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Acute & Emergency Care > UNIT II - EXAM 2 > Flashcards

UNIT II - EXAM 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which structure secretes glucagon?

A) alpha cells

B) beta cells

C) islets of langerhans

D) delta cells

A

alpha cells

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2
Q

When ___________ minutes have passed without either seeing lightning or hearing thunder, it is safe to resume activities and be outdoors

A) 10

B) 15

C) 20

D) 30

A

30

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3
Q

Type 2 diabetes is a condition whose onset and severity can be greatly decreased with which of the following?

A) surgery

B) medicine

C) exercise

D) genetic therapy

A

exercise

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4
Q

A person with low blood sugar will experience which of the following?

A) bradycardia

B) hypoventilation

C) arrhythmia

D) tachycardia

A

tachycardia

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5
Q

During the clinical presentation of rhabdomyolysis, the reddish-brown color of urine is caused by

A) urea

B) myoglucose

C) uric acid

D) myoglobinuria

A

myoglobinuria

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6
Q

Levels of creatine kinase greater than __________ U/L may indicate ER

A) 250

B) 500

C) 2,000

D) 5,000

A

5,000

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7
Q

Which of these therapies should be avoided after insulin use?

A) normtecs

B) hot packs

C) e-stim

D) massage

A

hot packs

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8
Q

When normal sodium levels in the blood lower to a level of 125-129 mEqL, the patients decrease in sodium is said to be

A) mild

B) moderate

C) severe

D) acute

A

moderate

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9
Q

The gold standard for treating someone with heatstroke is which of the following?

A) cold packs

B) cold towels

C) cold water immersion

D) cold fluids

A

cold water immersion

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10
Q

Cold illness mostly affects which of the following organ systems?

A) Respiratory System

B) Nervous System

C) Digestive System

D) Urinary System

A

Nervous System

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11
Q

TRUE/FALSE:

McBurney’s point is a palpation location for appendicitis

A

true

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12
Q

When a person is a part of the lightning channel as it makes contact with the earth, the strike is said ti be a

A) side flash

B) ground current

C) upward streamer

D) contact injury

A

upward streamer

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13
Q

Which of these organs is found in the retroperitoneum?

A) stomach

B) liver

C) spleen

D) small intestine

A

liver

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14
Q

A heart murmur will be heard the loudest over which section of the heart?

A) upper right

B) lower right

C) upper left

D) lower left

A

lower left

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15
Q

Death from Marfan syndrome can occur from a dissection of which major blood vessel?

A) aorta

B) pulmonary trunk

C) inferior vena cava

D) superior vena cava

A

aorta

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16
Q

Typical respiration rate in
Adults:
>65:
<80:

A

Adults: 12-20bpm
>65: 12-25
<80: 10-30

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17
Q

External rhabdomyolysis is characterized by the breakdown of which type of tissue?

A) adipose

B) muscular

C) lymphatic

D) neural

A

muscular

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18
Q

A blood pressure of 140 to 159/90 to 99 mmHg is considered

A) hypotension

B) prehypertension

C) mild hypertension

D) severe hypertension

A

mild hypertension

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19
Q

The respiration rate in a typical adult is ____________ breaths per minute.

A) 5-10

B) 12-20

C) 20-28

D) 30-36

A

12-20

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20
Q

Which of these is a cause of rhabdomyolysis?

A) accustomed workouts

B) hypothermia

C) embolism

D) excessive hydration

A

embolism

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21
Q

Which heart rate is greater than >100 bpm?

A) normal

B) extreme bradycardia

C) Sinus bradycardia

D) tachycardia

A

tachycardia

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22
Q

What type of respiratory sounds occur when air moves freely though the large passageways of the lungs and are heard over the anterior chest in the trachea and bronchi?

A) bronchio vascular sounds

B) bronchial sounds

C) alveolar sounds

D) vesicular sounds

A

bronchial sounds

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23
Q

A patient presents to his HCP with pink frothy sputum. This patient most likely has which of the following?

A) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

B) acute myocardial infarction

C) myocarditis

D) marfan syndrome

A

acute myocardial infarction

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24
Q

A patient comes to the clinic complaining of appendix pain. In which quadrant will her pain be located?

