Unit B-Introduction to Medical Surgical and Maternal Newborn Nursing Flashcards

1
Q

A married couple lives in a single-family house with their newborn son and the husband’s
daughter from a previous marriage. On the basis of the information given, what family form
best describes this family?
a. Married-blended family
b. Extended family
c. Nuclear family
d. Same-sex family

A

ANS: A
Married-blended families are formed as the result of divorce and remarriage. Unrelated family
members join together to create a new household. Members of an extended family are kin, or
family members related by blood, such as grandparents, aunts, and uncles. A nuclear family is
a traditional family with male and female partners and the children resulting from that union.
A same-sex family is a family with homosexual partners who cohabit with or without
children.

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2
Q

In what form do families tend to be most socially vulnerable?

a. Married-blended family
b. Extended family
c. Nuclear family
d. Single-parent family

A

ANS: D
The single-parent family tends to be vulnerable economically and socially, creating an
unstable and deprived environment for the growth potential of children. The married-blended
family, the extended family, and the nuclear family are not the most socially vulnerable.

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3
Q
The nurse should be aware that the criteria used to make decisions and solve problems within
families are based primarily on family:
a. rituals and customs.
b. values and beliefs.
c. boundaries and channels.
d. socialization processes.
A

ANS:B
Values and beliefs are the most prevalent factors in the decision-making and problem-solving
techniques of families. Although culture may play a part in the decision-making process of a
family, ultimately values and beliefs dictate the course of action taken by family members.
Boundaries and channels affect the relationship between the family members and the health
care team, not the decisions within the family. Socialization processes may help families with
interactions with the community, but they are not the criteria used for decision making within
the family

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4
Q

Using the family stress theory as an intervention approach for working with families
experiencing parenting, the nurse can help the family change internal context factors. These
include:
a. Biologic and genetic makeup.
b. Maturation of family members.
c. The family’s perception of the event.
d. The prevailing cultural beliefs of society.

A

ANS: C
The family stress theory is concerned with the family’s reaction to stressful events; internal
context factors include elements that a family can control such as psychologic defenses. It is
not concerned with biologic and genetic makeup, maturation of family members, or the
prevailing cultural beliefs of society.

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5
Q

While working in the prenatal clinic, you care for a very diverse group of patients. When
planning interventions for these families, you realize that acceptance of the interventions will
be most influenced by:
a. educational achievement.
b. income level.
c. subcultural group.
d. individual beliefs.

A

ANS: D
The patient’s beliefs are ultimately the key to acceptance of health care interventions.
However, these beliefs may be influenced by factors such as educational level, income level,
and ethnic background. Educational achievement, income level, and subcultural group all are
important factors. However, the nurse must understand that a woman’s concerns from her own
point of view will have the most influence on her compliance.

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6
Q

The nurse’s care of a Hispanic family includes teaching about infant care. When developing a
plan of care, the nurse bases interventions on the knowledge that in traditional Hispanic
families:
a. breastfeeding is encouraged immediately after birth.
b. male infants typically are circumcised.
c. the maternal grandmother participates in the care of the mother and her infant.
d. special herbs mixed in water are used to stimulate the passage of meconium.

A

ANS: C
In Hispanic families, the expectant mother is influenced strongly by her mother or
mother-in-law. Breastfeeding often is delayed until the third postpartum day. Hispanic male
infants usually are not circumcised. Olive or castor oil may be given to stimulate the passage
of meconium.

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7
Q

The woman’s family members are present when the home care maternal-child nurse arrives
for a after birth and newborn visit. What should the nurse do?
a. Observe the family members’ interactions with the newborn and one another.
b. Ask the woman to meet with her and the baby alone.
c. Do a brief assessment on all family members present.
d. Reschedule the visit for another time so that the mother and infant can be assessed
privately.

A

ANS: A
The nurse should introduce herself to the patient and the other family members present.
Family members in the home may be providing care and assistance to the mother and infant.
However, this care may not be based on sound health practices. Nurses should take the
opportunity to dispel myths while family members are present. The responsibility of the home
care maternal-child nurse is to provide care to the new after birth mother and her infant, not to
all family members. The nurse can politely ask about the other people in the home and their
relationships with the woman. Unless an indication is given that the woman would prefer
privacy, the visit may continue.

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8
Q

The nurse should be aware that during the childbearing experience an African-American
woman is most likely to:
a. seek prenatal care early in her pregnancy.
b. avoid self-treatment of pregnancy-related discomfort.
c. request liver in the after birth period to prevent anemia.
d. arrive at the hospital in advanced labor.

A

ANS: D
African-American women often arrive at the hospital in far-advanced labor. These women
may view pregnancy as a state of wellness, which is often the reason for delay in seeking
prenatal care. African-American women practice many self-treatment options for various
discomforts of pregnancy, and they may request liver in the after birth period, but this is based
on a belief that the liver has a high blood content.

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9
Q

To provide competent care to an Asian-American family, the nurse should include which of
the following questions during the assessment interview?
a. “Do you prefer hot or cold beverages?”
b. “Do you want milk to drink?”
c. “Do you want music playing while you are in labor?”
d. “Do you have a name selected for the baby?”

A

ANS: A
Asian-Americans often prefer warm beverages. Milk usually is excluded from the diet of this
population. Asian-American women typically labor in a quiet atmosphere. Delaying naming
the child is common for Asian-American families.

