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Acute & Emergency Care > Comprehensive Final Exam > Flashcards

Comprehensive Final Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

An injured patient who is pregnant falls under what category for transportation to the hospital?

A) Physiologic criteria

B) Anatomic criteria

C) Significant mechanism of injury criteria

D) Special patient criteria

A

Special Patient Criteria

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2
Q

A patient responds to a question by saying, “it hurts when I jump and land.” This question concerns

A) Onset

B) Quality

C) Provocation

D) Region

A

Provocation

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3
Q

If an AT is administering epinephrine 1:1,000 for anaphylaxis, then it would be administered intramuscularly (IM) and not intravenously (IV). A 1:10,000 concentration would be appropriate for the IV administration route. This is known as

A) right medication

B) right patient

C) right dose

D) right time

A

Right Medication

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4
Q

Glucagon is often prescribed to patients with diabetes for use if they become

A) hypoglycemic

B) hyperglycemic

C) anaphylactic

D) asthmatic

A

Hypoglycemic

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5
Q

A patient comes to her health care provider complaining of fresh blood in her vomit after being hit in the stomach. The patient is suffering from why type of hemorrhaging?

A) Ecchymosis

B) Menorrhagia

C) Epistaxis

D) Hematemesis

A

Hematemesis

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6
Q

A patient experiencing vasodilation that may have septic or non septic causes including anaphylaxis and neurogenic etiologies is experiencing what type of shock?

A) Hypovolemic

B) Cardiogenic

C) Distributive

D) Obstructive

A

Distributive

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7
Q

A patient with black foul smelling stool that contains digested blood is said to have the following?

A) Hematochezia

B) Hematemesis

C) Hemoptysis

D) Melena

A

Melena

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8
Q

Which site is the appropriate injection site for an inter muscular injection of a maximum of 2ml?

A) deltoid region

B) lateral quad region

C) gluteal region

D) medial region

A

gluteal region

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9
Q

Reversal of respiratory depression or arrest associated with narcotic overdose is treated with which of the following?

A) glucagon

B) naloxone

C) epinephrine

D) insuline

A

naloxone

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10
Q

Which method of oxygen delivery has a concentration of 95% to 100% and has a flow rate of 10-15 L/min?

A) nasal cannula

B) simple oxygen face mask

C) face mask with oxygen reservoir

D) bag-valve mask

A

face mask with oxygen reservoir

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11
Q

This fracture is an incomplete break of a bone that has not fully ossified

A) transverse

B) greenstick

C) commuted

D) avulsion

A

greenstick

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12
Q

The most common elbow dislocation is

A) anterior

B) lateral

C) posterior

D) medial

A

Posterior

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13
Q

A pelvic fracture can damage which of the following arteries

A) internal iliac

B) gonadal

C) femoral

D) common iliac

A

internal iliac

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14
Q

Which type of femur fracture is often referred to as a hip fracture?

A) proximal femoral

B) femoral shaft

C) distal femur

D) radial femoral

A

proximal femoral

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15
Q

An athlete experiences a virus force on the proximal tibia. What type of fracture is he most likely to experience?

A) lateral

B) bicondylar

C) medial

D) bicondylar with soft tissue injuries

A

medial

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16
Q

On the Glasgow Coma Scale, a verbal response that uses inappropriate words receives which score?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

A

3

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17
Q

An athlete is hit in the head by a baseball. When the helmet is removed, there is an indentation in the side of his skull. What type of fracture has he sustained?

A) linear

B) basilar

C) diastatic

D) depressed

A

depressed

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18
Q

The “A” in the FAST acronym for a patient suspected of having a stroke stands for…

A) awareness

B) asymptomatic

C) articulation

D) arm weakness

A

arm weakness

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19
Q

After being hit in the face during a boxing match, your athlete has a maxilla fracture that affects the upper teeth, maxillary sinuses, and nasal bones. What classification if this fracture?

A) Type I

B) Type II

C) Type III

D) Type IV

A

Type III

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20
Q

Chronic headaches continue longer than

A) 1 week

B) 1 month

C) 2 months

D) 3 months

A

3 months

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21
Q

Which of the following is a contraindication for returning the cervical spine back to the neutral position?

