue, shortness of breath, and indigestion may be the major symptoms of myocardial infarction caused by poor cardiac output. Chest pain is the classic symptom of myocardial infarction and can be present in women. Pain on inspiration may be related to a pleuropulmonary cause. Numbness and tingling of the arm could also be related to the myocardial infarction, but are not known to be specific symptoms for women having and MI.

Question 8

A nurse assesses a client 2 hours after a cardiac angiography via the left femoral artery. The nurse notes that the left pedal pulse is weak. What action would the nurse take next?

a. Elevate the leg and apply a sandbag to the entrance site.
b. Increase the flow rate of intravenous fluids.
c. Assess the color and temperature of the left leg.
d. Document the finding as “left pedal pulse of +1/4.”

Answer 8

ANS: C
Loss of a pulse distal to an angiography entry site is serious, indicating a possible arterial obstruction. The left pulse would be compared with the right, and pulses would be compared with previous assessments, especially before the procedure. Assessing color (pale, cyanosis) and temperature (cool, cold) will identify a decrease in circulation. Once all peripheral and vascular assessment data are acquired, the primary health care provider would be notified. Simply documenting the findings is inappropriate. The leg would be positioned below the level of the heart to increase blood flow to the distal portion of the leg. Increasing intravenous fluids will not address the client’s problem.

Question 9

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering after a left-sided cardiac catheterization. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

a. Urinary output less than intake
b. Bruising at the insertion site
c. Slurred speech and confusion
d. Discomfort in the left leg

Answer 9

ANS: C
A left-sided cardiac catheterization specifically increases the risk for a cerebral vascular accident. A change in neurologic status needs to be acted on immediately. Discomfort and bruising are not unexpected at the site. Urinary output less than intake may or may not be significant

Question 10

A nurse assesses a client who is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Which assessment would the nurse complete as the priority prior to this procedure?

a. Client’s level of anxiety
b. Ability to turn self in bed
c. Cardiac rhythm and heart rate
d. Allergies to iodine-based agents

Answer 10

ANS: D
Before the procedure, the nurse would ascertain whether the client has an allergy to iodine-containing preparations, such as seafood or local anesthetics. The contrast medium used during the procedure is iodine based. This allergy can cause a life-threatening reaction, so it is a high priority. It is important for the nurse to assess anxiety, mobility, and baseline cardiac status, but allergies take priority for client safety

Question 11

A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the heart. The client’s health history includes a previous myocardial infarction and pacemaker implantation. What action would the nurse take?

a. Schedule an electrocardiogram just before the MRI.
b. Notify the primary health care provider before scheduling the MRI.
c. Request lab for cardiac enzymes from the primary health care provider.
d. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake the day before the MRI

Answer 11

ANS: B
The magnetic fields of the MRI can deactivate the pacemaker. The nurse would call the primary health care provider and report that the client has a pacemaker so that he or she can order other diagnostic tests. The client does not need an electrocardiogram, cardiac enzymes, or increased fluids. Some newer MRI scanners have eliminated the possibility of complications due to implants, but the nurse needs to notify the primary health care provider.

Question 12

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The client’s blood pressure is 140/88 mm Hg. What action would the nurse take first?

a. Compare the results with previous blood pressure readings.
b. Increase the intravenous fluid rate because these readings are low.
c. Immediately notify the primary health care provider of the elevated blood pressure.
d. Document the finding in the client’s chart as the only action.

Answer 12

ANS: A
The most recent range for normal blood pressure is less than 140 mm Hg systolic and less than 90mm Hg diastolic. This client’s blood pressure is at the upper range of acceptable, so the nurse would compare the client’s current reading with those previously recorded before doing anything else. The reading is not low, so the nurse would not increase IV fluids, nor would the nurse necessarily notify the primary health care provider. Documentation is important, but the nurse first checks previous readings.

Question 13

A nurse cares for a client who has an 80% blockage of the right coronary artery (RCA) and is scheduled for bypass surgery. Which intervention would the nurse be prepared to implement while this client waits for surgery?

a. Administration of IV furosemide
b. Initiation of an external pacemaker
c. Assistance with endotracheal intubation
d. Placement of central venous access

Answer 13

ANS: B
The RCA supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, inferior portion of the left ventricle, and atrioventricular (AV) node. It also supplies the sinoatrial node in 50% of people. If the client totally occludes the RCA, the AV node would not function and the client would go into heart block, so emergency pacing would be available for the client. Furosemide, intubation, and central venous access will not address the primary complication of RCA occlusion, which is AV node (and possibly SA node) malfunction.