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10
Q

The patient’s family is important to the maternity nurse because:

a. they pay the bills.
b. the nurse will know which family member to avoid.
c. the nurse will know which mothers will really care for their children.
d. the family culture and structure will influence nursing care decisions.

A

ANS: D

Family structure and culture influence the health decisions of mothers.

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11
Q
A mother’s household consists of her husband, his mother, and another child. She is living in
a(n):
a. extended family.
b. single-parent family.
c. married-blended family.
d. nuclear family
A

ANS: A
An extended family includes blood relatives living with the nuclear family. Both parents and a
grandparent are living in this extended family. Single-parent families comprise an unmarried
biologic or adoptive parent who may or may not be living with other adults. Married-blended
refers to families reconstructed after divorce. A nuclear family is where male and female
partners and their children live as an independent unit.

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12
Q
A traditional family structure in which male and female partners and their children live as an
independent unit is known as a(n):
a. extended family.
b. binuclear family.
c. nuclear family.
d. blended family
A

ANS:C
About two thirds of U.S. households meet the definition of a nuclear family. Extended
families include additional blood relatives other than the parents. A binuclear family involves
two households. A blended family is reconstructed after divorce and involves the merger of
two families.

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13
Q

Which statement about family systems theory is inaccurate?

a. A family system is part of a larger suprasystem.
b. A family as a whole is equal to the sum of the individual members.
c. A change in one family member affects all family members.
d. The family is able to create a balance between change and stability.

A

ANS: B
A family as a whole is greater than the sum of its parts. The other statements are
characteristics of a system that states that a family is greater than the sum of its parts.

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14
Q
A pictorial tool that can assist the nurse in assessing aspects of family life related to health
care is the:
a. genogram.
b. family values construct.
c. life cycle model.
d. human development wheel.
A

ANS: A

A genogram depicts the relationships of family members over generations.

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15
Q
The process by which people retain some of their own culture while adopting the practices of
the dominant society is known as:
a. acculturation.
b. assimilation.
c. ethnocentrism.
d. cultural relativism.
A

ANS: A
Acculturation is the process by which people retain some of their own culture while adopting
the practices of the dominant society. This process takes place over the course of generations.
Assimilation is a loss of cultural identity. Ethnocentrism is the belief in the superiority of
one’s own culture over the cultures of others. Cultural relativism recognizes the roles of
different cultures.

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16
Q

When attempting to communicate with a patient who speaks a different language, the nurse
should:
a. respond promptly and positively to project authority.
b. never use a family member as an interpreter.
c. talk to the interpreter to avoid confusing the patient.
d. provide as much privacy as possible.

A

ANS: D
Providing privacy creates an atmosphere of respect and puts the patient at ease. The nurse
should not rush to judgment and should make sure that he or she understands the patient’s
message clearly. In crisis situations, the nurse may need to use a family member or neighbor
as a translator. The nurse should talk directly to the patient to create an atmosphere of respect.

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17
Q
In which culture is the father more likely to be expected to participate in the labor and
delivery?
a. Asian-American
b. African-American
c. European-American
d. Hispanic
A

ANS: C
European-Americans expect the father to take a more active role in the labor and delivery than
the other cultures.

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18
Q

Which statement about cultural competence is not accurate?
a. Local health care workers and community advocates can help extend health care to
underserved populations.
b. Nursing care is delivered in the context of the patient’s culture but not in the
context of the nurse’s culture.
c. Nurses must develop an awareness of and sensitivity to various cultures.
d. A culture’s economic, religious, and political structures influence practices that
affect childbearing.

A

ANS: B
The cultural context of the nurse also affects nursing care. The work of local health care
workers and community advocates is part of cultural competence; the nurse’s cultural context
is also important. Developing sensitivity to various cultures is part of cultural competence, but
the nurse’s cultural context is also important. The impact of economic, religious, and political
structures is part of cultural competence; the nurse’s cultural context is also important.

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19
Q

What type of family is one in which all members are related by blood?

a. Consanguineous
b. Affinal
c. Family of origin
d. Household

A

ANS: A
A consanguineous family is one of the most common types and consists of members who
have a blood relationship. The affinal family is one made up of marital relationships.
Although the parents are married, they may each bring children from a previous relationship.
The family of origin is the family unit that a person is born into. Considerable controversy has
been generated about the newer concepts of families (i.e., communal, single-parent, or
homosexual families). To accommodate these other varieties of family styles, the descriptive
term household is frequently used.

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20
Q

A 3-year-old girl was adopted immediately after birth. The parents have just asked the nurse
how they should tell the child that she is adopted. Which guideline concerning adoption
should the nurse use in planning her response?
a. Telling the child is an important aspect of their parental responsibilities.
b. The best time to tell the child is between ages 7 and 10 years.
c. It is not necessary to tell the child who was adopted so young.
d. It is best to wait until the child asks about it.

A

ANS: A
It is important for the parents not to withhold information about the adoption from the child. It
is an essential component of the child’s identity. There is no recommended best time to tell
children. It is believed that children should be told young enough so they do not remember a
time when they did not know. It should be done before the children enter school to keep third
parties from telling the children before the parents have had the opportunity.

