Unit IV week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Major Depressive Episode criteria

A

SIG-E-CAPS

requires depressed mood or diminished interest (anhedonia) and at least 5/9 criteria for at least 2 weeks, causing serious impairment in functioning

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2
Q

SIG-E-CAPS

A

Major Depressive Episode criteria

Sleep - too much or too little
Interest - decreased
Guilt - increased
Energy - decreased
Concentration - decreased
Appetite - decreased or increased
Psychomotor agitation/retardation
Suicidal ideation
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3
Q

Mania and Hypomania criteria

A

DIGFAST

  • Distractibility - attention too easily drawn to unimportant or irrelevant external stimuli
  • Irritable/elevated/expansive mood
  • Grandiosity (inflated self esteem)
  • Flight of ideas, subjective experience of racing thoughts

-Activities
High potential for painful consequences (buying, sexual)
Goal directed or psychomotor agitation

  • Sleep - decreased need for sleep
  • Talkativeness
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4
Q

Hypomania

A

4 days, not marked impairment in functioning, not psychotic

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5
Q

Bipolar I

A

patients must have had mania, but also may have hypomania and major depressive episodes

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6
Q

Bipolar II

A

patients must have had hypomania and MDE

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7
Q

Major depressive disorder

A

has had MDE, but never hypomania or mania

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8
Q

Cyclothymia

A

hypomania and subsyndromal depression

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9
Q

Dysthymia

A

subsyndromal depression

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10
Q

Schizophrenia

A

> 6 months

Delusions: fixed belief not amenable to change in light of conflicting evidence

Hallucinations: perception like experiences that occur without an external stimulus

Disorganized thinking or speech: frequent derailment or incoherence

Grossly disorganized or abnormal motor behavior (including catatonia)

Negative symptoms: alogia (poverty of speech), affective flattening (decreased expression of emotions, lack of expressive hand gestures), asociality (few friends)

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11
Q

Schizoaffective disorder

A

if psychotic symptoms are present throughout, but mood symptoms are present majority of time = MDE + psychotic episode

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12
Q

Schizophreniform disorder

A

> 1 month, but less than 6 months

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13
Q

Pharmacotherapy for Psychosis (2)

A

1) Typical neuroleptics (first gen antipsychotics)
- Affect dopamine pathway - D2 antagonism

2) Atypical neuroleptics (second gen antipsychotics)
Effect serotonergic pathways

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14
Q

Diencephalon = _________ + ___________

A

Thalamus (dorsal) + Hypothalamus (ventral)

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15
Q

Hypothalamus

A

homeostasis, intimately associated with pituitary, amygdala, preoptic area, nucleus of the solitary tract, autonomic preganglionic motor nuclei

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16
Q

Thalamus

A

gateway to cortex

Each area of cortex has corresponding thalamic relay nucleus

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17
Q

Thalamocortical connections main features (3)

A

All connections are reciprocal

Right thalamus deals with contralateral side of body

Acts as gateway to cortex - EXCEPT for olfactory system (olfactory cortex → orbitofrontal cortex)

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18
Q

Relay nuclei of thalamus

A

1) Anterior nucleus → Cortex (cingulate gyrus) (Limbic, emotions)
2) VA/VL nucleus → motor cortex (somatosensory)
3) LGN (visual)
4) MGN: inferior brachium → MGN → auditory cortex (auditory)

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19
Q

Somatosensory nuclei of thalamus (2)

A

Face sensation via trigeminal pathway → VPM

Body sensation via medial lemniscus and spinothalamic tract → VPL

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20
Q

Association nuclei of thalamus (2)

A

Pulvinar nucleus → parieto-occipital association cortex (visual)

Dorsomedian nucleus → frontal association cortex (frontal cortex)

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21
Q

Two “other” nuclei of thalamus (2)

A

Centromedian nucleus (motor)

Reticular nucleus - sheet of cells on lateral surface, primarily inhibitory interneuron with connections to all other nuclei)

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22
Q

3 Major circuit systems of thalamus

A

1) Thalamocortical
2) Lentiform Nucleus/Basal Ganglia
3) Limbic System

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23
Q

Anterior limb of the internal capsule

origin:
destination:

runs where?

A

runs between caudate (medial) and lentiform nucleus (putamen/globus pallidus) (lateral)

Origin: anterior nucleus of thalamus, DM nucleus

Destination: cingulate gyrus and prefrontal cortex

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24
Q

Genu of internal capsule

A

flexure of internal capsule

Contains fibers of corticobulbar tract

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25
Q

Posterior limb of internal capsule

runs where?
contains fibers from where?

origin and destination?

A

between thalamus (medial) and lentiform nucleus (putamen/globus pallidus) (lateral)

Contains corticospinal and ascending thalamocortical fibers

Origin: motor cortex, VPL/VPM

Destination: spinal cord and brainstem, and postcentral gyrus

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26
Q

Retrolenticular limb of internal capsule

origin
destination

A

Origin: Pulvinar and LGN

Destination: Parietal association cortex and visual cortex

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27
Q

Sublenticular limb of internal capsule

origin
destination

A

Origin: LGN and MGN

Destination: Visual cortex and auditory cortex

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28
Q

Broadmann’s areas:

1-3 = ?
4 = ?
17 = ?
41 = ?
A
1-3 = Primary sensory
4 = Primary motor
17 = Primary visual
41 = Primary auditory
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29
Q

EEG

A

measures small field potentials at surface of skin overlaying skull

Voltages measured in EEG generated by neurons near surface - reflect synchronous synaptic input to cortical neurons

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30
Q

Thalamic Relay Neurons

A

Receive input from a sensory system, relays info to cortex via excitatory glutamatergic synapses onto pyramidal cortical neurons with soma in layer IV of cortex

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31
Q

Thalamic relay neurons do what when you are awake?

A

Awake → little inhibitory input to thalamic relay neurons, membrane potential rests at -55mV → fire series of APs at high frequency

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32
Q

Thalamic relay neurons do what when you are asleep?

A

Asleep → Thalamic reticular neurons release GABA and inhibit relay neurons → membrane potential at -85mV → fire bursts of APs on top of a Ca2+ spike

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33
Q

Ca2+ spikes during sleep in thalamic relay neurons are generated by what?

A
  • Ca2+ spike happens with 3Hz frequency generated by T-Type Ca2+ channel
  • Channel inactivated by depolarization
  • When relay neurons inhibited by thalamic reticular cells, inactivation gate opens, and T-Type Ca2 channel generates Ca2+ spikes at 3Hz frequency
  • Fast APs ride on top of this Ca2+ spike
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34
Q

Thalamic relay neurons send axons to _________ which then…

A

Relay neurons then send axons to cortical pyramidal cells → pyramidal cell fires at delta frequency → Slow EEG recording

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35
Q

EEG and slow wave sleep

A

Slow wave sleep stage is characterized by a pattern of slow wave oscillation of EEG at frequency of 3Hz (delta wave)

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36
Q

Ascending control of thalamocortical circuits comes from the _________ via ________, ________, and ________ neurons

A

Brain stem

ascending cholinergic, noradrenergic, and serotonergic neurons

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37
Q

When you are asleep and are stimulated by ______ from ________ neurons in the ___________ system you wake up and interrupt slow waves

A

ACh

Cholinergic neurons

Reticular activating system

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38
Q

__________ neurons from ___________ –> release noradrenaline in thalamus

activated during ____________

A

noradrenergic neurons

from locus coerulus

activated during fight/flight response

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39
Q

_________ neurons from __________ –> release serotonin in thalamus

A

serotonergic neurons from raphe nuclei

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40
Q

Absence Epilepsy

A

when child has sudden staring spells

Child stops what he/she is doing, stares for a few seconds, and then resume

EEG pattern similar to slow wave sleep (d waves of 3Hz)

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41
Q

Simple absence seizures

A

Impairment of consciousness

Minimal motor activity (eyelid fluttering, blinking)

Lasts 5-15s, average of 100 seizures a day

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42
Q

Complex absence seizures (5)

A

Impairment of consciousness

Prominent motor activity (myoclonic jerks, automatism, atonic)

More common than simple

Automatisms: persistence of action, mumbling, nonpurposeful movements

Autonomic features: pallor, change in HR/RR, mydriasis, micturition

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43
Q

Mice without T-type Ca2+ channel and anticonvulsants that block T-type Ca2+ channels

what impact?