Question 14

A nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus and a body mass index of 42 who is at high risk for coronary artery disease. Which statement related to nutrition would the nurse include in this client’s teaching?

a. “The best way to lose weight is a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.”
b. “You should balance weight loss with consuming necessary nutrients.”
c. “A nutritionist will provide you with information about your new diet.”
d. “If you exercise more frequently, you won’t need to change your diet.”

Answer 14

ANS:B
Clients at risk for cardiovascular diseases should follow the American Heart Association guidelines to combat obesity and improve cardiac health. The nurse would encourage the client to eat vegetables, fruits, unrefined whole-grain products, and fat-free dairy products while losing weight. High-protein food items are often high in fat and calories. Although the nutritionist can assist with client education, the nurse would include nutrition education and assist the client to make healthy decisions. Exercising and eating nutrient-rich foods are both important components in reducing cardiovascular risk

Question 15

A nurse cares for a client who has advanced cardiac disease and states, “I am having trouble breathing while I’m sleeping at night.” What is the nurse’s best response?
a. “I will consult your primary health care provider to prescribe a sleep study.”
b. “You become hypoxic while sleeping; oxygen therapy via nasal cannula will
help.”
c. “A continuous positive airway pressure, or CPAP, breathing mask will help you
breathe at night.”
d. “Use pillows to elevate your head and chest while you are sleeping.”

Answer 15

ANS: D
The client is experiencing orthopnea (shortness of breath while lying flat). The nurse would teach the client to elevate the head and chest with pillows or sleep in a recliner. A sleep study is not necessary to diagnose this client. Oxygen and CPAP will not help a client with orthopnea.

Question 16

A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The client states, “I will need to stop eating so much chili to keep that indigestion pain from returning.” What is
the nurse’s best response?
a. “Chili is high in fat and calories; it would be a good idea to stop eating it.”
b. “The primary health care provider has prescribed an antacid every morning.”
c. “What do you understand about what happened to you?”
d. “When did you start experiencing this indigestion?”

Answer 16

ANS: C
Clients who experience myocardial infarction often respond with denial, which is a defense mechanism. The nurse would ask the client what he or she thinks happened, or what the illness means to him or her. The other responses do not address the client’s misconception about recent pain and the cause of that pain

Question 17

A nurse prepares a client for cardiac catheterization. The client states, “I am afraid I might die.” What is the nurse’s best response?

a. “This is a routine test and the risk of death is very low.”
b. “Would you like to speak with a chaplain prior to test?”
c. “Tell me more about your concerns about the test.”
d. “What support systems do you have to assist you?”

Answer 17

ANS: C
The nurse would discuss the client’s feelings and concerns related to the cardiac catheterization. The nurse would not provide false hope or push the client’s concerns off on the chaplain. The nurse would address support systems after addressing the client’s current issue

Question 18

An emergency department nurse triages clients who present with chest discomfort. Which client would the nurse plan to assess first?

a. Client who describes pain as a dull ache.
b. Client who reports moderate pain that is worse on inspiration.
c. Client who reports cramping substernal pain.
d. Client who describes intense squeezing pressure across the chest.

Answer 18

ANS: D
All clients who have chest pain would be assessed more thoroughly. To determine which client would be seen first, the nurse must understand common differences in pain descriptions. Intense stabbing and viselike (squeezing) substernal pain or pressure that spreads through the client ’s chest, arms, jaw, back, or neck are indicatives of a myocardial infarction. The nurse would plan to see this client first to prevent cardiac cell death. A dull ache, pain that gets worse with inspiration, and cramping pain are not usually associated with myocardial
infarction.

Question 19

A nurse is caring for a client with a history of renal insufficiency who is scheduled for a
cardiac catheterization. What actions would the nurse take prior to the catheterization? (Select
all that apply.)
a. Assess for allergies to iodine.
b. Administer intravenous fluids.
c. Assess blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine results.
d. Insert a Foley catheter.
e. Administer a prophylactic antibiotic.
f. Insert a central venous catheter.