A) returning the spine to neutral with no resistance

B) patients unwillingness to move

C) airway that is maintained

D) decrease in symptoms and pain

A

patients unwillingness to move

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22
Q

What is the best method for spine boarding a prone patient?

A) multi person lift and slide

B) straddle lift and slide

C) log roll

D) single person life and slide

A

log roll

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23
Q

Which of the following is the most commonly used SMR device?

A) vacuum mattress

B) scoop stretcher

C) Kendrick extraction device

D) long spine board

A

long spine board

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24
Q

What is the first step when managing a patient with a suspected spine injury?

A) retrieving the spine board

B) inline stabilization

C) log rolling

D) application of a collar

A

inline stabilization

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25
Q

Placing padding at the head after the helmet has been removed prevents which motion?

A) excess extension

B) excess flexion

C) excess lateral bending

D) excess lateral rotation

A

excessive extension

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26
Q

TRUE/FALSE:

Supraglottal airways are a form of airway adjunct that is placed above the larynx

A

true

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27
Q

TRUE/FALSE:

A risk factor of PE is traveling longer than 4 hours without walking around

A

true

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28
Q

TRUE/FALSE:

> 180/110 mmHg is Hypertensive

A

true

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29
Q

TRUE/FALSE:

Nitroglycerin is administered under the tongue

A

true

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30
Q

TRUE/FALSE:

The gallbladder is located in the URQ

A

true

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31
Q

TRUE/FALSE:

McBurney’s point is a palpation location for appendicitis

A

true

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32
Q

TRUE/FALSE:

Dipstick UA is standard test for kidney injuries

A

true

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33
Q

When a person is a part of the lightning channel as it makes contact with the earth, the strike is said ti be a

A) side flash

B) ground current

C) upward streamer

D) contact injury

A

upward streamer

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34
Q

External rhabdomyolysis is characterized by the breakdown of which type of tissue?

A) adipose

B) muscular

C) lymphatic

D) neural

A

muscular

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35
Q

Which structure secretes glucagon?

A) alpha cells

B) beta cells

C) islets of langerhans

D) delta cells

A

alpha cells

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36
Q

What muscle is the predominant muscle of the abdomen?

A) internal oblique

B) external oblique

C) rectus abdominis

D) transverse oblique

A

rectus abdominis

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37
Q

A blood pressure of 140 to 159/90 to 99 mmHg is considered

A) hypotension

B) prehypertension

C) mild hypertension

D) severe hypertension

A

mild hypertension

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38
Q

The respiration rate in a typical adult is ____________ breaths per minute.

A) 5-10

B) 12-20

C) 20-28

D) 30-36

A

12-20

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39
Q

Exercise-induced deep vein thrombosis is also known as

A) Kehr’s sign

B) Paget-Schroetter syndrome

C) Thoracic outlet syndrome

D) Tinel’s sign

A

Paget-Schroetter syndrome

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40
Q

Rapid Transport should be considered for which of the following?

A) shoulder dislocation

B) confusion

C) chest pain with systolic pressure >100 mmHg

D) abnormal breathing

A

abnormal breathing

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41
Q

Which of the following results in severe functional disability, surgery, medical disqualification, and possibly sudden death?

A) emergencies

B) catastrophic injuries

C) critical incidents

D) traumatic events

A

catastrophic injuries

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42
Q

The last dose of vaccine for hepatitis B should be given how long after the second dose?

A) 1 month

B) 2 months

C) 4 months

D) 5 months

A

5 months

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43
Q

Todays health care system is based on

A) working as a loner

B) a diverse group of people who collaborate

C) a clinician who doesn’t have relationships

D) not sharing responsibilities

A

a diverse group of people who collaborate

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44
Q

When ___________ minutes have passed without either seeing lightning or hearing thunder, it is safe to resume activities and be outdoors

A) 10

B) 15

C) 20

D) 30

A

30

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45
Q

Which of these is a cause of rhabdomyolysis?

A) accustomed workouts

B) hypothermia

C) embolism

D) excessive hydration

A

embolism

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46
Q

Type 2 diabetes is a condition whose onset and severity can be greatly decreased with which of the following?