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21
Q

The mother of a school-age child tells the school nurse that she and her spouse are going
through a divorce. The child has not been doing well in school and sometimes has trouble
sleeping. The nurse should recognize this as:
a. indicative of maladjustment.
b. common reaction to divorce.
c. suggestive of lack of adequate parenting.
d. unusual response that indicates need for referral

A

ANS: B
Parental divorce affects school-age children in many ways. In addition to difficulties in
school, they often have profound sadness, depression, fear, insecurity, frequent crying, loss of
appetite, and sleep disorders. Uncommon responses to parental divorce include indications of
maladjustment, the suggestion of lack of adequate parenting, and the need for referral.

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22
Q

A mother brings 6-month-old Eric to the clinic for a well-baby checkup. She comments, “I
want to go back to work, but I don’t want Eric to suffer because I’ll have less time with him.”
The nurse’s most appropriate answer is:
a. “I’m sure he’ll be fine if you get a good baby-sitter.”
b. “You will need to stay home until Eric starts school.”
c. “You should go back to work so Eric will get used to being with others.”
d. “Let’s talk about the child care options that will be best for Eric.”

A

ANS: D
“Let’s talk about the child care options that will be best for Eric” is an open-ended statement
that will assist the mother in exploring her concerns about what is best for both her and Eric.
“I’m sure he’ll be fine if you get a good baby-sitter,” “You will need to stay home until Eric
starts school,” and “You should go back to work so Eric will get used to being with others”
are directive statements and do not address the effect of her working on Eric.

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23
Q

Which term best describes a group of people who share a set of values, beliefs, practices,
social relationships, law, politics, economics, and norms of behavior?
a. Race
b. Culture
c. Ethnicity
d. Social group

A

ANS: B
Culture is a pattern of assumptions, beliefs, and practices that unconsciously frames or guides
the outlook and decisions of a group of people. A culture is composed of individuals who
share a set of values, beliefs, and practices that serve as a frame of reference for individual
perceptions and judgments. Race is defined as a division of humankind who possesses traits
transmissible by descent and sufficient to characterize it as a distinct human type. Ethnicity is
an affiliation of a set of persons who share a unique cultural, social, and linguistic heritage. A
social group consists of systems of roles carried out in groups. Examples of primary social
groups include the family and peer groups.

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24
Q
Which term best describes the emotional attitude that one’s own ethnic group is superior to
others?
a. Culture
b. Ethnicity
c. Superiority
d. Ethnocentrism
A

ANS: D
Ethnocentrism is the belief that one’s way of living and behaving is the best way. This
includes the emotional attitude that the values, beliefs, and perceptions of one’s ethnic group
are superior to those of others. Culture is a pattern of assumptions, beliefs, and practices that
unconsciously frames or guides the outlook and decisions of a group of people. A culture is
composed of individuals who share a set of values, beliefs, and practices that serve as a frame
of reference for individual perception and judgments. Ethnicity is an affiliation of a set of
persons who share a unique cultural, social, and linguistic heritage. Superiority is the state or
quality of being superior; it does not include ethnicity.

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25
Q

A Chinese toddler has pneumonia. The nurse notices that the parent consistently feeds the
child only the broth that comes on the clear liquid tray. Food items such as Jell-O, Popsicles,
and juices are left. What would best explain this?
a. The parent is trying to feed child only what child likes most.
b. The parent is trying to restore normal balance through appropriate “hot” remedies.
c. Hispanics believe that the “evil eye” enters when a person gets cold.
d. Hispanics believe that an innate energy called chi is strengthened by eating soup.

A

ANS: B
In several groups, including Filipino, Chinese, Arabic, and Hispanic cultures, hot and cold
describe certain properties completely unrelated to temperature. Respiratory conditions such
as pneumonia are “cold” conditions and are treated with “hot” foods. This may be true, but it
is unlikely that a toddler would consistently prefer the broth to Jell-O, Popsicles, and juice.
The evil eye applies to a state of imbalance of health, not curative actions. Chinese individuals
believe in chi as an innate energy.

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26
Q

The nurse discovers welts on the back of a Vietnamese child during a home health visit. The
child’s mother says that she has rubbed the edge of a coin on her child’s oiled skin. The nurse
should recognize that this is:
a. child abuse.
b. a cultural practice to rid the body of disease.
c. a cultural practice to treat enuresis or temper tantrums.
d. a child discipline measure common in the Vietnamese culture

A

ANS: B
A cultural practice to rid the body of disease is descriptive of coining. The welts are created
by repeatedly rubbing a coin on the child’s oiled skin. The mother is attempting to rid the
child’s body of disease. The mother was engaged in an attempt to heal the child. This
behavior is not child abuse, a cultural practice to treat enuresis or temper tantrums, or a
disciplinary measure.

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27
Q

The father of a hospitalized child tells the nurse, “He can’t have meat. We are Buddhist and

vegetarians. ” The nurse’s best intervention is to:
a. order the child a meatless tray.
b. ask a Buddhist priest to visit.
c. explain that hospital patients are exempt from dietary rules.
d. help the parent understand that meat provides protein needed for healing

A

ANS: A
It is essential for the nurse to respect the religious practices of the child and family. The nurse
should arrange a dietary consultation to ensure that nutritionally complete vegetarian meals
are prepared by the hospital kitchen. The nurse should be able to arrange for a vegetarian tray.
The nurse should not encourage the child and parent to go against their religious beliefs.
Nutritionally complete, acceptable vegetarian meals should be provided.