Answer 19

ANS: A,B,C
If the client has kidney disease, fluids may be given 12 to 24 hours before the procedure for renal protection. Hydration would continue after the procedure. The client would be assessed for allergies to iodine, including shellfish; the contrast medium used during the catheterization contains iodine. Baseline renal labs would be assessed. A Foley catheter and central venous catheter are not required for the procedure and would only increase the client’s risk for infection. Prophylactic antibiotics are not administered prior to a cardiac catheterization.

Question 20

An emergency department nurse assesses a female client. Which assessment findings would alert the nurse to request a prescription for an electrocardiogram? (Select all that apply.)

a. Hypertension
b. Fatigue despite adequate rest
c. Indigestion
d. Abdominal pain
e. Shortness of breath

Answer 20

ANS: B,C,E
Women may not have chest pain with myocardial infarction, but may feel discomfort or indigestion. They often present with a triad of symptoms—indigestion or feeling of abdominal fullness, feeling of chronic fatigue despite adequate rest, and feeling unable to catch their breath. Frequently, women are not diagnosed and therefore are not treated adequately. Hypertension and abdominal pain are not associated with acute coronary syndrome.

Question 21

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering after a coronary catheterization. Which assessment findings in the first few hours after the procedure require immediate action by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)

a. Blood pressure of 140/88 mm Hg
b. Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L (2.9 mmol/L)
c. Warmth and redness at the site
d. Expanding groin hematoma
e. Rhythm changes on the cardiac monitor
f. Oxygen saturation 93% on room air

Answer 21

ANS: B,D,E
After a cardiac catheterization, the nurse monitors vital signs, entry site, cardiac function, and distal circulation. The potassium is very low which can lead to dysrhythmias. An expanding hematoma signifies bleeding. Rhythm changes on the monitor are a known complication. These findings would require prompt action. The client’s blood pressure is slightly elevated but does not need immediate action. Warmth and redness at the site would indicate an
infection, but this would not be present in the first few hours. The oxygen saturation is slightly
low but not critical and there is no baseline to compare it to.

Question 22

A nurse reviews a client’s laboratory results. Which findings would alert the nurse to the possibility of atherosclerosis? (Select all that apply.)

a. Total cholesterol: 280 mg/dL (7.3 mmol/L)
b. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 50 mg/dL (1.3 mmol/L)
c. Triglycerides: 200 mg/dL (2.3 mmol/L)
d. Serum albumin: 4 g/dL (5.8 mcmol/L)
e. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 160 mg/dL (4.1 mmol/L)

Answer 22

ANS: A,C,E
A lipid panel is often used to screen for cardiovascular risk. Total cholesterol, triglycerides, and low-density lipoprotein cholesterol levels are all high, indicating higher risk for cardiovascular disease. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol is within the normal range for both males and females. Serum albumin is not assessed for atherosclerosis.

Question 23

A nurse prepares a client for a pharmacologic stress echocardiogram. What actions would the nurse take when preparing this client for the procedure? (Select all that apply.)

a. Assist the primary health care provider to place a central venous access device.
b. Prepare for continuous blood pressure and pulse monitoring.
c. Administer the client’s prescribed beta blocker.
d. Give the client nothing by mouth 3 to 6 hours before the procedure.
e. Explain to the client that dobutamine will simulate exercise for this examination.

Answer 23

ANS: B,D,E
Clients receiving a pharmacologic stress echocardiogram will need peripheral venous access and continuous blood pressure and pulse monitoring. The client must be NPO 3 to 6 hours prior to the procedure. Education about dobutamine, which will be administered during the procedure, would be performed. Beta blockers are often held prior to the procedure as they lower the heart rate and may result in inaccurate results.

Question 24

A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a right-sided heart catheterization. For which complications of this procedure would the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)

a. Thrombophlebitis
b. Stroke
c. Pulmonary embolism
d. Myocardial infarction
e. Cardiac tamponade
f. Dysrhythmias

Answer 24

ANS: A,C,E
Complications from a right-sided heart catheterization include thrombophlebitis, pulmonary embolism, and vagal response. Cardiac tamponade is a risk of both right- and left-sided heart catheterizations. Stroke, myocardial infarction, and dysrhythmias are complications of left-sided heart catheterizations.

Question 25

A nurse assesses a client’s electrocardiograph tracing and observes that not all QRS complexes are preceded by a P wave. How would the nurse interpret this observation? a. The client has hyperkalemia causing irregular QRS complexes. b. Ventricular tachycardia is overriding the normal atrial rhythm. c. The client’s chest leads are not making sufficient contact with the skin. d. Ventricular and atrial depolarizations are initiated from different sites.