A) surgery

B) medicine

C) exercise

D) genetic therapy

A

exercise

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47
Q

Which of these organs is found in the retroperitoneum?

A) stomach

B) liver

C) spleen

D) small intestine

A

liver

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48
Q

Which heart rate is greater than >100 bpm?

A) normal

B) extreme bradycardia

C) Sinus bradycardia

D) tachycardia

A

tachycardia

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49
Q

What type of respiratory sounds occur when air moves freely though the large passageways of the lungs and are heard over the anterior chest in the trachea and bronchi?

A) bronchovesicular sounds

B) bronchial sounds

C) alveolar sounds

D) vesicular sounds

A

bronchial sounds

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50
Q

A complete separation of the physics in relation to the metaphysis with no fracture to the bone is known as what type of fracture?

A) Type I

B) Type II

C) Type III

D) Type IV

A

Type I

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51
Q

Which of the following is the least common risk factor of DVT?

A) obesity

B) limb trauma

C) smoking

D) oral contraceptives

A

smoking

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52
Q

Routes that bypass the GI tract including liquid, gas, or semisolid form are said to be which of the following?

A) internal

B) enteral

C) external

D) parenteral

A

parenteral

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53
Q

Which of the following is a core element to an effective EAP?

A) knowing multiple jobs

B) no communication with emergency personnel

C) ensuring access to AED

D) waiting until game to review the EAP

A

ensuring access to AED

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54
Q

A healthcare provider contracts an infectious agent after using a pen that a patient used to sign consent forms. What mode of transmission has occurred in this scenario?

A) droplet contact

B) airborne transmission

C) indirect physical transmission

D) direct contact

A

indirect physical transmission

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55
Q

Which of the following statements characterizes a bad health care team?

A) team members interact dynamically with one another

B) individuals know their roles

C) individuals work without sharing outcomes

D) individuals interact toward a common goal

A

individuals work without sharing outcomes

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56
Q

The health care team agreeing on and implementing reliable and timely feedback on successes and failures in both the functioning of the team and achievement of the teams goals is called

A) effective communication

B) clear roles

C) shared goals

D) measurable outcomes

A

measurable outcomes

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57
Q

Using masks and other PPEs according to standard precautions when performing splash generating procedures (e.g., wound irrigation, suctioning, intubation) is an example of what?

A) infection control precautions

B) education and training of health care personnel

C) judicious use of antimicrobial agents

D) environmental measures

A

infection control precautions

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58
Q

In an emergent situation, acute care and management of the injury or illness must be provided by the person with the most qualifications or highest credential on the scene. This is the definition of what?

A) retrieve equipment

B) activate EMS

C) provide immediate, on-site acute care

D) direct EMS

A

provide immediate, on-site acute care

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59
Q

A patient comes into the ED with injuries that are potentially life-threatening, but can wait. The patient should survive with medical attention. Which triage category should be assigned to this patient?

A) red

B) yellow

C) green

D) black

A

yellow

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60
Q

Baby aspirin is given to patients demonstrating symptoms of cardiac arrest. This medication is given by which method?

A) sublingual

B) oral

C) subcutaneous

D) intravenous

A

oral

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61
Q

A patient has his shoulder reduced by lying in the prone position while holding a weight in his injured arm. The arm is hanging downward. What type of reduction method is this?

A) hippocratic method

B) milch technique

C) Stimson’s technique

D) saps method

A

Stimson’s technique

62
Q

After an athlete is suspected to have a concussion, the HCP will ask questions to assess the athletes orientation, memory, and concentration. The HCP will be assessing the athletes

A) cognitive screening

B) delayed recall

C) signs and symptoms

D) neurological screening

A

cognitive screening

63
Q

A patient presents with a pulse oximeter reading of 91% - 94% oxygen saturation. According to the American Red Cross guidelines, the patient would need a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen because the patient has which condition?

A) severe hypoxia

B) moderate hypoxia

C) mild hypoxia

D) normal O2

A

mild hypoxia

64
Q

A patient presents to his HCP with pink frothy sputum. This patient most likely has which of the following?

A) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

B) acute myocardial infarction

C) myocarditis

D) marfan syndrome

A

acute myocardial infarction

65
Q

A patient comes to the clinic complaining of appendix pain. In which quadrant will her pain be located?