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28
Q

In which cultural group is good health considered to be a balance between yin and yang?

a. Asians
b. Australian aborigines
c. Native Americans
d. African-Americans

A

ANS: A
In Chinese health beliefs, the forces termed yin and yang must be kept in balance to maintain
health. This belief is not consistent with Australian aborigines, Native Americans, or
African-Americans.

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29
Q

The nurse case manager is planning a care conference about a young child who has complex
health care needs and will soon be discharged home. Whom should the nurse invite to the
conference?
a. Family and nursing staff
b. Social worker, nursing staff, and primary care physician
c. Family and key health professionals involved in child’s care
d. Primary care physician and key health professionals involved in child’s care

A

ANS: C
A multidisciplinary conference is necessary for coordination of care for children with complex
health needs. The family and key health professionals who are involved in the child’s care are
included. The nursing staff can address the nursing care needs of the child with the family, but
other involved disciplines must be included. The family must be included in the discharge
conferences, which allow them to determine what education they will require and the
resources needed at home. A member of the nursing staff must be included to review the
nursing needs of the child.

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30
Q

Lindsey, age 5 years with a diagnosis of cerebral palsy, will be starting kindergarten next
month and will be placed in a special education classroom. The parents are tearful when
telling the nurse about this and state that they did not realize that their child’s disability was so
severe. How should the nurse interpret this parental response?
a. This is a sign that parents are in denial.
b. This is a normal anticipated time of parental stress.
c. The parents need to learn more about cerebral palsy.
d. The parents are used to having expectations that are too high.

A

ANS: B
Parenting a child with a chronic illness can be very stressful for parents. There are anticipated
times that parental stress increases. One of these identified times is when the child begins
school. Nurses can help parents recognize and plan interventions to work through these
stressful periods. The parents are not in denial; they are responding to the child’s placement in
school. The parents are not exhibiting signs of a knowledge deficit or expectations that are too
high; this is their first interaction with the school system with this child.

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31
Q

Which behavior is considered an approach behavior in parents of chronically ill children?

a. Inability to adjust to a progression of the disease or condition.
b. Anticipation of future problems and seeking guidance and answers.
c. Looking for new cures without a perspective toward possible benefit.
d. Failing to recognize seriousness of child’s condition despite physical evidence.

A

ANS: B
Approach behaviors are coping mechanisms that result in a family’s movement toward
adjustment and resolution of the crisis of having a child with a chronic illness or disability.
The parents who anticipate future problems and seek guidance and answers are demonstrating
approach behaviors. They are demonstrating positive actions in caring for their child.
Avoidance behaviors include being unable to adjust to a progression of the disease or
condition, looking for new cures without a perspective toward possible benefit, and failing to
recognize the seriousness of the child’s condition despite physical evidence. These behaviors
would suggest that the parents are moving away from adjustment or adaptation in the crisis of
a child with chronic illness or disability.

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32
Q

Families progress through various stages of reactions when a child is diagnosed with a chronic
illness or disability. After the shock phase, a period of adjustment usually follows that may be
characterized by what reaction?
a. Anger
b. Overprotectiveness
c. Social reintegration
d. Guilt

A

ANS: B
For most families, the adjustment phase is accompanied by several responses that are
normally part of the adjustment process. Overprotectiveness, rejection, denial, or gradual
acceptance are common reactions. The initial diagnosis of a chronic illness or disability often
is often met with intense emotion and characterized by guilt and anger. Social reintegration is
the culmination of the adjustment process.

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33
Q

The nurse comes into the room of a child who was just diagnosed with a chronic disability.
The child’s parents begin to yell at the nurse about a variety of concerns. What is the nurse’s
best response?
a. “What is really wrong?”
b. “Being angry is only natural.”
c. “Yelling at me will not change things.”
d. “I will come back when you settle down.”

A

ANS: B
Parental anger after the diagnosis of a child with a chronic disability is a common response.
One of the most common targets for parental anger is members of the staff. The nurse should
recognize the common response of anger to the diagnosis and allow the family to express their
feelings and emotions. “What is really wrong?” “Yelling at me will not change things,” and “I
will come back when you settle down” are all possible responses, but they are not addressing
the parent’s need to express their anger effectively.

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34
Q

A common parental reaction to a child with special needs is parental overprotection. Parental
behavior suggestive of this includes which behavior?
a. Attempting to avoid frustrating situations.
b. Providing consistent, strict discipline.
c. Forcing child to help self, even when not capable.
d. Encouraging social and educational activities not appropriate to child’s level of
capability.

A

ANS: A
Parental overprotection is manifested by the parents’ fear of letting the child achieve any new
skill, avoiding all discipline, and catering to the child’s every desire to prevent frustration. The
overprotective parents usually do not set limits and or institute discipline, and they usually
prefer to remain in the role of total caregiver. They do not allow the child to perform self-care
or encourage the child to try new activities.

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35
Q

Most parents of children with special needs tend to experience chronic sorrow. How may
chronic sorrow be characterized?
a. Lack of acceptance of the child’s limitation.
b. Lack of available support to prevent sorrow.
c. Periods of intensified sorrow when experiencing anger and guilt.
d. Periods of intensified sorrow and loss that occur in waves over time.