A

Mice without T-type Ca2+ channel cannot be induced to have these seizures

anticonvulsants that block T-type Ca2+ channels are effective against absence epilepsy

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44
Q

Generalized seizure

A

seizure activity in entire brain

May start in a focal area, but then goes generalized

Tonic (rigid)
Clonic (on/off)

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45
Q

Childhood absence epilepsy

A

Onset 4-8 years, remission in 80% by adulthood

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46
Q

Juvenile absence epilepsy

A

onset 4-30 years

Less frequent absence seizures, duration may be longer, some preserved awareness

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47
Q

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

A

infrequent absence seizures

GTC/myoclonic seizures (surrounding sleep) are predominant features

No remission, but may be responsive to treatment

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48
Q

EEG results in:

Typical absence seizure

A

normal background organization and frequencies

Ictal discharges:

  • Abrupt onset and offset
  • Generalized 3Hz spike and wave
  • Frontal maximum

Spikes may become fragmented and irregular during sleep

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49
Q

EEG results in:

Atypical absence seizures

A

often abnormal background with slowing and disorganization

Ictal discharges at 2-2.5Hz, more irregular

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50
Q

Treatment of epilepsy (2 drugs)

A

Valproic Acid

Ethosuximide - acts on T-type Ca current

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51
Q

Declarative Memory

A

ability to recollect events or facts that have a specific temporal and spatial context

HIPPOCAMPUS important for formation of declarative memory

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52
Q

Procedural Memory

A

ability to learn new motor skills

Cerebellum, striatum and frontal cortex important for formation of procedural memory

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53
Q

Short-Term Memory

A

lasts for fractions of a second to seconds

Occurs in SENSORY CORTEX

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54
Q

Working Memory

A

lasts seconds to minutes

Located in FRONTAL LOBES where executive function (ability to react in morally appropriate way) is also located

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55
Q

Long-Term Memory

A

lasts for days and years

Stored in CORTEX

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56
Q

Long term memory storage is in _______________

evidence?

A

NEOCORTEX

fMRI and lesion studies indicate long term-term declarative memory is stored in neocortex

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57
Q

Patient HM

A

Had bilateral symmetric removal of half of rostrocaudal extend of hippocampus, adjacent entorhinal cortex, and amygdaloid complex

Produced severe anterograde amnesia

Capable of recollecting memories before surgery, but cannot recollect facts after surgery

Deficit in declarative memory and semantic knowledge

Procedural memory was NOT affected

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58
Q

Associative memory

A

learning to associate several cues with a particular fact or object

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59
Q

Long Term Potentiation and Associative Memory

Input 1 = axons representing large number of cues required before you learn

during learning what happens?

A

During learning, you stimulate postsynaptic cell vigorously and repeatedly through all axons of input 1 → synapse strengthens (elicit depolarization of postsynaptic neuron when a smaller subset of axons in input 1 is stimulated)

EX) permit recall of movie title with four cues instead of eight

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60
Q

Potentiation occurs ONLY when…

A

Potentiation occurs ONLY when reinforcement and relevant sensory stimulus are turned on at the SAME time

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61
Q

What happens when input 2 (axons that have not undergone LTP) are stimulated?

A

stimulating subset of those axons would not result in postsynaptic depolarization ensuring you respond correctly

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62
Q

Mice experiment: mice learn to use visual cues provided by objects around pool to locate hidden platform, and can still do this when some objects removed

what happens when area ______ of hippocampus of mice is damaged

A

CA3

mice have harder time finding submersed platform with reduced number of cue

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63
Q

LTP in _____ area important for associative memory

A

CA3

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64
Q

Dentate gyrus

A

one layer of neuron cell bodies arranged in spiral semicircle

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65
Q

Ammon’s horn

A

larger spiral semicircle of neuronal cell bodies surrounding dentate gyrus

CA3 neurons and CA1 neurons of Ammon’s horn region are involved in long term potentiation, and serve basis for memory consolidation

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66
Q

Input to hippocampus from _______ via ______ path. This input synapses on ________ and ________ neurons on Ammon’s horn

A

From entorhinal cortex via perforant path

Perforant path axons synapse on dentate gyrus and CA3 neurons in Ammon’s horn

Entorhinal cortex gets widely distributed input from neocortex

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67
Q

Input to hippocampus (3)

A

1) Entorhinal cortex
2) Moss fibers
3) Schaeffer collateral axons

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68
Q

Mossy fibers

A

cells from dentate gyrus that synapse on the CA1 neurons

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69
Q

Schaeffer collateral axons

A

originate from CA3 neurons and synapse onto CA1 neuron

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70
Q

Hippocampus and LTP:

Two characteristics

A

1) Only synapses that are being stimulated during tetanus undergo LTP
2) LTP only takes place when titanic burst large enough to cause cell depolarization in postsynaptic neuron

**The only synapses whose effectiveness is increased are those that are being stimulated by release of NTs (glutamate) and are simultaneously being depolarized postsynaptically as a result of depolarization elicited by large summated input elicited by the tetanus

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71
Q

Molecular basis for LTP

A

1) NMDA receptor requires glutamate binding and depolarization of postsynaptic membrane to remove Mg2+ and allow Ca2+ to flow into cell
2) Ca2+ IN stimulates Calmodulin → stimulate calcium/calmodulin dependent protein kinase II (CAMKII)
3) CAMKII phosphorylates itself causing prolonged activation of CAMKII

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72
Q

EPSP size in LTP is increased how? (2)

A

→ increases EPSP size by:

1) incorporating AMPA receptors in postsynaptic membrane
2) phosphorylation of AMPA receptors making them more responsive to glutamate → STRUCTURAL CHANGE

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73
Q

Synapse formation in learning and memory

A

Synapses are NOT static: synapse formation and destruction can contribute significantly to learning

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74
Q

Adult neurogenesis in learning and memory

A

Adult Neurogenesis:

Occurs in olfactory bulb - involved in olfactory learning

Hippocampus - involved in declarative learning

Cerebellum - involved in procedural learning

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75
Q

Alzheimer’s Disease pathophysiology

A

Early stage: affects synaptic transmission in limbic and association cortices

Loss of ability to encode new declarative memories in an individual with otherwise normal intelligence, motor, and sensory functions

APP, when cleaved by B and y secretases → neurotoxic AB protein

→ AB proteins assemble and cause cognitive impairment through loss of synapses and subsequent neurodegeneration

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76
Q

Kluver-Bucy Syndrome

A

removal of amygdala

  • Alteration in feeding
  • Attempting to make with individuals of other species
  • Lack of concern of previously feared objects
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77
Q

Conditioned fear

A

Sound conditioned to shock

Sound = auditory system, Conditioned stimulus
→ thalamus → auditory cortex and amygdala (lateral nucleus of amygdala)

Shock = pain system, unconditioned stimulus
→ somatosensory thalamus (VPL) → somatosensory cortex and amygdala

*Amygdala involved in this learning

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78
Q

Emotional limbic system (6 structures)

A

1) amygdala
2) cingulate gyrus
3) mediodorsal nucleus of thalamus
4) ventral basal ganglia (ventral caudate and putamen)
5) insular cortex
6) hypothalamus

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79
Q

Limbic System and Amygdala in Emotion

A

Emotions expressed by autonomic visceral (hypothalamus) and somatic motor actions (reticular formation in brainstem)

-role in conditioned fear learning

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80
Q

Conditioned flavor aversion

A

Two cues separate in time (food flavor and malaise) → change neural circuit resulting in learned aversion for food

EX) Cancer patient receives taste and olfactory stimulation from eating food, and gets sick within ½ hour → avoid food in future

Happens with single episode of malaise and can last for years

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81
Q

Where does conditioned flavor aversion?

A

INSULAR CORTEX

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82
Q

Mechanism of conditioned flavor aversion

A

Muscarinic receptors in insular cortex are essential for CFA acquisition

Muscarinic stimulation of neurons in insular cortex → activate kinases and phosphorylate NMDA receptors → affects response to stimulation from fibers coming from amygdala

Stimulation through amygdala → associative learning that causes aversion to food that was paired with malaise

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83
Q

Limbic System is responsible for what 4 main functions

A

HOME

Homeostasis
Olfaction
Memory
Emotion

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84
Q

Papez circuit is made up of what 4 components

A

1) Hypothalamus with mamillary bodies
2) Anterior thalamic nucleus
3) Cingulate gyrus
4) Hippocampus

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85
Q

Papez circuit

A

cingulate gyrus → hippocampus → Hippocampus projects to hypothalamus (via fornix) → anterior thalamic nuclei → cortex

proposed as anatomic basis for central functions of emotion and peripheral expression

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86
Q

Theory of emotion: amygdala responsible for what?