Answer 25

ANS: D Normal rhythm shows one P wave preceding each QRS complex, indicating that all depolarization is initiated at the sinoatrial node. QRS complexes without a P wave indicate a different source of initiation of depolarization. This finding on an electrocardiograph tracing is not an indication of hyperkalemia, ventricular tachycardia, or disconnection of leads.

Question 26

A nurse cares for a client who has a heart rate averaging 56 beats/min with no adverse symptoms. Which activity modification would the nurse suggest to avoid further slowing of the heart rate? a. “Make certain that your bath water is warm.” b. “Avoid straining while having a bowel movement.” c. “Limit your intake of caffeinated drinks to one a day.” d. “Avoid strenuous exercise such as running.”

Answer 26

ANS: B Bearing down strenuously during a bowel movement is one type of Valsalva maneuver, which stimulates the vagus nerve and results in slowing of the heart rate. Such a response is not desirable in a person who has bradycardia. The other instructions are not appropriate for this condition.

Question 27

A nurse is assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client would the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for atrial fibrillation? a. A 45-year-old who takes an aspirin daily. b. A 50-year-old who is post coronary artery bypass graft surgery. c. A 78-year-old who had a carotid endarterectomy. d. An 80-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Answer 27

ANS:B Atrial fibrillation occurs commonly in clients with cardiac disease. Other risk factors include hypertension (HTN), previous ischemic stroke, transient ischemic attack (TIA) or other thromboembolic event, diabetes mellitus, heart failure, obesity, hyperthyroidism, chronic kidney disease, excessive alcohol use, and mitral valve disease. The other conditions do not place these clients at higher risk for atrial fibrillation.

Question 28

A nurse assesses a client with atrial fibrillation. Which manifestation would alert the nurse to the possibility of a serious complication from this condition? a. Sinus tachycardia b. Speech alterations c. Fatigue d. Dyspnea with activity

Answer 28

ANS: B Clients with atrial fibrillation are at risk for embolic stroke. Evidence of embolic events includes changes in mentation, speech, sensory function, and motor function. Clients with atrial fibrillation often have a rapid ventricular response as a result. Fatigue is a nonspecific complaint. Clients with atrial fibrillation often have dyspnea as a result of the decreased cardiac output caused by the rhythm disturbance.

Question 29

A nurse evaluates prescriptions for a client with chronic atrial fibrillation. Which medication would the nurse expect to find on this client’s medication administration record to prevent a common complication of this condition? a. Sotalol b. Warfarin c. Atropine d. Lidocaine

Answer 29

ANS: B Atrial fibrillation puts clients at risk for developing emboli. Clients at risk for emboli are treated with anticoagulants, such as heparin, enoxaparin, or warfarin. Sotalol, atropine, and lidocaine are not appropriate for preventing this complication.

Question 30

A nurse administers prescribed adenosine to a client. Which response would the nurse assess for as the expected therapeutic response? a. Decreased intraocular pressure b. Increased heart rate c. Short period of asystole d. Hypertensive crisis

Answer 30

ANS: C Clients usually respond to adenosine with a short period of asystole, bradycardia with long pauses, nausea, or vomiting. Adenosine has no impact on intraocular pressure nor does it cause increased heart rate or hypertensive crisis.

Question 31

A telemetry nurse assesses a client who has a heart rate of 35 beats/min on the cardiac monitor. Which assessment would the nurse complete next? a. Pulmonary auscultation b. Pulse strength and amplitude c. Level of consciousness d. Mobility and gait stability

Answer 31

ANS: C A heart rate of 40 beats/min or less could have hemodynamic consequences. The client is at risk for inadequate cerebral perfusion. The nurse would assess for level of consciousness, dizziness, confusion, syncope, chest pain, shortness of breath. Although the other assessments would be completed, the nurse would assess the client’s neurologic status next.

Question 32

A nurse cares for a client with an intravenous temporary pacemaker for bradycardia. The nurse observes the presence of a pacing spike but no QRS complex on the client’s electrocardiogram. What action would the nurse take next? a. Administer intravenous diltiazem. b. Assess vital signs and level of consciousness. c. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. d. Assess capillary refill and temperature.