A) upper right

B) upper left

C) lower right

D) lower left

A

lower right

66
Q

A person with low blood sugar will experience which of the following?

A) bradycardia

B) hypoventilation

C) arrhythmia

D) tachycardia

A

tachycardia

67
Q

During the clinical presentation of rhabdomyolysis, the reddish-brown color of urine is caused by

A) urea

B) myoglucose

C) uric acid

D) myoglobinuria

A

myoglobinuria

68
Q

Signs of heatstroke include

A) rectal temperature at 102°F

B) clammy skin

C) profuse sweating

D) headache

A

clammy skin

69
Q

If hyponatremia is left untreated, it can lead to

A) renal failure

B) tachycardia

C) elevated blood pressure

D) extracellular shrinkage

A

renal failure

70
Q

Levels of creatine kinase greater than __________ U/L may indicate ER

A) 250

B) 500

C) 2,000

D) 5,000

A

5,000

71
Q

Which of these therapies should be avoided after insulin use?

A) normtecs

B) hot packs

C) e-stim

D) massage

A

hot packs

72
Q

What is the final aspect of abdominal evaluation prior to special test or diagnostic exams?

A) percussion

B) palpation

C) auscultation

D) observation

A

percussion

73
Q

The Valsalva maneuver is used to detect which of the following heart conditions?

A) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

B) acute myocardial infarction

C) myocarditis

D) marfan syndrome

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

74
Q

Which device allows a patient to inhale oxygen from a bag, which is connected to oxygen, and exhale the carbon dioxide into the atmosphere?

A) nasal cannula

B) simple oxygen mask

C) non-rebreather mask

D) bag-valve method

A

non-rebreather mask

75
Q

Which type of SMR device has the advantage of reducing the discomfort caused by cranial and sacral pressure?

A) vacuum mattress

B) scoop stretcher

C) kendrick extraction device

D) long spine board

A

vacuum mattress

76
Q

A physical examination of the legs, abdomen, and pelvis should be performed in patients with suspected DVT to look for which of the following?

A) low-grade fever

B) bilateral pitting edema

C) bilateral warmth

D) calf swelling <3 cm

A

low-grade fever

77
Q

Which of the following medicines has dizziness, weakness, tachycardia, hypotension, dry mouth, nausea and vomiting as possible side effects after use?

A) albuterol sulfate

B) nitroglycerin

C) medical oxygen

D) atrovent

A

nitroglycerin

78
Q

A patient has an excessive amount of carbon dioxide in his blood. What is he experiencing?

A) hypoperfusion

B) hypoxia

C) hypercapnia

D) hypotension

A

hypercapnia

79
Q

What is an example of an ineffective way to coordinate and integrate the EAP during an emergency?

A) contact information for local EMS

B) partial description of the location

C) instructions to notify parents

D) locations and type of emergency equipment

A

partial description of the location

80
Q

Using masks and other PPEs according to standard precautions when performing splash generating procedures (e.g., wound irrigation, suctioning, intubation) is an example of what?

A) infection control precautions

B) education and training of health care personnel

C) judicious use of antimicrobial agents

D) environmental measures

A

infection control precautions

81
Q

Which of the following is an example of core values of an athletic trainer?

A) professional duty

B) communication skills

C) interpersonal skills

D) commitment to learning

A

professional duty

82
Q

In accordance with states having a regulated practice act, ATs must have completed which of the following in that state?

A) graduation from college

B) internship

C) Licensure or registration

D) taking the BOC exam

A

Licensure or registration

83
Q

An example of unsafe injection practices is

A) using safety features when available

B) double gloving

C) passing sharps quietly

D) placing used sharps in puncture-resistant container

A

passing sharps quietly

84
Q

After information is given to a dispatcher, her role is to

A) determine the location for EMS arrival

B) anticipate response time

C) determine whether the situation is an emergency

D) determine the course of treatment

A

anticipate response time

85
Q

An athletic trainer approaches an unconscious athlete who is covered in blood at the head and neck area. What is the first step to treating the athlete?