A

Amygdala: responsible for formation and storage of memories associated with emotional event

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87
Q

Amygdala gets input from where?

A

Highly processed visual information, piriform/olfactory input, and other visceral sensory inputs

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88
Q

Parts of Amygdala (3)

A

1) Centromedial Amygdala = output
2) Basolateral Amygdala (BLA) = input

3) Intercalated cells = islands of cells between two structures
- Important in fear extinction

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89
Q

Fear conditioning: pair auditory stimuli (CS) with shock (US)

Sensory stimuli reach ___________ –> ?

A

Sensory stimuli reach basolateral nuclei of amygdala (BLA) → form associations with memories of stimuli

auditory stimuli undergoes LTP for predictions of adverse events and stimuli

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90
Q

The basolateral amygdala (BLA) elicits fear behavior through connections with…(2)

A

BLA elicits fear behavior through connections with central nucleus of amygdala (CEA) and related bed of nuclei of stria terminalis (BNST)

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91
Q

What are fear behaviors?

A

Fear behavior = freezing, tachycardia, increased respiration, stress-hormone release

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92
Q

Central nucleus of amygdala mediates what?

A

expression of emotional responses

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93
Q

Lesion of amygdala does what to fear and positive conditioning?

A

Lesion of amygdala prevents acquisition of fear and positive conditioning

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94
Q

Dopaminergic neurons from VTA project to ________ in _________

stimulation of this area does what?

A

project to nucleus accumbens in ventral striatum

Stimulation of nucleus accumbens is highly reinforcing

Excessive dopamine in this circuit excessively reinforces networks that were active during behavior that produced the dopamine surge

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95
Q

VTA also projects to ______ and _______ creating what two pathways?

A

projects to amygdala, and VMPFC = mesolimbic and mesocortical dopaminergic pathways

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96
Q

Iowa Gambling Task and the Ventromedial PFC

A

Iowa Gambling Task: lesions to VMPFC means patients tend to continue to draw from “bad” decks even though they know they are losing

Healthy participants show anticipatory emotional response (stress response) preceding explicit knowledge of correct strategy

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97
Q

Implications of Iowa gambling task findings in patients with VMPFC lesion

A

VMPFC injured patients never develop anticipatory physiologic reaction to impending punishment

BUT had intact stress responses to receipt of actual rewards and punishments

→ VMPFC important for predictions of consequences but not necessary for registering actual consequences

Implies VMPFC role in suppression of behaviors felt to be excessively risky, especially in context of social function

Impairment in ability to estimate risk/reward associated with certain behaviors, and ability to select behaviors based on risk/reward calculations

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98
Q

What happens to your decision making when you damage your VMPFC?

A

VMPFC damage → engage in behaviors that are detrimental to well-being

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99
Q

What happens in the Iowa Gambling task when you have a lesion in your amygdala

A

Amygdala damage → similar performance on Iowa gambling task as VMPFC, but these patients ALSO failed to show conductance responses to actual receipt of rewards and punishments

→ amygdala triggers emotional bodily states in response to rewards and punishments associated with specific behaviors or stimuli

→ VMPFC represents relations between inputs and outputs that the amygdala has constructed
-A set of predictions of likely consequence of different actions

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100
Q

Amygdala

A

links aversive and appetitive stimuli with physiologic responses, action patterns, perceptions, and predictions

critical integrative structure projecting to VTA and nucleus accumbens

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101
Q

Insula

A

constitutes primary olfactory, gustatory, and visceral sensory cortex

Links between insula, VMPFC, and amygdala relate these senses to emotion

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102
Q

VMPFC and ventral striatum

A

are (Respectively) critical for generating and reinforcing predictions about risks and rewards associated with actions

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103
Q

VTA

A

Reward and punishment salience) signals contribute to synaptic plasticity and associative learning in amygdala, ventral striatum and VMPFC

midbrain structure with dopaminergic cells innervating all the reward pathway structures

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104
Q

Hippocampus

A

memory circuit involved in mediating associations between biologic stimuli (or drugs of abuse) and environmental cues

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105
Q

Prefrontal cortex and drugs of abuse

A

critical for executive function in providing control over impulses from destructive behavior

Impairment following chronic drug abuse important mediator in loss of control over drug intake (Addiction)

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106
Q

Function of the reward pathway

A

mediate pleasure (reward) and the strengthening of behaviors (reinforcement associated with natural reinforces (food, water, sex)

Produces motivational states

Modulation of physiological and behavioral responses ensuring survival and reproduction

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107
Q

Reward

A

something brain interprets as intrinsically positive

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108
Q

Reinforcing stimulus

A

increases probability of behaviors paired with it will be repeated - not all reinforcers are rewarding (can reinforce avoidance behaviors)

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109
Q

Mesolimbic system

A

Stimulation of VTA neurons by natural reinforcers → dopamine release in nucleus accumbens

dopamine pathway, final common pathway of reinforcement and reward

Dopamine affects motivation and attention to a salient stimuli

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110
Q

Mesolimbic system and drugs of abuse

A

ALL drugs with dependence liability share this final common pathway of increasing synaptic dopamine levels in nucleus accumbens

More intense/direct effect drug has on dopamine neurons, the greater addiction potential

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111
Q

Reactive reward system is made up of what 3 structures?

A

VTA (dopamine cell bodies) + nucleus accumbens (where DA neurons project) + amygdala (connects VTA and NA)

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112
Q

Reactive reward system:

amygdala connects to _________ as a relevance detector

Amygdala connects to _________ to signal what?

A

Learning conditioned in amygdala

Amygdala → connects back to VTA as a relevance detector (for anything relevant to previous drug abuse experience)

Amygdala → connects to nucleus accumbens to signal emotional memories triggered by internal or external cues

→ initiate impulsive-automatic-obligatory actions to find/take more drugs

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113
Q

Reactive reward system and drug abuse

A

**drug addiction produces changes whereby the “reactive reward” system hijacks the normal reward circuitry

repeated exposure to drugs of abuse results in pathologic “learning” to trigger drug-seeking behaviors when presented with internal (craving, withdrawal) or external (environmental associations) cues

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114
Q

Function of reactive reward system

A

signal immediate prospect of pleasure or pain and provides motivational and behavioral drive to achieve that pleasure or avoid that pain

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115
Q

Reflective reward system connects _______ to ______ including projections to what 3 areas for what purpose?

A

connects PFC to nucleus accumbens

Orbitofrontal projections → regulate impulses

Dorsolateral PFC → analysis of situation

VMPFC → integration of impulsiveness and cognitive flexibility with its regulation of emotions

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116
Q

Reflective reward system and drugs of abuse

A

balance between reactive reward drives and reflective reward decisions determine whether output of reward circuitry converted into short term rewards (drug seeking) or long term

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117
Q

Compulsive drug use: Repetitive drug-induced rewarding experiences → what 4 things

A

1) Alter reward circuits so drug ingestion and cues that merely predict pleasure will activate MESOLIMBIC DOPAMINE RELEASE
2) Amygdala learns that drug causes pleasure and drug cues with pleasure
3) Drug cues → DOPAMINE RELEASE in NAc → GABA output from NAc → thalamus → prefrontal cortex
4) Absence of activity in reflective reward system → drug seeking behavior initiated

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118
Q

Highest addictive potential for drugs of abuse with:

Modes of administration?

Rate of onset?

A

IV and inhalational routes are associated with most rapid rise in brain levels of drug and greater likelihood to produce addiction

Rate of onset: abuse liability increased with faster onset of action

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119
Q

Highest addictive potential for drugs of abuse with:

Termination effects?