A

ANS: D
Chronic sorrow is manifested by feelings of sorrow and loss that recur in waves over time.
The sorrow is in response to the recognition of the child’s limitations. The family should be
assessed in an ongoing manner to provide appropriate support as the needs of the family
change. The sorrow is not preventable. The chronic sorrow occurs during the reintegration and
acknowledgment stage.

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36
Q

Which intervention will encourage a sense of autonomy in a toddler with disabilities?

a. Avoiding separation from family during hospitalization
b. Encouraging age appropriate independence in as many areas as possible
c. Exposing child to pleasurable experiences as much as possible
d. Helping parents learn special care needs of their child

A

ANS: B
Encouraging the toddler to be independent encourages a sense of autonomy. The child can be
given choices about feeding, dressing, and diversional activities, which will provide a sense of
control. Avoiding separation from family during hospitalization and helping parents learn
special care needs of their child should be practiced as part of family-centered care. They do
not particularly foster autonomy. Exposing the child to pleasurable experiences, especially
sensory ones, is a supportive intervention. It does not particularly support autonomy.

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37
Q
The feeling of guilt that the child “caused” the disability or illness is especially critical in
which child?
a. Toddler
b. Preschooler
c. School-age child
d. Adolescent
A

ANS: B
Preschoolers are most likely to be affected by feelings of guilt that they caused the
illness/disability or are being punished for wrongdoings. Toddlers are focused on establishing
their autonomy. The illness will foster dependency. The school-age child will have limited
opportunities for achievement and may not be able to understand limitations. Adolescents are
faced with the task of incorporating their disabilities into their changing self-concept.

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38
Q

The father, of a 9 year old diagnosed with several physical disabilities, explains to the nurse
that his child concentrates on what he/she can do rather than cannot do and is as independent
as possible. How should the nurse’s best interpret this statement?
a. The father is experiencing denial.
b. The father is expressing his own views.
c. The child is using an adaptive coping style.
d. The child is using a maladaptive coping style.

A

ANS: C
The father is describing a well-adapted child who has learned to accept physical limitations.
These children function well at home, at school, and with peers. They have an understanding
of their disorder that allows them to accept their limitations, assume responsibility for care,
and assist in treatment and rehabilitation. The father is not denying the child’s limitations or
expressing his own views. This is descriptive of an adaptive coping style.

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39
Q

The nurse, talking with the tearful parent of a child newly diagnosed with a chronic illness,
asks, “Who do you talk with when something is worrying you?” What is the purpose of this
statement?
a. Inappropriate, because parent is so upset.
b. A diversion of the present crisis to similar situations with which parent has dealt.
c. An intervention to find someone to help parent.
d. Part of assessing parent’s available support system.

A

ANS:D
This question will provide information about the marital relationship (does the parent speak to
the spouse?), alternate support systems, and ability to communicate. These are very important
data for the nurse to obtain and an appropriate part of an accurate assessment. By assessing
these areas, the nurse can facilitate the identification and use of community resources as
needed. The nurse is obtaining information to help support the parent through the diagnosis.
The parent is not in need of additional parenting help at this time.

40
Q

The nurse, providing support to parents of a child newly diagnosed with a chronic disability,
notices that they keep asking the same questions. How should the nurse respond to best meet
their needs?
a. Patiently continue to answer questions.
b. Kindly refer them to someone else to answer their questions.
c. Recognize that some parents cannot understand explanations.
d. Suggest that they ask their questions when they are not upset.

A

ANS: A
Diagnosis is one of the anticipated stress points for parents. The parents may not hear or
remember all that is said to them. The nurse should continue to provide the kind of
information that they desire. This is a particularly stressful time for the parents; the nurse can
play a key role in providing necessary information. Parents should be provided with oral and
written information. The nurse needs to work with the family to ensure understanding of the
information. The parents require information at the time of diagnosis. Other questions will
arise as they adjust to the information.

41
Q

The parents of a child born with disabilities ask the nurse for advice about discipline. The
nurse’s response should be based on what knowledge concerning discipline?
a. Appropriate disciple is essential for the child.
b. It may be too difficult to implement appropriate discipline for a special-needs
child.
c. Discipline is not needed unless the child becomes problematic.
d. Discipline is best achieved with punishment for misbehavior.

A

ANS: A
Discipline is essential for the children with disabilities. It provides boundaries within which to
test their behavior and teaches them socially acceptable behaviors. It is not too difficult to
implement discipline with a special-needs child. The nurse should teach the parents ways to
manage the child’s behavior before it becomes problematic. Punishment is not effective in
managing behavior.

42
Q

An 8 year old will soon be able to return to school after an injury that resulted in several
severe, chronic disabilities. What is the most appropriate action by the school nurse to help
assure a smooth transition back to school?
a. Recommending that the child’s parents attend school at first to prevent teasing
b. Preparing the child’s classmates and teachers for changes they can expect
c. Referring the child to a school where the children have chronic disabilities similar
to hers
d. Discussing with both the child and the parents the fact that classmates will not
likely be as accepting as before

A

ANS: B
Attendance at school is an important part of normalization for the child. The school nurse
should prepare teachers and classmates about her condition, abilities, and special needs. A
visit by the parents can be helpful, but unless the classmates are prepared for the changes, it
alone will not prevent teasing. The child’s school experience should be normalized as much as
possible. Children need the opportunity to interact with healthy peers and engage in activities
with groups or clubs composed of similarly affected persons. Children with special needs are
encouraged to maintain and reestablish relationships with peers and participate according to
their capabilities.