A) apply inline stabilization

B) apply pressure to the wound

C) apply gloves

D) apply cervical collar

A

apply gloves

86
Q

Which type of finger dislocation is difficult to relocate because of the extensor tendon?

A) volar

B) dorsal

C) lateral

D) medial

A

volar

87
Q

A patient is experiencing a seizure that affects both the cerebral hemispheres and causes a loss of awareness. She has experienced what type of seizure?

A) generalized onset seizure

B) focal onset seizure

C) unknown onset seizure

D) localized onset seizure

A

generalized onset seizure

88
Q

Which of the following provides very good ventilation rates but does not have a protective bladder to prevent air from entering the stomach, or regurgitation?

A) laryngeal mask airway

B) I-gel airway

C) combitube

D) king airway

A

laryngeal mask airway

89
Q

A heart murmur will be heard the loudest over which section of the heart?

A) upper right

B) lower right

C) upper left

D) lower left

A

lower left

90
Q

Blunt-force trauma, such as a knee, elbow, or helmet to the abdominal region, frequently cause injury to which organ?

A) stomach

B) liver

C) spleen

D) intestine

A

liver

91
Q

Athletes with hyperglycemia but normal ketonuria are allowed to participate as long as serum glucose is assessed every

A) 5 minutes

B) 10 minutes

C) 15 minutes

D) 20 minutes

A

15 minutes

92
Q

In patients with rhabdomyolysis, acute renal failure may occur _____________ after initial muscle damage

A) 1-2 hours

B) 10-12 hours

C) 1-2 days

D) 10-12 days

A

1-2 days

93
Q

When normal sodium levels in the blood lower to a level of 125-129 mEqL, the patients decrease in sodium is said to be

A) mild

B) moderate

C) severe

D) acute

A

moderate

94
Q

The gold standard for treating someone with heatstroke is which of the following?

A) cold packs

B) cold towels

C) cold water immersion

D) cold fluids

A

cold water immersion

95
Q

Sickle cell trait is most prevalent among persons of African or ____________ descent

A) asian

B) South American

C) mediterranean

D) samoan

A

mediterranean

96
Q

Hypoglycemia and Hyperglycemia which of these is a symptom of hypoglycemia?

A) polyuria

B) anxiety

C) hypotension

D) hypoventilation

A

anxiety

97
Q

What is the initial complaint of a patient with a suspected abdominal injury?

A) dizziness

B) nausea

C) difficulty digesting food

D) wind being knocked out of him

A

wind being knocked out of him

98
Q

Death from Marfan syndrome can occur from a dissection of which major blood vessel?

A) aorta

B) pulmonary trunk

C) inferior vena cava

D) superior vena cava

A

aorta

99
Q

Which condition is a blockage in a vessel of the lungs commonly caused by a thrombus?

A) cardiac embolism

B) thoracic thrombosis

C) ischemic attack

D) pulmonary embolism

A

pulmonary embolism

100
Q

Which of the following is the most studied mechanism of injury of a person with a suspected spine injury?

A) traction

B) axial loading

C) lateral rotation

D) lateral flexion

A

axial loading

101
Q

Which stage of CTE includes cognitive impairment and executive function shortfalls in planning, organization, multitasking, and judgment?

A) Stage I

B) Stage II

C) Stage III

D) Stage IV

A

Stage III

102
Q

A(n) ___________ fracture may result from a direct blow, shoulder dislocation, or falling on an outstretched hand

A) epiphyseal

B) proximal

C) humeral shaft

D) ulnar

A

proximal

103
Q

Which of the following is a step to controlling bleeding?

A) apply high-flow oxygen as necessary

B) apply pressure with moist dressing

C) apply dressing covering above the wound only

D) apply new dressing after removing the old dressing

A

apply high-flow oxygen as necessary

104
Q

The HCP asked the patient, “Are you OK?” The patient’s response was a grunt, moan, or slight movement of a limb when prompted by the rescuer’s voice. This is an example of which category of the AVPU scale?

A) alert

B) voice

C) pain

D) unresponsive

A

voice

105
Q

According to the checklist for emergency preparedness, a HCP checks and confirms that communication equipment is charged and in working order. This falls under the category of

A) preseason planning

B) event/game day preparation

C) prevent preparation

D) pregame time-out

A

prevent preparation

106
Q

Which of the following is going to increase the risk of spreading pathogens in a medical facility?