A

drugs with shortest half lives tend to have higher abuse liabilities

Withdrawal effects more severe for drugs with short half lives → continued drug administration just to prevent withdrawal

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120
Q

Psychosis

A

characterized by derangement of personality and loss of contact with external reality - primary disorder in thinking

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121
Q

Four components of psychosis

A

1) Hear voices and have other sensations that are not real = Hallucinations
2) Believe they are influenced by unseen forces around them = Paranoid Delusions
3) Being tormented, harmed, followed, tricked, or spied on = Persecutory Delusions
4) Have other disorders in thought, typically idiosyncratic associations that are evidenced in disorganized speech or writing = formal thought disorder

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122
Q

Schizophrenia

A

inability to discern what is real and not real, to think clearly, have normal emotional responses, and act normally in social situations

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123
Q

Schizophrenia positive and negative symptoms

A

Positive Symptoms:

  • Hallucinations, generally auditory
  • Delusions, belief that external forces conspiring against him/her

Negative symptoms (deficit symptoms):

  • Inability to pay attention, loss of sense of pleasure, loss of will or drive, disorganized or impoverished thoughts and speech, flattened affect, social withdrawal
  • Cognitive deficits
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124
Q

Diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia

A
  • at least 2 symptoms
  • Social/occupational dysfunction in work, interpersonal relationships, or self care
  • Duration of symptoms for at least 6 months
  • Illness not due to a medication, medical condition, or substance abuse
  • Illness not part of autism or developmental disorder

(High likelihood of substance abuse)

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125
Q

Prevalence and age of onset of Schizophrenia

A

Prevalence: 1% of world population, 2.4 million people

Age of onset: late adolescence, early adulthood, continue throughout life
-Earlier behavioral dysfunction, primarily social and learning difficulties

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126
Q

Drugs that can resemble schizophrenia (5)

A

1) Dopamine agonism (cocaine, amphetamine)
2) Norepinephrine agonism (cocaine, amphetamine)
3) Serotonin agonism (hallucinogens, LSD)
4) NMDA antagonism (dissociative anesthetics, phencyclidine, ketamine)
5) Acetylcholine antagonism (anticholinergics, atropine)

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127
Q

Dopamine theory of schizophrenia

A

1) HYPERactivity of mesolimbic system –> POSITIVE SYMPTOMS

2) HYPOactivity of mesocortical system –> NEGATIVE symptoms

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128
Q

Mesolimbic system

A

dopamine neurons from VTA release dopamine to nucleus accumbens → regulate reward pathways and emotional processes

  • integration of sensory input and motor responses with affective or emotional data
  • Antipsychotic agents (via D2 block) are most effective in reducing positive symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, disordered cognition)
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129
Q

Mesocortical system

A

dopamine neurons from VTA and substantia nigra release dopamine to prefrontal cortex → regulate areas involved in cognitive processing and motor control

DLPFC and VMPFC involved in communication and social abilities

Hypoactivity due to cell loss in PFC → negative symptoms (poverty of speech, anhedonia, lack of motivation, social isolation)

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130
Q

Glutamate Model of schizophrenia

A

glutaminergic hypoactivity → psychosis

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131
Q

Mechanism behind glutamate model of schizophrenia

A

Glutamate binds dopamine neurons → produce regional hyperactivity and hypoactivity in dopamine neuron release

**Increased cortical output due to loss of cortical GABA inhibition→ increase mesolimbic DA release → Positive symptoms

**Increased cortical output due to loss of cortical NMDA-glu neurons→ loss of cortical GABA inhibition → increased activity of cortical glutamate neurons → decreased mesocortical DA release → Negative symptoms

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132
Q

GABAergic model of schizophrenia

A

reduced parvalbumin positive interneurons in laminar III of prefrontal cortex

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133
Q

Main Neuropathological Findings in schizophrenia (4)

A

1) decreased size and packing density of pyramidal neurons in PFC

2) Reduced GABAergic interneuron proteins and neuronal function in layer III of DLPFC
- Inhibitory interneuron deficit - in number, expression of various peptides and proteins, and migration from cortical subplate

3) Decreased dendritic spines and presynaptic axonal inputs
4) Decreased cortical gray matter and enlargement of lateral ventricles

134
Q

Nigrostriatal pathway

A

dopaminergic tract (substantia nigra → striatum)

Plays central role in planned and coordinated movement

135
Q

Tuberoinfundibular pathway

A

hypothalamic neuronal release of DA in pituitary → inhibit prolactin release

136
Q

Serotonin Neuronal Systems and psychotic symptoms

-where are 5HT2A receptors located?

A

5HT2A-R located on glutamate pyramidal neurons in cortical regions and on dopamine nerve terminals in striatum

137
Q

Serotonin Neuronal Systems and psychotic symptoms

Activation of 5HT2A receptors on DA neurons in PFC → ?

Activation of 5HT2A receptors on glutamate pyramidal cells in PFC → ?

A

Activation of 5HT2A receptors on DA neurons in PFC → decrease DA release → NEGATIVE symptoms
-Blockage of these receptors by ATYPICAL agents results in increased DA release, and alleviation of negative symptoms of schizophrenia

Activation of 5HT2A receptors on glutamate pyramidal cells in PFC → stimulation of DA neurons in VTA → increase DA release in mesolimbic pathway → POSITIVE symptoms

138
Q

Typical Antipsychotics (1st generation)

A

high D2/5HT2A ratio
Good D2 block, good efficacy against positive symptoms, but high incidence of extrapyramidal toxicity

Typical Agents: Chlorpromazine, Haloperidol

139
Q

Atypical Antipsychotics (2nd generation)

A

low D2/5HT2A ratio
Poor D2 block, good 5HT2A block → good efficacy against negative symptoms

Atypical Agents: Aripiprazole, Clozapine, Olanzapine, Quetiapine

140
Q

Side effects of antipsychotics:

ANS side effects

  • caused by what mechanism?
  • most significant in what drug?
A

dry mouth, tachycardia, loss of accommodation, etc.

(MUSCARINIC BLOCKADE)

(Chlorpromazine especially)

141
Q

Side effects of antipsychotics: orthostatic hypotension - caused by what mechanism?

A

a1 adrenergic block

142
Q

Side effects of antipsychotics: sedation

  • caused by what mechanism?
  • most significant in what drug?
A

Sedation: via ANTIMUSCARINIC and ANTIHISTAMINIC activity

Chlorpromazine especially

143
Q
Side effects of antipsychotics:
Extrapyramidal signs (4)
A

via DOPAMINERGIC BLOCK (most with high potency Haloperidol, high D2 side effects)

1) Acute dystonia (swollen tongue, tinnitus, trismus)
2) Akathisia: motor restlessness, inability to sit still
3) Pseudo Parkinsonism: tremor, bradykinesia, rigidity, shuffling gait
4) Tardive dyskinesia: involuntary repetitive movement of lips, tongue

144
Q

Side effects of antipsychotics: what is side effect most associated with Clozapine

A

Agranulocytosis

145
Q

Side effects of antipsychotic drugs (10)

A

1) ANS: dry mouth, tachycardia, loss of accommodation, etc.
2) Orthostatic hypotension
3) Sedation
4) Extrapyramidal signs
5) Agranulocytosis
6) Weight gain
7) altered thermoregulation (poikilothermia, due to block of hypothalamic DA receptors)
8) Photosensitivity
9) Lowered seizure threshold
10) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

146
Q

Monoamine theory of depression

A

Effective antidepressant drugs share property of enhancing NE-5HT-DA availability in synapse

Monoamines = Dopamine, NE, Serotonin

Deficit in NE/5HT can induce depression

147
Q

Limitations of monoamine theory of depression

A

Does not totally explain etiology of depression

Mood elevation effects take 2-3 weeks for onset, but effects on amines occur immediately

Some new drugs have no effect on amine reuptake

148
Q

Neurodegenerative hypothesis of depression:

A

Depression associated with neuronal loss in PFC and hippocampus and antidepressant therapies act by inhibiting-reversing this loss by stimulating neurogenesis

149
Q

Pro Depressive pathway

A

stress-induced activation of Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenal axis switches on gene expression that promotes neuronal apoptosis and neuronal cell death due to excitotoxic actions of glutamate via NMDA receptors

150
Q

Antidepressive pathways

A

monoamines (NE and 5-HT) act on G-protein coupled receptors and brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) act on kinase-linked receptor to switch on genes that promote neurogenesis and protect against apoptosis

151
Q

Epidemiology of Mood Disorders

A

Neuropsychiatric disease account for half of all causes of disability worldwide

Depression affects 120 million people worldwide

Anxiety disorders are the most common psychiatric illness in the US followed by mood disorders

152
Q

Signs/symptoms of depression + diagnostic criteria

A

SIGECAPS

5 or more symptoms that have persisted for 2 weeks or more, are a change from previous function, and patient experiences sad mood or anhedonia

153
Q

Signs/symptoms of bipolar disorder (4)

A

1) Manic mood and behavior (euphora, grandiosity, pressured speech, impulsivity, excessive libido, recklessness, social intrusiveness, diminished need for sleep)
2) Dysphoric mood and behavior (depression, anxiety, irritability, hostility, violence, or suicide)
3) Psychosis (Delusions and hallucinations)
4) Cognitive symptoms (Racing thoughts, distractibility, disorganization, and inattentiveness)

154
Q

3 depression subtypes

A

1) Atypical
2) Psychotic
3) Melancholic

155
Q

Atypical depression

A

mood reactivity, leaden paralysis, reverse neurovegetative symptoms (increased appetite, weight gain, hypersomnia)