Answer 32

ANS: B In temporary pacing, the wires are threaded onto the epicardial surface of the heart and exit through the chest wall. The pacemaker spike would be followed immediately by a QRS complex. Pacing spikes seen without subsequent QRS complexes imply loss of capture. If there is no capture, then there is no ventricular depolarization and contraction. The nurse would assess for cardiac output via vital signs and level of consciousness. The other interventions would not determine if the client is tolerating the loss of capture.

Question 33

A nurse prepares to defibrillate a client who is in ventricular fibrillation. Which intervention is appropriate for the nurse to perform prior to defibrillating this client? a. Make sure that the defibrillator is set to the synchronous mode. b. Administer 1 mg of intravenous epinephrine. c. Test the equipment by delivering a smaller shock at 100 J. d. Ensure that everyone is clear of contact with the client and the bed.

Answer 33

ANS: D To avoid injury, the rescuer commands that all personnel clear contact with the client or the bed and ensures their compliance before delivery of the shock. Defibrillation is done in asynchronous mode. Equipment would not be tested before a client is defibrillated because this is an emergency procedure; equipment would be checked on a routine basis. Defibrillation takes priority over any medications.

Question 34

After teaching a client who has an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD), a nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement by the client indicates correct understanding of the teaching? a. “I would wear a snug-fitting shirt over the ICD.” b. “I will avoid sources of strong electromagnetic fields.” c. “I would participate in a strenuous exercise program.” d. “Now I can discontinue my antidysrhythmic medication

Answer 34

ANS: B The client being discharged with an ICD is instructed to avoid strong sources of electromagnetic fields, such as devices emitting microwaves (not microwave ovens); transformers; radio, television, and radar transmitters; large electrical generators; metal detectors, including handheld security devices at airports; antitheft devices; arc welding equipment; and sources of 60-cycle (Hz) interference. Also avoid leaning directly over the alternator of a running motor oGf aRcAaDr EorSbLoaAtB. C.lCieOntMs would avoid tight clothing, which could cause irritation over the ICD generator. The client would be encouraged to exercise but would not engage in strenuous activities that cause the heart rate to meet or exceed the ICD cutoff point because the ICD can discharge inappropriately. The client would continue all prescribed medications.

Question 35

A nurse cares for a client with atrial fibrillation who reports fatigue when completing activities of daily living. What intervention would the nurse implement to address this client’s concerns? a. Administer oxygen therapy at 2 L per nasal cannula. b. Provide the client with a sleeping pill to stimulate rest. c. Schedule periods of exercise and rest during the day. d. Ask assistive personnel (AP) to help bathe the client.

Answer 35

ANS: C Clients who have atrial fibrillation are at risk for decreased cardiac output and fatigue when completing activities of daily living. The nurse would schedule periods of exercise and rest during the day to decrease fatigue. The other interventions will not assist the client with performing self-care activities and there is no indication for oxygen.

Question 36

A nurse assists with the cardioversion of a client experiencing acute atrial fibrillation. What action would the nurse take prior to the cardioversion? a. Administer intravenous adenosine. b. Turn off oxygen therapy. c. Ensure that a tongue blade is available. d. Position the client on the left side.

Answer 36

ANS: B For safety during cardioversion, the nurse would turn off any oxygen therapy to prevent fire. The other interventions are not appropriate for a cardioversion. The client would be placed in a supine position.

Question 37

A nurse prepares to discharge a client with a cardiac dysrhythmia who is prescribed home health care services. Which priority information would be communicated to the home health nurse upon discharge? a. Medication orders for home b. Immunization history c. Religious beliefs d. Nutrition preferences

Answer 37

ANS: A The home health nurse needs to know current medications the client is taking to ensure assessment, evaluation, and further education related to these medications. The other information might be used to plan care, but not as the priority.

Question 38

A nurse assesses a client with tachycardia. Which clinical manifestation requires immediate intervention by the nurse? a. Midsternal chest pain b. Increased urine output c. Mild orthostatic hypotension d. P wave touching the T wave

Answer 38

ANS: A Chest pain, possibly angina, indicates that tachycardia may be increasing the client’s myocardial workload and oxygen demand to such an extent that normal oxygen delivery cannot keep pace. This results in myocardial hypoxia and pain. Increased urinary output and mild orthostatic hypotension are not life-threatening conditions and therefore do not require immediate intervention. The P wave touching the T wave indicates significant tachycardia and would be assessed to determine the underlying rhythm and cause; this is an important assessment but is not as critical as chest pain, which indicates cardiac cell death.