A) upper right

B) upper left

C) lower right

D) lower left

A

lower right

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25
Q

Signs of heatstroke include

A) rectal temperature at 102°F

B) clammy skin

C) profuse sweating

D) headache

A

clammy skin

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26
Q

If hyponatremia is left untreated, it can lead to

A) renal failure

B) tachycardia

C) elevated blood pressure

D) extracellular shrinkage

A

renal failure

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27
Q

The Valsalva maneuver is used to detect which of the following heart conditions?

A) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

B) acute myocardial infarction

C) myocarditis

D) marfan syndrome

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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28
Q

Athletes with hyperglycemia but normal ketonuria are allowed to participate as long as serum glucose is assessed every

A) 5 minutes

B) 10 minutes

C) 15 minutes

D) 20 minutes

A

15 minutes

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29
Q

In patients with rhabdomyolysis, acute renal failure may occur _____________ after initial muscle damage

A) 1-2 hours

B) 10-12 hours

C) 1-2 days

D) 10-12 days

A

1-2 days

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30
Q

Sickle cell trait is most prevalent among persons of African or ____________ descent

A) asian

B) South American

C) mediterranean

D) samoan

A

mediterranean

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31
Q

Hypoglycemia and Hyperglycemia which of these is a symptom of hypoglycemia?

A) polyuria

B) anxiety

C) hypotension

D) hypoventilation

A

anxiety

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32
Q

Which condition is a blockage in a vessel of the lungs commonly caused by a thrombus?

A) cardiac embolism

B) thoracic thrombosis

C) ischemic attack

D) pulmonary embolism

A

pulmonary embolism

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33
Q

A person who has Marfan syndrome will not display

A) joint hypermobility

B) ocular lens subluxation

C) flat feet

D) short stature

A

short stature

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34
Q

According to the AAST grading scale, a liver injury with a sub scapular hematoma of 10% to 50% in surface area is considered to be which grade?

A) I

B) II

C) III

D) IV

A

III

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35
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of exertional collapse associated with sickle cell?

A) often with prodrome of muscle twinges

B) slumped to the ground with weak muscles

C) physically writing and yelling in pain

D) prolonged recovery with rest, rehydration

A

slumped to the ground with weak muscles

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36
Q

A patient with a suspected kidney injury will suffer from which of these symptoms?

A) tachycardia

B) nausea

C) hypertension

D) hematuria

A

hematuria
(blood in urine)

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37
Q

What is the name of the condition that has blood in the pleural cavity?

A) pneumothorax

B) hemothorax

C) hemopneumpthorax

D) sanguothorax

A

hemothorax

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38
Q

What type of IV is needed to treat heat illnesses and hypovolemia?

A) dextrose

B) Lactated Ringer’s (LR) solution

C) saline

D) amino acid

A

saline

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39
Q

(Clot) final product of blood coagulation in hemostasis healthy response to injury to prevent bleeding

A

Thrombus

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40
Q

low level of carbon dioxide in the blood

A

Hypocardia

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41
Q

<60 bpm

A

bradycardia

42
Q

<50 bpm

A

extreme bradycardia

43
Q

heard both ant/post toward midline of thorax, medium sized air passages (echo)

A

bronchiovescular

44
Q

lower pitched; ant/post away from midline; all other areas of lungs (esp. bronchioles) (deep/full sound)

A

vesicular

45
Q

SpO2: 95%-100%
Flow Rate: none
Oxygen Device: none

A

Normal

46
Q

SpO2: 91%-94%
Flow Rate: 1-6 L/min
Oxygen Device: nasal cannula

A

Mild Hypoxia

47
Q

SpO2: 88% - 92%
Flow Rate: 6-10 L/min
Oxygen Device: simple oxygen mask

A

Mild-moderate Hypoxia

48
Q

SpO2: 86%-90%
Flow Rate: 10-15 L/min
Oxygen Device: non-rebreather mask or bag-valve mask

A

Moderate Hypoxia

49
Q

SpO2: <85%
Flow Rate: 15 L/min or higher
Oxygen Device: non-rebreather mask or bag-valve mask

A

Severe Hypoxia

50
Q

Indications:
unresponsive
altered mental status
intact gag reflex
oral trauma preventing OPA

Contraindications:
intolerance
facial fx
nasal obstruction or epistaxis
caution with skull fx

A

Nasopharyngeal airway

51
Q

Indications:
unresponsive
absent gag reflex (if they start to gag can’t use)