156
Q

Psychotic depression

A

often with auditory hallucinations, nihilistic delusions

157
Q

Melancholic depression

A

mood worse in morning, early morning awakening, anorexia, weight loss, guilt, psychomotor retardation

158
Q

Bipolar I vs. Bipolar II disorder

A

Bipolar I: mania

Bipolar II: hypomania + major depression

159
Q

Manic symptoms include…

A

DIGFAST (see previous lecture)

160
Q

Hypomanic symptoms

A

same as mania, but do not persist as long (four days) and do not cause such a degree of social impairment as seen in mania

161
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for a patient with mood symptoms (4)

A

1) Mood disorder

2) Medical illness
- Endocrine, infections, CNS, metabolic

3) Substance abuse
- Cocaine, alcohol, amphetamine/stimulants, hallucinogens, benzodiazepines

4) Medication side effect: amantadine, methyldopa withdrawal, interferon, steroids, chemo agents

162
Q

Pathophysiology of major depression depression

A

1) Altered gene expression of important neuronal growth factors
2) NOT a chemical imbalance
3) No single area of brain pathology
4) Involves alterations in neural circuitry

163
Q

Major depression most likely involves alterations what neural circuitry (3)

A

1) Frontal cortex and hippocampus: memory, worthlessness, hopelessness, guilt, suicidality
2) Striatum and amygdala: anhedonia, anxiety, motivation
3) Hypothalamus: insomnia/hypersomnia, energy, appetite, libido

164
Q

Suicide: risk factors and epidemiology

A

Men = 79% of completed suicides, but women attempt suicide 2-3x more often than men

11th leading cause of death all ages in US, 2nd leading cause of death 25-34 years old
42,000 deaths annually

165
Q

SSRIs (fluoxetine, paroxetine)

mechanism of action
use

A

block 5HT presynaptic reuptake pump

Safe, effective, with multiple indications (GAD, social anxiety, panic, OCD, PTSD)

166
Q

SSRIs (fluoxetine, paroxetine)

Side effects (5)

A

diarrhea, nausea, jitteriness/anxiety, sexual side effects, **drug interactions (P450 inhibition)

167
Q

SNRIs

mechanism of action

A

block NE and 5HT reuptake pumps

168
Q

SNRIs

side effects (4)

A

Safe, better tolerated than TCAs

Minuses: sexual side effects, sweating, **increased diastolic BP, withdrawal syndrome (flu-like, electric shocks)

169
Q

Mirtazapine

mechanism of action
side effects (2)
A

block 5HT2A, 5HT2C, 5HT3, a2 adrenergic receptors

Minuses: Daytime somnolence, weight gain

170
Q

Bupropion

mechanism of action

A

NDRI (norepinephrine dopamine reuptake inhibitor)

increases whole body NE, weakly blocks reuptake of DA

171
Q

Bupropion

side effects (5) - contraindicated in what 2 patients?

and benefits compared to others (2)

A
tremor
insomnia
anxiety
aggravation of psychosis
higher seizure risk 

(contraindicated in eating disorder patients and those with seizure disorder)

No sexual side effects, weight neutral

172
Q

Trazodone and nefazodone

mechanism of action

side effects (1)

A

most potent action is blockade of postsynaptic 5HT2, but also blocks 5HT and NE reuptake

Side effects: drowsiness (used as hypnotic agent), only minor problems with OD

173
Q

Tricyclics

mechanism of action

A

block reuptake of 5HT and NE, as well as H1, muscarinic cholinergic receptors and a1

better for chronic pain of neuropathic origin

174
Q

Tricyclics

side effects (7)

A

1) sedation
2) antimuscarinic effects (blurred vision, constipation, dry mouth, urinary hesitance)
3) orthostatic hypotension (a1 block)
4) EKG abnormalities and arrhythmias→ sudden death in OD
5) weight gain
6) sexual side effects
7) dangerous in OD (10 days can be lethal)

“Dirty drugs”

175
Q

MAOIs

mechanism

SSRIs + MAOIs → ?

A

irreversible inhibition of MAO-A and MAO-B, increasing 5HT and NE

SSRIs + MAOIs → serotonin syndrome
-Hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, myoclonus

176
Q

MAOIs

side effects (9)

A
hypotension
orthostasis
dry mouth
constipation
urinary retention
sexual side effects
weight gain

**hypertensive crisis (tyramine reaction (beer, wine cheese) due to acute increase in NE release)

seizures, shock hyperthermia in OD

177
Q

Vilazodone

mechanism of action

A

new antidepressant, SSRI + 5HT1A partial agonist

178
Q

Timeline of response to antidepressants

why?

A

All current treatments have a 4-16 week delay before achieving antidepressant effect - why?

Alteration of NTs in short term lead to downstream changes - may alter expression of BDNF → increase neuronal growth (specifically hippocampal volume)

179
Q

What would the ideal drug do for treatment of bipolar disorder

A

ideally want drug that would be anti-manic, anti-depressive, and prevent future episodes - few drugs truly work in all 3 phases

180
Q

3 anti-manic drugs

A

lithium, divalproex, carbamazepine

181
Q

Lithium

A

best studied and proven drug

  • Effective antimanic, reasonable preventative agent, some antidepressant effect
  • Prevention of future episodes
  • Antisuicidal properties
  • Neuroregenerative effects
182
Q

Lithium side effects

A

tremor, nausea, diarrhea, metallic taste, thirst, cognitive dulling

Blunted thoughts, confusion, weight gain, diminished sex drive

  • Narrow therapeutic window
  • Toxic/lethal in overdose

**Renal effects → anti-ADH action → polyuria-polydipsia

**Hypothyroidism

183
Q

Divalproex

A

good for mania
Rapid loading, safe and effective
Weight gain, sedation
Not effective for bipolar depression

184
Q

Best treatment for bipolar depression

A

Quetiapine, Lurasidone, lithium possibly lamotrigine are best treatments thus far

  • Very difficult to treat
  • Antidepressants can make bipolar depression worse
185
Q

Best drugs to prevent bipolar mania and depression (maintain steady state) (4)

A

Lithium, aripiprazole, olanzapine, lamotrigine

186
Q

Diagnostic criteria for personality disorder

really long card, just read it

A
  • Enduring pattern of inner experience and behavior that deviates markedly from expectations of individuals culture. In at least 2 areas:
    1) Cognition: ways of perceiving and interpreting self, other people, and events
    2) Affectivity: range, intensity, lability, and appropriateness of emotional response
    3) Interpersonal functioning
    4) Impulse control
  • inflexible and pervasive across a broad range of personal and social situations
  • leads to significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning
  • Pattern is stable and of long duration (in adolescence or early adulthood)
  • Not better accounted for as another mental disorder
  • Not due to physiologic effects of a substance or a general medical condition
187
Q

Cluster A personality disorders include (3)

A

“Weird”

1) Paranoid
2) Schizoid
3) Schizotypal

188
Q

Paranoid personality disorder

A

Cluster A

distrustful, suspicious

Vigilant, “The Survivor”

189
Q

Schizoid personality disorder

A

Cluster A

interpersonal detachment

Solitary, “The Loner”

Diagnostic criteria:
Restricted range of expression of emotions, pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships

190
Q

Schizotypal personality disorder

A

Cluster A

odd thoughts and behavior, interpersonal awkwardness

Idiosyncratic, “The Different Drummer”

Acute discomfort with and reduced capacity for close relationships as well as by cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities of behavior

191
Q

Antisocial personality disorder

A

cluster B

disregard and violation of others rights

Adventurous, “The Challenger”

Pervasive pattern of disregard/violation of rights of others

192
Q

Borderline personality disorder

A

cluster B

instability of relationships, self image, effects

Mercurial, “Fire and Ice”

Often due to childhood abuse, problems with mentalizing

Similar to bipolar disorder and PTSD

Pervasive pattern of instability of interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity

193
Q

Histrionic personality disorder

A

cluster B

emotionality and attention seeking

Dramatic, “Life of the Party”

194
Q

Narcissistic personality disorder

A

cluster B

grandiosity and lack of empathy

Self-Confident, “Star Quality”

195
Q

cluster B personality disorders (4)

A
"Wild"
1) Antisocial
2) Borderline
3 Histrionic
4) Narcissistic
196
Q

Cluster C personality disorders (3)

A

“Worried”

1) Avoidant
2) Dependent
3) Obsessive-Compulsive:

197
Q

Avoidant personality disorder

A

Cluster C

worries of inadequacy and being judged negatively

Sensitive, “The homebody”