43
Q

A 16 year old diagnosed with a chronic illness has recently become rebellious and is taking
risks such as missing doses of his medication. What information should the nurse provide the
parents to help explain their child’s behavior?
a. The child at this age requires more discipline.
b. At this age, children need more socialization with peers.
c. This behavior is seen as a normal part of adolescence.
d. This is how the child is asking for more parental involvement in managing stress.

A

ANS: C
Risk taking, rebelliousness, and lack of cooperation are normal parts of adolescence. If the
parents increase the amount of discipline, he will most likely be more rebellious. Socialization
with peers should be encouraged as a part of adolescence. It is a normal part of adolescence
during which the young adult is establishing independence.

44
Q
At what age do most children have an adult concept of death as being inevitable, universal,
and irreversible?
a. 4 to 5 years
b. 6 to 8 years
c. 9 to 11 years
d. 12 to 16 years
A

ANS: C
By age 9 to 11 years, children have an adult concept of death. They realize that it is inevitable,
universal, and irreversible. Preschoolers and young school-age children are too young to have
an adult concept of death. Adolescents have a mature understanding of death

45
Q

Which is the most descriptive of a school-age child’s reaction to death?
a. Is very interested in funerals and burials
b. Has little understanding of words such as forever
c. Imagines the deceased person to be still alive
d. Has an idealistic view of the world and criticizes funerals as barbaric
ANS:

A

ANS: A
The school-age child is very interested in postdeath services and may be inquisitive about
what happens to the body. School-age children have an established concept of forever and
have a deeper understanding of death in a concrete manner. Toddler may imagine the
deceased person to be still alive. Adolescents may respond to death with an idealistic view of
the world and criticize funerals as barbaric.

46
Q
At what developmental period do children have the most difficulty coping with death,
particularly if it is their own?
a. Toddlerhood
b. Preschool
c. School-age
d. Adolescence
A

ANS: D
Because of their mature understanding of death, remnants of guilt and shame, and issues with
deviations from normal, adolescents have the most difficulty coping with death. Toddlers and
preschoolers are too young to have difficulty coping with their own death. They will fear
separation from parents. School-age children will fear the unknown, such as the consequences
of the illness and the threat to their sense of security.

47
Q

A school-age child is diagnosed with a life-threatening illness. The parents want to protect
their child from knowing the seriousness of the illness. What information should the nurse
provide to these parents?
a. This will help the child cope effectively by denial.
b. This attitude is helpful to give parents time to cope.
c. Terminally ill children know when they are seriously ill.
d. Terminally ill children usually choose not to discuss the seriousness of their
illness.

A

ANS: C
The child needs honest and accurate information about the illness, treatments, and prognosis.
Children, even at a young age, realize that something is seriously wrong and that it involves
them. The nurse should help parents understand the importance of honesty. The child will
know that something is wrong because of the increased attention of health professionals. This
would interfere with denial as a form of coping. Parents may need professional support and
guidance from a nurse or social worker in this process. Children will usually tell others how
much information they want about their condition.

48
Q

The parents of a child who has just died ask to be left alone so that they can rock their child
one more time. In response to their request, what intervention should the nurse implement?
a. Grant their request.
b. Assess why they feel that this is necessary.
c. Discourage this because it will only prolong their grief.
d. Kindly explain that they need to say good-bye to their child now and leave.

A

ANS: A
The parents should be allowed to remain with their child after the death. The nurse can
remove all of the tubes and equipment and offer the parents the option of preparing the body.
This is an important part of the grieving process and should be allowed if the parents desire it.
It is important for the nurse to ascertain if the family has any special needs. None of the other
options adequately meet the parent’s need to grieve.

49
Q

The nurse is talking with the parents of a child who died 6 months ago. They sometimes still
“hear” the child’s voice and have trouble sleeping. They describe feeling “empty” and
depressed. The nurse should recognize that:
a. these are normal grief responses.
b. the pain of the loss is usually less by this time.
c. these grief responses are more typical of the early stages of grief.
d. this grieving is essential until the pain is gone and the child is gradually forgotten

A

ANS: A
These are normal grief responses. The process of grief work is lengthy and resolution of grief
may take years, with intensification during the early years. The child will never be forgotten
by the parents

50
Q

A new nurse is working with a preceptor on a medical-surgical unit. The preceptor advises the
new nurse that which is the priority when working as a professional nurse?
a. Attending to holistic client needs
b. Ensuring client safety
c. Not making medication errors
d. Providing client-focused care

A

ANS: B
All actions are appropriate for the professional nurse. However, ensuring client safety is the
priority. Health care errors have been widely reported for 25 years, many of which result in
client injury, death, and increased health care costs. There are several national and
international organizations that have either recommended or mandated safety initiatives.
Every nurse has the responsibility to guard the client’s safety. The other actions are important
for quality nursing, but they are not as vital as providing safety. Not making medication errors
does provide safety, but is too narrow in scope to be the best answer.