Contraindications:
conscious
gag reflex
trauma to mandible and teeth

A

Oropharyngeal airway

52
Q

Nose to throat -

Mouth to throat -

A

Nasopharyngeal airway

Oropharyngeal airway

53
Q

Indications:
cardiac arrest
not breathing
severe anaphylaxis

A

LMA

54
Q

MOI: blow to chest

S/S: dyspnea, gasping for breath, cyanosis, tracheal deviation, tachypnea, jugular vein distention, decreased breath sounds

A

Pneumo/Hemothorax

55
Q

Venous thromboembolisms, blockage (thrombus), DVT, fatal 3rd COD-CV in US

S/S: dyspnea & chest pain, anxiety, shock, cyanosis, tachycardia, hemoptysis, hypotension, hypoxia

Risk Factors: hereditary blood disorders, birth control, hormone therapy, pregnancy, immobilization, trauma, long-term traveling

A

Pulmonary Embolism (PE)

56
Q

Venous thromboembolisms, blockage (thrombus), DVT, fatal 3rd COD-CV in US

S/S: dyspnea & chest pain, anxiety, shock, cyanosis, tachycardia, hemoptysis, hypotension, hypoxia

Risk Factors: hereditary blood disorders, birth control, hormone therapy, pregnancy, immobilization, trauma, long-term traveling

A

Pulmonary Embolism (PE)

57
Q

60-100 bpm

A

normal heart rate (sinus rhythm)

58
Q

rapid heart rhythm; potentially life threatening

A

ventricular tachycardia (V-tach or VF)

59
Q

uncoordinated contraction of ventricles and inability to pump blood effectively

A

Ventricular fibrillation (V-fib or VF)

60
Q

No cardiac electrical activity, no myocardial contractions, and no cardiac output

A

Asystole (flatline)

61
Q

air in plural cavity

A

pneumothorax

62
Q

blood & air in pleural cavity

A

hemopneumothorax

63
Q

nose bleed

A

epistaxis

64
Q

turning blue

A

cyanosis

65
Q

coughing up blood

A

hemoptysis

66
Q

shortness of breath; difficulty or labored breathing

A

dyspnea

67
Q

difficulty swallowing

A

dysphagia

68
Q

oxygen-binding protein in muscle tissue that is only found in the blood stream after muscle injury (relevant to myogloburina)

A

Myoglobin

69
Q

BP of <90/60 mmHg

A

hypotensive

70
Q

BP of 120-139/180 mmHg

A

prehypertensive

71
Q

BP of >180/110 mmHg or greater

A

Severe hypertension

72
Q

Primary gland secreting the hormone insulin and glucagon

A

pancreases

73
Q
  • depression of RS
  • opioid OD
  • increase inter cranial pressure
  • diabetic coma
  • severse airway obstruction
  • sleep apnea
A

causes of bradypnoea (slow RR <12 bpm)

74
Q
  • anxiety
  • emotional distress
  • p!
  • fever
  • asthma/COPD
  • PE
  • Pneumonia
  • acute res distress syndrome
  • anaphylaxis
  • heart failure
  • shock
  • diabetic ketoacidosis
  • neuromuscular disorder
  • increased HR
A

causes of tachypnoea (fast RR >20 bpm)

75
Q

life threatening electrolyte imbalance

complication of exertional rhabdomyolysis

A

hyperkalemia

76
Q

muscle tissue breakdown, leading to muscle cell infiltration into the circulatory system

  • electrolytes
  • myoglobin
  • potassium
  • creatine kinase (CK)
  • other muscle enzymes
A

Exertional Rhabdomyolysis

77
Q

heart murmurs can be heard/found in the

A

mitral & tricuspid valve (mid-clavicular line, bw 7th/8th intercostal space)

78
Q

When can aspirin be used to treat myocardial infarctions

A
  • hemodynamically stable patients with cardiac symptoms or ACS
79
Q

upper-right quadrant organs

A

liver
gallbladder
tail of pancreas
small intestine
transverse colon
ascending colon

80
Q

upper-left quadrant

A

spleen
stomach
small intestine
transverse colon
descending colon

81
Q

lower-right quadrant

A

appendix
distal right ureter
right ovary
right fallopian tube
small intestine
ascending colon

82
Q

lower-left quadrant

A

distal left ureter
left ovary
left Fallopian tube
small intestine
descending colon