198
Q

Dependent

A

Cluster C

need to be taken care of

Devoted, “The Good Mate”

199
Q

Obsessive-Compulsive:

A

Cluster C

orderliness, perfection, need to be in control

Conscientious, “The Right Stuff”

200
Q

Axis II disorder refers to which class of disorders

A

personality disorder and intellectual disabilities

No longer use “Axes” in DSM 5

201
Q

Sedative - Hypnotic Agents

2 agents
-what mechanism? (2)

A

Benzos and Barbiturates

Graded dose-dependent CNS depressant effects

Augment GABA inhibition and/or inhibit glutamate excitation

202
Q

sedative drugs vs. hypnotic drugs

A

Sedative drugs → decrease activity, moderate excitement, and calm recipient

Hypnotic drugs → produce drowsiness, facilitate onset + maintenance of sleep
-Resembles natural sleep and from which recipient can be easily aroused

203
Q

GABA receptor-Cl- Ion Channel

A

Cl- into cell → membrane hyperpolarization → decreased CNS neuronal excitability

  • Benzos bind alpha/gamma subunit in presence of GABA
  • Barbiturates can directly interact with GABA receptor
204
Q

Benzodiazepines mechanism

A

bind alpha or gamma subunit → facilitate channel opening, but do NOT directly initiate chloride current

INTENSIFY GABA → enhance channel opening ONLY in presence of GABA

No effect on excitatory NTs → CANNOT induce/maintain surgical anesthesia

205
Q

A1 subunit of GABA receptor-Cl- Ion channel

Expressed where? (1)

responsible for what effects of benzos (3)

A

highly expressed in cortex

Sedative (sleep), amnestic, and anticonvulsant actions of benzos

206
Q

A2/A5 subunit of GABA receptor-Cl- Ion channel

expressed where? (2)
responsible for what effects of benzos (4)

A

→ highly expressed in limbic system/brain stem

Myorelaxant, motor impairing, anxiolytic, and ethanol-potentiating effects of benzos

207
Q

Barbiturates mechanism of action

A

PROLONG GABA effect

  • At high concentrations can interact directly with GABA receptor (presence of GABA not required for effect)
  • Also depresses glutamate (excitatory NT)

→ greater CNS depression and full surgical anesthesia can be obtained
→ Lower safety margin

208
Q

Z drugs mechanism of action

A

interact with benzodiazepine binding site as agonists on GABA receptor (Cl- channel)

bind only to A1 subunit of GABA channel

→ enhance channel opening ONLY in presence of GABA

209
Q

Flumazenil

A

antagonist of benzo binding site, reverses CNS effect of benzos

NOT effective in barbiturate or ethanol toxicity

210
Q

Uses of benzodiazepines (3)

A

1) Sleep
2) Anxiolysis
3) Adjuncts for anesthesia (for anxiolytic and amnesia properties)

*Declining use due to abuse potential - used in acute and situational anxiety

Much greater dosage increments required to achieve CNS depression - greater margin of safety than with barbiturates

211
Q

Side effects of benzodiazepines (6)

A

1) Additive effects with other drugs can cause CNS depression (alcohol, opioid analgesics)
2) Anterograde amnesia - impaired ability to learn new information while retrieval of previously information is intact
3) Sedation and performance impairment
4) Strange sleep-related behavior
5) Severe allergic reactions
6) Psychologic and physiologic dependence

212
Q

How can you reduce risk of benzo psychological/physiological dependence?

How can you increase risk?

A

Schedule IV controlled substance

Reduce risk with: lowest effective dose, intermittent basis, shortest duration possible

Increased risk if: high dose, regular use, prior abuse history

213
Q

Distribution of benzos

A

very lipid soluble, enter CNS

214
Q

Metabolism/Excretion of benzos

A

CYP450 oxidation (phase I) and conjugation by glucuronidation (phase II) → elimination in urine

Many phase I metabolites are active → unwanted CNS effects, daytime sedation, etc.

215
Q

Z drugs use

A

bind only to A1 subunit of GABA channel

Use: sleep WITHOUT anxiolysis

Reduced potential for dependence

216
Q

Treatment of Generalized Anxiety Disorder

A

SSRIs, SNRIs

BDZs (acute and situational anxiety)

Can also use buspirone (weaker anxiolytic, time to onset longer)

NOT NDRIs

217
Q

Treatment of Panic disorder

A

SSRIs

Acutely: high potency BDZs

Can also use BDZs, TCADs, MAOIs for chronic treatment

218
Q

Treatment of Social Anxiety Disorder

performance vs. generalized

A

Generalized: SSRIs, SNRIs

Performance: B-blockers (propranolol), high potency BDZs

219
Q

Treatment of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

A

CBT most effective

Also: SSRIs, SNRIs, atypical antipsychotics

220
Q

Treatment of PTSD

A

CBT = pharmacotherapy (SSRIs, SNRIs)

221
Q

Drug list: Benzodiazepines (4)

A

1) Diazepam
2) Alprazolam
3) Lorazepam
4) Oxazepam

222
Q

Diazepam

A

Benzodiazepines

used to treat status epilepticus

Rapid oral absorption, poor IM bioavailability

223
Q

Alprazolam

A

Benzodiazepines

Rapid oral absorption

Acute management of anxiety, high potency

224
Q

Lorazepam

A

Benzodiazepines

Reliable IM absorption

Metabolized directly to inactive glucuronides (NO P450 step) → shorter half life, less cumulative effects → USE IN ELDERLY with impaired phase I metabolic pathways and patients with hepatic dysfunction

225
Q

Oxazepam

A

Benzodiazepines

Slow oral absorption

Metabolized directly to inactive glucuronides (NO P450 step) → shorter half life, less cumulative effects → USE IN ELDERLY with impaired phase I metabolic pathways and patients with hepatic dysfunction
“OLD LIVERS” (use in elderly)

226
Q

Barbiturates uses (2)

A

Anticonvulsants - inhibit formation and spread of seizure activity in cortical neurons

Anesthesia

227
Q

Barbiturates Side Effects:

A

1) Can cause medullary depression (respiratory and vasomotor centers) and coma/death
2) High abuse potential
3) Inducers of CYP450!

228
Q

Pentobarbital and Phenobarbital

A

Barbiturates

stop seizures at doses that do not cause severe sedation or effects on mental/motor activity

229
Q

Thiopental

A

(short acting barbiturates) → induce and maintain surgical anesthesia

230
Q

Buspirone

mechanism and uses

A

5HT1A partial agonist

Use:

1) Weaker anxiolytic effect than benzodiazepines, but fewer side effects
2) No sedation, anticonvulsant, or myorelaxant action

*Requires 2 weeks for onset of anxiolytic effect, 4-6 weeks for max efficacy

231
Q

Opioids

Reinforcing effects/CNS action

A

interact with endogenous opioid receptors (mu)

Euphoria, sedation, anxiolytic

232
Q

Opioids

Acute toxicities (3)

A

Respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils, coma

233
Q

Opioids

Acute toxicities treatment

A

cardiopulmonary status

Naloxone (Narcan) = opiate antagonist, short acting, requires repeated doses

234
Q

Opioids

Risk for tolerance

A

Develops rapidly - does not develop evenly in all organ systems affected

Most rapid tolerance for: euphoria, respiratory depression, analgesia, sedation, and vomiting

Little tolerance to: constipation and pupil constriction

235
Q

Opioids

Dependence

A

develops rapidly, can be present after 1-2 weeks of use

236
Q

Opioids

Withdrawal

A

bothersome, but NOT medically dangerous

Restlessness, fever, chills, joint/muscle pain, vomiting, diarrhea, tachycardia, hypertension

237
Q

Protracted Withdrawal Syndrome

A

anxiety, insomnia, drug craving can persist for up to 6 months

238
Q

Opioids

Withdrawal treatment (3 drugs)

A

Clonidine → alleviate SNS overactivity symptoms (nausea, vomiting, cramps, sweating tachycardia, increased BP) in acute withdrawal

Methadone → substitute opioid

Buprenorphine → partial mu agonist

239
Q

Opioids major drugs

A

heroin, morphine, oxycodone, methadone, fentanyl, hydrocodone, codeine, loperamide (anti-diarrheal)

240
Q

CNS Stimulants

Major drug classes

A

amphetamine, methamphetamine, cocaine

MDMA (hallucinogen + CNS depressant)

241
Q

CNS Stimulants

actions in CNS (meth vs. cocaine)

A

interact with catecholamine NTs (dopamine) → cause release or block reuptake of catecholamines