51
Q

A nurse is orienting a new client and family to the medical-surgical unit. What information
does the nurse provide to best help the client promote his or her own safety?
a. Encourage the client and family to be active partners.
b. Have the client monitor hand hygiene in caregivers.
c. Offer the family the opportunity to stay with the client.
d. Tell the client to always wear his or her armband.

A

ANS: A
Each action could be important for the client or family to perform. However, encouraging the
client to be active in his or her health care as a safety partner is the most critical. The other
actions are very limited in scope and do not provide the broad protection that being active and
involved does.

52
Q

A nurse is caring for a postoperative client on the surgical unit. The client’s blood pressure
was 142/76 mm Hg 30 minutes ago, and now is 88/50 mm Hg. What action would the nurse
take first?
a. Call the Rapid Response Team.
b. Document and continue to monitor.
c. Notify the primary health care provider.
d. Repeat the blood pressure in 15 minutes.

A

ANS: A
The purpose of the Rapid Response Team (RRT) is to intervene when clients are deteriorating
before they suffer either respiratory or cardiac arrest. Since the client has manifested a
significant change, the nurse would call the RRT. Changes in blood pressure, mental status,
heart rate, temperature, oxygen saturation, and last 2 hours’ urine output are particularly
significant and are part of the Modified Early Warning System guide. Documentation is vital,
but the nurse must do more than document. The primary health care provider would be
notified, but this is not more important than calling the RRT. The client’s blood pressure
would be reassessed frequently, but the priority is getting the rapid care to the client.

53
Q

A nurse wishes to provide client-centered care in all interactions. Which action by the nurse
best demonstrates this concept?
a. Assesses for cultural influences affecting health care.
b. Ensures that all the client’s basic needs are met.
c. Tells the client and family about all upcoming tests.
d. Thoroughly orients the client and family to the room.

A

ANS: A
Showing respect for the client and family’s preferences and needs is essential to ensure a
holistic or “whole-person” approach to care. By assessing the effect of the client’s culture on
health care, this nurse is practicing client-focused care. Providing for basic needs does not
demonstrate this competence. Simply telling the client about all upcoming tests is not
providing empowering education. Orienting the client and family to the room is an important
safety measure, but not directly related to demonstrating client-centered care.

54
Q

A client is going to be admitted for a scheduled surgical procedure. Which action does the
nurse explain is the most important thing the client can do to protect against errors?
a. Bring a list of all medications and what they are for.
b. Keep the provider’s phone number by the telephone.
c. Make sure that all providers wash hands before entering the room.
d. Write down the name of each caregiver who comes in the room.

A

ANS: A
Medication reconciliation is a formal process in which the client’s actual current medications
are compared to the prescribed medications at the time of admission, transfer, or discharge.
This National client Safety Goal is important to reduce medication errors. The client would
not have to be responsible for providers washing their hands, and even if the client does so,
this is too narrow to be the most important action to prevent errors. Keeping the provider’s
phone number nearby and documenting everyone who enters the room also do not guarantee
safety.

55
Q

Which action by the nurse working with a client best demonstrates respect for autonomy?

a. Asks if the client has questions before signing a consent.
b. Gives the client accurate information when questioned.
c. Keeps the promises made to the client and family.
d. Treats the client fairly compared to other clients.

A

ANS: A
Autonomy is self-determination. The client would make decisions regarding care. When the
nurse obtains a signature on the consent form, assessing if the client still has questions is vital,
because without full information the client cannot practice autonomy. Giving accurate
information is practicing with veracity. Keeping promises is upholding fidelity. Treating the
client fairly is providing social justice.

56
Q

A nurse asks a more seasoned colleague to explain best practices when communicating with a
person from the lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender, and questioning/queer (LGBTQ)
community. What answer by the faculty is most accurate?
a. Avoid embarrassing the client by asking questions.
b. Don’t make assumptions about his or her health needs.
c. Most LGBTQ people do not want to share information.
d. No differences exist in communicating with this population.

A

ANS: B
Many members of the LGBTQ community have faced discrimination from health care
providers and may be reluctant to seek health care. The nurse would never make assumptions
about the needs of members of this population. Rather, respectful questions are appropriate. If
approached with sensitivity, the client with any health care need is more likely to answer
honestly.

57
Q

A nurse is calling the on-call health care provider about a client who had a hysterectomy 2
days ago and has pain that is unrelieved by the prescribed opioid pain medication. Which
statement comprises the background portion of the SBAR format for communication?
a. “I would like you to order a different pain medication.”
b. “This client has allergies to morphine and codeine.”
c. “Dr. Smith doesn’t like nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory meds.”
d. “This client had a vaginal hysterectomy 2 days ago.”

A

ANS:B
SBAR is a recommended form of communication, and the acronym stands for Situation,
Background, Assessment, and Recommendation. Appropriate background information
includes allergies to medications the on-call health care provider might order. Situation
describes what is happening right now that must be communicated; the client’s surgery 2 days
ago would be considered background. Assessment would include an analysis of the client’s
problem; none of the options has assessment information. Asking for a different pain
medication is a recommendation. Recommendation is a statement of what is needed or what
outcome is desired.