A) sneezing into your sleeve if you don’t have a tissue

B) letting people with respiratory infections walk around escorted by family

C) avoiding touching your face after touching contaminated objects

D) posting signs at entrances with instructions to patients who have symptoms of respiratory infection

A

letting people with respiratory infections walk around escorted by family

107
Q

According to the medical model, ATs may

A) be prohibited from additional professional development opportunities

B) be allowed to cover high-risk practices and events

C) work around 60 hours a week

D) be allowed to handle all patient care duties individually

A

be allowed to cover high-risk practices and events

108
Q

Making an incorrect diagnosis while caring for a patient is an example of

A) slip

B) lapse

C) rule-based mistake

D) a knowledge-based mistake

A

rule-based mistake

109
Q

Which of the following is an example of a poor exposure control plan?

A) optional hepatitis B vaccination and declination

B) record-keeping of exposure

C) employee exposure determination

D) employee training schedule

A

optional hepatitis B vaccination and declination

110
Q

Which of the following is part of the critical interval time when practicing the EAP?

A) time from calling the parents to their arrival

B) time from collapse to initiating CPR

C) time from emergency to notifying the administration

D) time from the start of calling 911 to end of the call

A

time from collapse to initiating CPR

111
Q

What considerations should be acknowledged prior to removing equipment from a patient with a suspected spine injury?

A) position of the patient

B) type of sport the athlete plays

C) training of individuals at the scene

D) location of the patient

A

training of individuals at the scene

112
Q

A person who has Marfan syndrome will not display

A) joint hypermobility

B) ocular lens subluxation

C) flat feet

D) short stature

A

short stature

113
Q

According to the AAST grading scale, a liver injury with a sub scapular hematoma of 10% to 50% in surface area is considered to be which grade?

A) I

B) II

C) III

D) IV

A

III

114
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of exertional collapse associated with sickle cell?

A) often with prodrome of muscle twinges

B) slumped to the ground with weak muscles

C) physically writing and yelling in pain

D) prolonged recovery with rest, rehydration

A

slumped to the ground with weak muscles

115
Q

A(n) __________ thermometer is used as the gold standard for measuring an accurate internal temperature

A) oral

B) temporal

C) axillary

D) rectal

A

rectal

116
Q

Cold, wet towels should be placed on what region of the body?

A) head

B) feet

C) groin

D) back

A

groin

117
Q

In the United States, SCT occurs in __________ African Americans

A) 1 in 12

B) 1 in 25

C) 1 in 60

D) 1 in 260

A

1 in 12

118
Q

A patient with a suspected kidney injury will suffer from which of these symptoms?

A) tachycardia

B) nausea

C) hypertension

D) hematuria

A

hematuria
(blood in urine)

119
Q

When performing an ECG, what color lead is usually attached to the left arm?

A) white

B) green

C) black

D) red

A

black

120
Q

What is the name of the condition that has blood in the pleural cavity?

A) pneumothorax

B) hemothorax

C) hemopneumpthorax

D) sanguothorax

A

hemothorax

121
Q

Which tooth injury has marked displacement and misalignment?

A) subluxation

B) extrusive laceration

C) intrusive luxation

D) avulsion

A

extrusive laceration

122
Q

Hypersensitivity reactions can be categorized as ___________ when it involves diaphoresis, chest tightness, or throat tightness

A) mild

B) moderate

C) severe

D) life threatening

A

moderate

123
Q

A patient exhibits reduced peripheral circulation or low oxygen saturation. The patient’s skin color will be which of the following?

A) ashen

B) cyanotic

C) yellow

D) red

A

ashen

124
Q

During a medical emergency, which of the following is the responsibility of health care providers?

A) contact primary care doctor

B) contact custodians

C) contact administrators

D) contact family members

A

contact family members

125
Q

Protecting the privacy of student education records and giving parents certain rights to their children’s education records until 18 years old is the definition of

A) Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health

B) Protected Health Information

C) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

D) Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act

A

Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act

126
Q

____ include(s) inadequate preparation, staffing, and attention to detail, which lead to increased risk of error

A) time shortage

B) poor procedures

C) novice clinicians

D) inadequate checking

A

poor procedures

127
Q

Taking responsibility for ones own learning and participating equally and collegially in groups demonstrates self-reflection and accurate self-assessment. This is an example of which of the following?