Cocaine: DAT inhibitor, blocks DA uptake

Methamphetamine: DAT reverses transporter, increase DA release

242
Q

CNS Stimulants

Effects leading to abuse

A

elevation of mood, exhilaration, increased energy, alertness, decreased appetite

243
Q

CNS Stimulants

Acute Toxicity

A

SNS overactivity (rapid pulse, increased BP, elevated body temp, sweating, increased motor activity, fatal arrhythmias, chest pain → MI)

Vasoconstriction of fetal blood supply in pregnant women

244
Q

CNS Stimulants

Acute Toxicity Treatment

A

cardiopulmonary support, gastric lavage, control elevated body temp

Seizures → diazepam

Phentolamine → BP control

DO NOT USE B-BLOCKERS (unopposed alpha stimulation)

BDZs: help calm patient down, decrease HR and BP

245
Q

CNS Stimulants

Tolerance

A

yes, to anorexia, euphoria, hyperthermia

Supersensitivity may develop to movement and psychotomimetic / paranoia effects

246
Q

CNS Stimulants

Dependence

A

strong psychological dependence, lack of physiological effects

247
Q

CNS Stimulants

Withdrawal

A

prolonged sleep, fatigue, depression → intense craving and drug seeking over 1-10 weeks

248
Q

CNS Stimulants

Withdrawal treatment

A

behavioral

TCADs and bupropion: relieve depression and reduce craving

249
Q

CNS depressants

Major drug classes

A

alcohol, benzodiazepines, barbiturates

250
Q

CNS depressants

Effects leading to abuse

A

euphoria, sedation, loss in inhibition

251
Q

CNS depressants

Acute Toxicity

A

Respiratory depression, coma (Extremely rare with BDZs)

252
Q

CNS depressants

Acute Toxicity Treatment
Ethanol
BDZs
Barbs

A

Ethanol: supportive, plus fluids-electrolytes-thiamine**

Benzodiazepines: flumazenil

Barbiturates: supportive

253
Q

CNS depressants

Tolerance

A

develops rapidly to barbiturates, moderately rapid to ethanol, and less with BDZs

254
Q

CNS depressants

Physical Dependence

A

appears within weeks

255
Q

CNS depressants

Withdrawal

A

significant risk of mortality due to seizures (grand mal), fever, delirium (including psychosis)

256
Q

CNS depressants

Withdrawal treatment

A

Treatment: substitute with BDZs → loading dose, then taper to prevent seizures

257
Q

Nicotine Action in CNS and effects leading to abuse

A

nicotinic neuronal receptor agonist (N-N)

increased alertness

258
Q

Nicotine Acute Toxicity

A

nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, salivation, diarrhea, headache, dizziness, hypotension, difficulty breathing, weak, irregular pulse, terminal convulsions, death by respiratory failure

259
Q

Nicotine Acute Toxicity Treatment

A

Treatment: gastric lavage, induction of vomiting, activated charcoal

260
Q

Nicotine tolerance?

A

yes (nausea, first morning rush is the best)

261
Q

Nicotine Physical Dependence?

A

moderate development of dependence

262
Q

Nicotine Withdrawal

A

irritability, impatience, hostility, depressed mood, difficulty concentrating, restlessness, increased appetite, weight gain

263
Q

Hallucinogens

Major drug classes

A

Indoleamines (serotonin-like): LSD, DMT, mushrooms (psilocybin)

Phenylethylamines (amphetamine-like): Mescaline, MDMA, MDA, DMA

264
Q

Hallucinogens Action in CNS

A

agonist at 5HT2 postsynaptic serotonin receptors

Phenylethylamines also induce dopamine release with effects on DA receptors

MDMA: SERT reverse transporter → 5HT release

265
Q

Hallucinogens

Effects leading to abuse

A

altered sensory perception, enhanced insight

266
Q

Hallucinogens

Acute Toxicity

A

panic reaction, anxiety with hallucinations, paranoia, confusion

At very high doses: temperature >103F, cardiovascular collapse, convulsions, rhabdomyolysis, kidney failure

267
Q

Hallucinogens

Acute Toxicity Treatment

A

stabilize cardiopulmonary function, treat convulsions and hyperthermia

Benzodiazepines and “talking down”

Antipsychotic agents

268
Q

Hallucinogens Tolerance?

A

not commonly seen since frequent/repeated use unusual

269
Q

Hallucinogens Physical Dependence?

A

does not develop

270
Q

Hallucinogens Withdrawal?

A

no clinically significant withdrawal known

271
Q

Marijuana

Action in CNS

A

CB1 agonist in CNS

272
Q

Marijuana

Effects leading to abuse

A

euphoria, “mellowness”, changes in perception

273
Q

Marijuana

Acute Toxicity

A

tremors, decreased muscle strength, balance, and motor coordination, increased reaction time, increase HR, seizures in epileptics, temporary delirium, paranoia with anxiety or confusion

274
Q

Marijuana

Acute Toxicity Treatment

A

general support and reassurance

275
Q

Marijuana Tolerance?

A

develops rapidly to most effects (feelings of intoxication)

Disappears rapidly

276
Q

Marijuana Physical Dependence?

A

high potential - behaviors of preoccupation, compulsion, reinforcement, and withdrawal after chronic use

277
Q

Marijuana Withdrawal?

A

not common, probably due to long half life of cannabinoids

278
Q

Dissociative Anesthetics

Major Drugs

A

Phencyclidine, Ketamine

279
Q

Dissociative Anesthetics

Actions in CNS

A

NMDA receptor antagonist

280
Q

Dissociative Anesthetics

Effects leading to abuse

A

euphoria, heightened emotionality

281
Q

Dissociative Anesthetics

Acute Toxicity

A

Delirium, increased respirations, HTN, tachycardia, hyperpyrexia, muscle rigidity, increased deep tendon reflexes, stereotypies, blank stare → stuporous, then comatose, seizures common → death from respiratory or cardiac complications

TRAUMA leading cause of PCP mortality

282
Q

Dissociative Anesthetics tolerance, dependence, and withdrawal?

A

none

283
Q

Ethanol absorption

A

rapid throughout entire GI tract - more rapid in SI (surface area)

Presence of food slows absorption

284
Q

Ethanol distribution

A

water soluble, distributed in total body water → brain, liver, kidney, lung, less alcohol distribution into fat

Placenta is permeable to ethanol

Women have higher BAC

Initial CNS within 5 min

Peak effect within 15-60

285
Q

Ethanol metabolism

A

2-10% expired unchanged in air and urine
1st pass metabolism: gastric mucosa
90-98% in Liver

Metabolism occurs at constant rate (zero order kinetics): 7-10 grams of alcohol per hour
Max rate = 220g/day

286
Q

Ethanol metabolism and the liver (2 enzymes)

A

90-98% in Liver: ethanol → acetaldehyde → acetic acid

Alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH): in liver cytosol and mitochondria

CYP2E1: ethanol metabolism at higher BAC

287
Q

5 metabolic derangements with alcohol metabolism and their effects?

A

1) Increased blood lactate → acidosis, behavioral disturbances
2) Increased Mg2+ excretion → convulsions
3) Decreased uric acid excretion → gout attacks
4) Increased acetyl-CoA → increased fatty acid synthesis, decreased fat break down → fatty liver
5) Increased NADH → decreased Krebs cycle activity, decreased gluconeogenesis → hypoglycemia

288
Q

Alcohol mechanism of action

A

inhibits glutamate binding to NMDA receptor

289
Q

Antabuse (disulfiram)

A

Inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase → 5-10 fold increase in acetaldehyde → nausea, vomiting, respiratory and CVD collapse, convulsions

Disulfiram-like symptoms with metronidazole

290
Q

Effects of ethanol on: CNS (4)

A

1) Sedative-Hypnotic: CNS depressant effect (similar to barbiturates)
- Increase GABA + decrease glutamate
- Anxiolysis

2) Anticonvulsant: BUT hyperexcitability upon withdrawal
- May precipitate convulsions

3) Analgesic effects, sleep effects
4) Emetic effect → stimulate CTZ → induce vomiting

291
Q

Effects of ethanol on: Liver

A

damage due to increased NADH + direct toxicity

**Fatty liver

**Alcoholic hepatitis → jaundice, ascites, vomiting, anorexia

Alcoholic cirrhosis → jaundice, portal HTN, esophageal varices

292
Q

Effects of ethanol on: Kidney

A

diuresis (decreased ADH secretion, increased fluid intake)

293
Q

Effects of ethanol on: GI tract

A

Esophagitis, ulcers, gastritis (due to inflammatory effect of alcohol) → epigastric pain, vomiting, hematemesis