83
Q
  • characterized by the body inability to produce insulin
  • not preventable
A

type 1 diabetes

84
Q
  • inability to use insulin effectively because of a combo of resistance to insulin + overall decreased production of insulin
  • preventable
A

type 2 non-insuline-dependent diabetes mellitus

85
Q
  • mm swelling
  • neuronal ischemia causing paresthesia or paralysis
  • 30 to 50 mm Hg is an indication for fasciotomy
  • complication of ER
A

acute compartment syndrome

86
Q

often lethal disruption of heart rhythm resulting from a direct blow to the precordial region at a critical time during the cardiac cycle, causing cardiac arrest (dammer Hamlin)

A

commotio cordis

87
Q

process of purifying blood by extra corporeal removal of waste products such as creatine and urea and free water from the blood when kidneys are not functioning properly or renal failure (dialysis)

A

hemodialysis

88
Q

rupture or lysis of RBCs (erythrocytes) nd the release of their contents (cytoplasm) into surrounding fluid (plasma)

A

hemolysis

89
Q

arterial concentration of carbon dioxide more than 50 mmHg typically caused by inadequate respiration

A

hypercapnia

90
Q

left ventricle becomes thick resulting in the heart being less able to pump blood effectively. complications include heart failure, irregular heart beat, sudden cardiac death

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

91
Q

amount of sodium is diluted in the blood, usually caused by over hydration. can be life-threatening, not caused by heat; self imposed over hydration

causes: fluid loss due to vomiting or diarrhea, certains meds or conditions, chronic conditions

S/S: headache, malaise to systemic swelling, nausea, lethargy, dyspnea and delirium (reps what system is impacted)

A

hyponatremia

92
Q

normal sodium levels

mild Na+ levels

moderate Na+ levels

severe Na+ levels

A

135-145 mEq/L

130-134 mEq/L

125-129 mEq/L

<124 mEq/L

93
Q

inadequate blood supply to an organ or tissue (esp heart) causing shortage of oxygen and glucose needed for cellular metabolism

A

ischemia

94
Q

inflammation developed in myocardium or middle muscular layer of heart wall. weakens heart and its electrical system; ability to pump declines

A

myocarditis

95
Q

referred pain at the left shoulder from trauma to the spleen. pain in tip of shoulder due to pressence of blood or other irritants in peritoneal cavity when person is laying down and legs are elevated

A

kehr’s sign

96
Q

occurs when the microcirculation is obstructed by sickled RBCs, resulting in an infarction, ischemia tissue injury and pain

A

vaso-occlusion

97
Q

lodging of an embolus (blood clot or other blockage such as fat or gas in blood vessel) causing occlusion, infarction, and tissue death as a result of blocking the blood supply

A

embolism

98
Q

Core temp: 98.6°-95°F (37°-35°C)

Derm: pale

Motor: impaired fine motor control

CNS: typically conscious, amnesia, lethargy

Shivering: vigorous

BP: normal

Respiration: normal

Cardio: normal

Ocular:

Other: polyuria, rhinorrhea

A

Mild Hypothermia

99
Q

Core temp: 94°-90°F (37°-35°C)

Derm: cyanosis

Motor: impaired gross motor control

CNS: impaired mental function, loss of consciousness

Shivering: absent

BP: decreased/difficult to measure

Respiration: depressed

Cardio: depressed PR; cardiac arrhythmias

Ocular: dilated pupils

Other: slurred speech, muscle integrity

A

Moderate Hypothermia

100
Q

Core temp: below 90°F (below 32°C)

Derm:

Motor:

CNS: usually comatose

Shivering: absent

BP: hypotension

Respiration: severely depressed, pulmonary edema

Cardio: bradycardia, spontaneous V-fib, cardiac arrest

Ocular:

Other: rigidity

A

Severe Hypothermia

101
Q

Texture: dry, waxy, edema

Color: erythema, white, blue-gray patches

Palpation: cold, firm skin

Px Complaints: transient burning or tingling

A

Mild or Superficial Frostbite

102
Q

Texture: hard, waxy, vesicles present

Color: white, black, purple

Palpation: immobile to palpation, poor circulation in area

Px Complaints: burning, throbbing, shooting pain

Other: progressive tissue necrosis, neurapraxia, hemorrhagic blistering (36-72hrs)

A

Deep Frostbite

Acute & Emergency Care (3 decks)

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