Question 39

A nurse teaches a client who experiences occasional premature atrial contractions (PACs) accompanied by palpitations that resolve spontaneously without treatment. Which statement would the nurse include in this client’s teaching? a. “Minimize or abstain from caffeine.” b. “Lie on your side until the attack subsides.” c. “Use your oxygen when you experience PACs.” d. “Take amiodarone daily to prevent PACs.”

Answer 39

ANS: A PACs usually have no hemodynamic consequences. For a client experiencing infrequent PACs, the nurse would explore possible lifestyle causes, such as excessive caffeine intake and stress. Lying on the side will not prevent or resolve PACs. Oxygen is not necessary. Although medications may be needed to control symptomatic dysrhythmias, for infrequent PACs, the client first would try lifestyle changes to control them.

Question 40

The nurse asks a client who has experienced ventricular dysrhythmias about substance abuse. The client asks, “Why do you want to know if I use cocaine?” What is the nurse’s best response? a. “Substance abuse puts clienGtsRaAtDriEskSfLorAmBa.nCyOheMalth issues.” b. “The hospital requires that I ask you about cocaine use.” c. “Clients who use cocaine are at risk for fatal dysrhythmias.” d. “We can provide services for cessation of substance abuse.

Answer 40

ANS: C Clients who use cocaine or illicit inhalants are particularly at risk for potentially fatal dysrhythmias. The other responses do not adequately address the client’s question

Question 41

A nurse supervises an assistive personnel (AP) applying electrocardiographic monitoring. Which statement would the nurse provide to the AP related to this procedure? a. “Clean the skin and clip hairs if needed.” b. “Add gel to the electrodes prior to applying them.” c. “Place the electrodes on the posterior chest.” d. “Turn off oxygen prior to monitoring the client.”

Answer 41

ANS: A To ensure the best signal transmission, the skin would be clean and hairs clipped. Electrodes would be placed on the anterior chest, and no additional gel is needed. Oxygen has no impact on electrocardiographic monitoring.

Question 42

A nurse cares for a client with congestive heart failure who has a regular cardiac rhythm of 128 beats/min. For which physiologic alterations would the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Decrease in cardiac output b. Increase in cardiac output c. Decrease in blood pressureGRADESLAB.COM d. Increase in blood pressure e. Decrease in urine output f. Increase in urine output

Answer 42

ANS: A,C,E Elevated heart rates in a healthy client initially cause blood pressure and cardiac output to increase. However, in a client who has congestive heart failure or a client with long-term tachycardia, ventricular filling time, cardiac output, and blood pressure eventually decrease. As cardiac output and blood pressure decrease, urine output will fall.

Question 43

A nurse teaches a client with a new permanent pacemaker. Which instructions would the nurse include in this client’s teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. “Until your incision is healed, do not submerge your pacemaker. Only take showers.” b. “Report any pulse rates lower than your pacemaker settings.” c. “If you feel weak, apply pressure over your generator.” d. “Have your pacemaker turned off before having magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).” e. “Do not lift your left arm above the level of your shoulder for 8 weeks.”

Answer 43

ANS: A,B,E The client would not submerge in water until the site has healed; after the incision is healed, the client may take showers or baths without concern for the pacemaker. The client would be instructed to report changes in heart rate or rhythm, such as rates lower than the pacemaker setting or greater than 100 beats/min. The client would be advised of restrictions on physical activity for 8 weeks to allow the pacemaker to settle in place. The client would never apply pressure over the generator and would avoid tight clothing. The client would never have MRI because, whether turned on or off, the pacemaker contains metal. The client would be advised to inform all health care providers that he or she has a pacemaker.

Question 44

A nurse is teaching a client who has premature ectopic beats. Which education would the nurse include in this client’s teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Smoking cessation b. Stress reduction and management c. Avoiding vagal stimulation d. Adverse effects of medications e. Foods high in potassium f. Types of aerobic exercise

Answer 44

ANS: A,B,D A client who has premature beats or ectopic rhythms would be taught to stop smoking, manage stress, take medications as prescribed, and report adverse effects of medications. Clients with premature beats are not at risk for vasovagal attacks or potassium imbalances. While exercise is beneficial, aerobic exercise is not specifically linked to this client’s educational needs.