**Pancreatitis (due to secretory effect of alcohol) → weight loss, blood loss, abdominal pain, shock

294
Q

Effects of ethanol on: Cardiovascular

A

Vasodilation, heart disease, HTN

Can be CARDIOPROTECTIVE due to decreased platelet aggregation and increased HDL levels

295
Q

Effects of ethanol on: Fetus

A

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

Prenatal or postnatal growth retardation and altered morphogenesis (especially facial dysmorphology)

Small head, epicanthal folds, low nasal bridge, small eye openings, short nose, thin upper lip, flat midface, smooth philtrum, underdeveloped jaw

296
Q

Ethanol: tolerance and withdrawal

A

Tolerance: moderate level of tolerance occurs
-Cross tolerance with other CNS depressants

Withdrawal: can be life threatening: anxiety, insomnia, tremor, seizures, visual hallucinations, delirium tremens

297
Q

Treatment of alcohol withdrawal (2)

A

BZDS: action at GABA receptors prevents emergence of CNS hyperexcitability following withdrawal of alcohol

Clonidine: effective for signs of autonomic hyperactivity

298
Q

Drug-Drug Interactions with Alcohol:

Additive effects with all ______________

Cross tolerance to ____________ and _______________

Can promote GI bleeding if taken with ___________

Increase risk of hepatotoxicity with ______________

A

Additive effects with all CNS depressants (acute)

Cross tolerance to sedative-hypnotic drugs and general anesthetics

Can promote GI bleeding if taken with aspirin

Increase risk of hepatotoxicity with acetaminophen

299
Q

Acute alcohol intoxication:

Treatment

A

support respiration, administer IV fluids (glucose, thiamine, and electrolytes (K+, Mg2+))

No specific antidote available

300
Q

Substance abuse disorder

A

Physical dependence (tolerance and withdrawal), craving, diminished capacity to control one’s substance use (use becomes priority)

301
Q

Characteristics of a substance abuse disorder: 6

A
  1. Substance is taken in larger amounts or over a longer period than was intended
  2. Persistent desire or unsuccessful efforts to cut down or control substance use
  3. Lots of time spent in activities necessary to obtain or use substances or recover from its effects
  4. Craving, strong desire, urge to use substance
  5. Continued use despite persistent or recurrent social or interpersonal problems caused/exacerbated by effects of substance
  6. Substance use despite knowledge of problem with substance
302
Q

Definition of tolerance (2)

A
  1. Need for markedly increased amounts for intoxication/desired effect
  2. Markedly diminished effect with continued use of same amount of substance
303
Q

Withdrawal

A

experiencing characteristic withdrawal syndrome or substance is used to relieve or avoid withdrawal symptoms

304
Q

Biological mechanisms of substance use disorder (2)

A
  1. Genetic component:
    - 1st degree relative with substance use problem increases risk of substance use
    - Twin and adoption studies
  2. Neurobiology: all substances of abuse increase dopamine release in nucleus accumbens
    - Motivational systems and reward (VTA → nucleus accumbens)
    - Frontal regions involved in learning, cognitive control or inhibition (PFC)
    - Regions involved in mood and stress reactivity
305
Q

Screening for substance abuse disorders: At risk

A

increased risk for future abuse
Men: >5 drinks/day or 14/week
Women: >4/day or >7/week
→ Brief intervention

306
Q

Screening for substance abuse disorder: substance abuse disorder

A

→ treatment, referral, possible medication

307
Q

Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal (3) and treatment

A
  1. Alcohol = CNS depressant, withdrawal will be opposite
  2. Tachycardia, diaphoresis, tremulousness
  3. Potentially life threatening (delirium tremens)

TX: long acting benzodiazepine taper

308
Q

Symptoms of opioid withdrawal and treatment

A
  • Intoxication: drowsiness to coma, slurred speech, impaired attention or memory
  • Muscle aches, nausea, lacrimation, rhinorrhea, pupillary dilation, piloerection, diarrhea - Not life threatening

TX: supportive medication, clonidine, methadone/buprenorphine

309
Q

3 treatments of alcohol abuse disorders

A
  1. Antabuse (Disulfiram)
  2. Revia and vivitrol (Naltrexone)
  3. Campral (acamprosate)
310
Q

Antabuse

A

Inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase

Alcohol → (ADH, alcohol dehydrogenase)→ Acetaldehyde → (ALDH) → Acetic acid

Antabuse blocks ALDH (aldehyde dehydrogenase)

→ antabuse reaction: flushing, headache, nausea, dizziness, tachycardia

  • *DO NOT start unless patient does not have alcohol in system
  • *DO NOT use if pregnant
311
Q

Revia and vivitrol

A

opioid antagonist

Blocks euphoria from alcohol, and cravings for alcohol

312
Q

Campral (acamprosate)

A

GABA/glutamate effects?
Reduces CNS hyperexcitability
DO NOT use in pregnancy

313
Q

3 treatments of opioid use disorders

A
  1. methadone
  2. bupreneorphine
  3. naltrexone
314
Q

Methadone

A

long acting opiod agonist

315
Q

Buprenorphine

A

partial opioid agonist
- Can precipitate withdrawal
Retention in treatment and reduction in opioid use
-Office-based
- Buprenorphine + Naloxone → prevents injection of buprenorphine

316
Q

Naltrexone in treatment of opioid disorders

A
  • can precipitate withdrawal
  • Blocks effects of heroin
  • Poor retention
317
Q

3 treatments of nicotine use disorders

A
  1. Nicotine replacement therapy
  2. Bupropion (Wellbutrin/Zyban)
  3. Chantix (varenicline)
318
Q

Side effects of nicotine replacement therapy

A

rash, tachycardia

319
Q

Bupropion

A

nicotinic receptor antagonist? Dopamine reuptake inhibitor

- Doubles quit rates

320
Q

Chantix (varenicline)

A
  • partial a4B2 agonist, conflicting reports of depression and suicidal ideation
  • Worries about mood changes, suicidality, small increase in CV events
321
Q

Principles of motivational interviewing

A

aims to facilitate and enhance a person’s intrinsic motivation to change addictive behavior in a highly empathetically supportive but strategically directed conversation about the person’s use of substances and related life events

322
Q

OARS in motivational interviewing

A

Open ended questions
Affirmations
Reflective listening
Summarizing

323
Q

Techniques used in motivational interviewing (4, aside from OARS)

A

Express empathy
Roll with resistance
Develop discrepancies
Support self-efficacy

324
Q

Contingency management

A

Detection + Reinforcers provided with behavior + Reinforcers are withheld when behavior does not occur

325
Q

7 principles of contingency management

A
  1. Utilize a behavior that can be reliable detected (e.g. refraining from drug use and determined by urine drug screens)
  2. Develop a behavioral plan where reinforcers are provided with behavior
  3. Develop a behavioral plan, where reinforcers are withheld when behavior does not occur
  4. Identify and utilize reinforcers, which are motivating for this patient
  5. Positive reinforcers may change behavior more than punishment
  6. The more quickly that reinforcers can be paired with the behavior, the more likely behavior is to change
  7. Fish bowl method can reduce costs
326
Q

Aripiprazole

A

atypical antipsychotic

  • low D2/5HT2A ratio
  • partial agonist of D2 receptor
327
Q

Quetiapine

A

atypical antipsychotic

most sedative potential, used questionably as a hypnotic agent in certain clinical settings

328
Q

Benefits of using atypical antipsychotics? (3)

A

1) Preferred for patients with negative symptoms and cognition deficits
2) Decreased risk of EPSE symptoms

3) Selective effect on mesolimbic vs. nigrostriatal dopamine neurons
- -> Little hyperprolactinemia

329
Q

Extrapyramidal side effects of antipsychotics can each be treated with what?

A

1) Acute dystonia (swollen tongue, tinnitus, trismus)
- -> TX: anticholinergic

2) Akathisia: motor restlessness, inability to sit still
- -> TX: B-blocker, benzo, anticholinergic

3) Pseudo Parkinsonism: tremor, bradykinesia, rigidity, shuffling gait
- -> TX: anticholinergic agents

4) Tardive dyskinesia: involuntary repetitive movement of lips, tongue
Possibly due to D2 receptor supersensitivity
–> TX: none effective

330
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

side effect of antipsychotics

(medical emergency, treat immediately)

Similar to malignant hyperthermia

TX: dantrolene sodium

331
Q

NADH and alcohol metabolism

A

Ethanol metabolism generates NADH that promotes production of lactate from pyruvate → lactic acidosis