A) maturity

B) competency

C) dependability

D) responsibility

A

competency

128
Q

You forgot to secure your work computer and a non-health care provider reads an athletes health information. What should you do next?

A) tell the athlete

B) do nothing

C) tell the coach

D) notify your supervisor

A

notify your supervisor

129
Q

A HCP says, “We noted point tenderness near C6-C7, distal muscle weakness, and diminished deep tendon reflexes of the Achilles and wrist extensors.” This is an example of what type of oral report?

A) opening information

B) pertinent findings

C) response to treatment

D) vital signs

A

pertinent findings

130
Q

In a stable patient, the pulse should be taken

A) every 5 minutes

B) every 10 minutes

C) every 15 minutes

D) every 20 minutes

A

15 minutes

131
Q

What type of IV is needed to treat heat illnesses and hypovolemia?

A) dextrose

B) Lactated Ringer’s (LR) solution

C) saline

D) amino acid

A

saline

132
Q

A patient tells the HCP that she was bitten by a black widow spider. She begins to have muscle spasms and edema. What type of symptoms are these?

A) local

B) mild

C) moderate

D) serious

A

moderate

133
Q

Which health care team member has the greatest number of educational requirements to work in the emergency field

A

Paramedic

134
Q

What can help patients feel more confident that they will be treated courteously and that the health care provider has genuine concern for patients’ well-being

A

Interpersional

135
Q

The BOC Code of Professional Responsibilites (Code 1.2) requires ATs to protect the patient from ____

A

Undue harm

136
Q

Waiting until the coach has calmed down or discussing the status of a player with an assistant coach who will communicate the patients status with the head coach at the appropriate time or place is an example of ____

A

Emotional Intelligence

137
Q

Injury ____ is using large data sets or databases to characterized the occurance of sports injuries by identifying risk factors in order to develope injury prevention strategies and programs

A

Epidemiology

138
Q

When using a tourniquet, what should you do after you secure the windless rod?

A

Write time of placement

139
Q

Best practices for verbal communication within the health care team include

A

Clarifying your role

140
Q

Which of the following provides a clear, user-friendly explanation of peoples’ rights with respect to their personal health information and the practices of health care providers?

A

Notice of privacy

141
Q

MRSA is considered to be which of the following?

A

Multi drug-resistant organism

142
Q

Cold illness mostly affects which of the following organ systems?

A) Respiratory System

B) Nervous System

C) Digestive System

D) Urinary System

A

Nervous System

143
Q

Signs of high altitude edema include

A) bradycardia

B) tachycardia

C) peripheral cyanosis

D) dyspnea

A
144
Q

In athletes with ECAST, which type of oxygen should be administered?

A

High-flow

145
Q

Which condition is triggered by a blunt, non penetrating blow to the precordial area without structural injury to the ribs, sternum, or heart?

A

Commotio Cordis

146
Q

Sickle-shaped red blood cells can cause

A

vaso-occlusion

147
Q

Which condition is the most life-threatening electrolyte imbalance that results from exertional rhabdomyolysis?

A

Hyperkalemia

148
Q

Which of the following conditions is defined as the rupture of red blood cells and the release of their contents into nearby fluid?

A

Hemolysis

149
Q

In a patient with compartment syndrome, what is the range that indicates the need for a fasciotomy?

A

30-50 mm Hg

150
Q

Which of these symptoms is not typically associated with a SC joint injury?

A) hemoptysis

B) dyspnea

C) dysphagia

D) hoarseness

A

hoarseness

151
Q

A patient with an oxygen saturation of 88% to 92% would need which device to aid in his breathing?

A

simple oxygen mask

152
Q

Which of the following is an indication for using aspirin?

A) angina pectoris

B) hemodynamically stable

C) myocardial rupture

D) extreme bradycardia

A

hemodynamically stable

Acute & Emergency Care (3 decks)

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