58
Q

A nurse working on a cardiac unit delegated taking vital signs to an experienced assistive
personnel (AP). Four hours later, the nurse notes that the client’s blood pressure taken by the
AP was much higher than previous readings, and the client’s mental status has changed. What
action by the nurse would most likely have prevented this negative outcome?
a. Determining if the AP knew how to take blood pressure
b. Double-checking the AP by taking another blood pressure
c. Providing more appropriate supervision of the AP
d. Taking the blood pressure instead of delegating the task

A

ANS: C
Supervision is one of the five rights of delegation and includes directing, evaluating, and
following up on delegated tasks. The nurse would either have asked the AP about the vital
signs or instructed the AP to report them right away. An experienced AP would know how to
take vital signs and the nurse would not have to assess this at this point. Double-checking the
work defeats the purpose of delegation. Vital signs are within the scope of practice for a AP
and are permissible to delegate. The only appropriate answer is that the nurse did not provide
adequate instruction to the AP.

59
Q

A newly graduated nurse in the hospital states that because of being so new, participation in
quality improvement (QI) projects is not wise. What response by the precepting nurse is best?
a. “All staff nurses are required to participate in quality improvement here.”
b. “Even being new, you can implement activities designed to improve care.”
c. “It’s easy to identify what indicators would be used to measure quality.”
d. “You should ask to be assigned to the research and quality committee.”

A

ANS: B
The preceptor would try to reassure the nurse that implementing QI measures is not out of line
for a newly licensed nurse. Simply stating that all nurses are required to participate does not
help the nurse understand how that is possible and is dismissive. Identifying indicators of
quality is not an easy, quick process and would not be the best place to suggest a new nurse to
start. Asking to be assigned to the QI committee does not give the nurse information about
how to implement QI in daily practice.

60
Q

A nurse is talking with a co-worker who is moving to a new state and needs to find new
employment there. What advice by the nurse is best?
a. Ask the hospitals there about standard nurse–client ratios.
b. Choose the hospital that has the newest technology.
c. Find a hospital that has achieved Magnet status.
d. Work in a facility affiliated with a medical or nursing school.

A

ANS: C
Client Magnet status is awarded by The Joint Commission (TJC) and certifies that nurses can
demonstrate how best current evidence guides their practice. New technology doesn’t
necessarily mean that the hospital is safe. Affiliation with a health profession school has
several advantages, but safety is most important.

61
Q

A nurse manager wishes to ensure that the nurses on the unit are practicing at their highest
levels of competency. Which areas would the manager assess to determine if the nursing staff
demonstrate competency according to the Institute of Medicine (IOM) report Health
Professions Education: A Bridge to Quality? (Select all that apply.)
a. Collaborating with an interprofessional team
b. Implementing evidence-based care
c. Providing family-focused care
d. Routinely using informatics in practice
e. Using quality improvement in client care
f. Formalizing systems thinking when implementing care

A

ANS: A, B, D, E
The IOM report lists five broad core competencies that all health care providers should
practice. These include collaborating with the interprofessional team, implementing
evidence-based practice, providing patient-focused care, using informatics in client care, and
using quality improvement in client care. Systems thinking is required for quality
improvement but is not a specified part of the IOM report.

62
Q

A nurse is interested in making interprofessional work a high priority. Which actions by the
nurse best demonstrate this skill? (Select all that apply.)
a. Consults with other disciplines on client care.
b. Coordinates discharge planning for home safety.
c. Participates in comprehensive client rounding.
d. Routinely asks other disciplines about client progress.
e. Shows the nursing care plans to other disciplines.
f. Delegate tasks to unlicensed personnel appropriately.

A

ANS: A, B, C, D, F
Collaborating with the interprofessional team involves planning, implementing, and
evaluating client care as a team with all other involved disciplines included. Simply showing
other caregivers the nursing care plan is not actively involving them or collaborating with
them.

63
Q
The nurse utilizing evidence-based practice (EBP) considers which factors when planning
care? (Select all that apply.)
a. Cost-saving measures
b. Nurse’s expertise
c. Client preferences
d. Research findings
e. Values of the client
f. Plan-do-study-act model
A

ANS: B, C, D, E
EBP consists of utilizing current evidence, the client’s values and preferences, and the nurse’s
expertise when planning care. It does not include cost-saving measures. The PDSA model is a
systematic model for quality improvement, but is not a specific component of EBP.

64
Q

A nurse manager wants to improve hand-off communication among the staff. What actions by
the manager would best help achieve this goal? (Select all that apply.)
a. Attend hand-off rounds to coach and mentor.
b. Create a template of suggested topics to include in report.
c. Encourage staff to ask questions during hand-off.
d. Give raises based on compliance with reporting.
e. Provide education on the SBAR method of communication
ANS:

A

ANS: A, B, C, E
The SBAR method of communication has been identified as an excellent method of
communication between health care professionals. It is a formalized structure consisting of
Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation/Request. Using a formalized
mechanism for communication helps ensure successful hand-off and fewer client errors. When
establishing this new format for report, the most helpful actions by the manager would be to
provide initial education on the process, develop a template with suggested topics under each
heading, attend rounds to coach and mentor, and encourage staff to ask questions to clarify
information. Basing raises on compliance would not be the most helpful method because
raises are often determined only once a year and are based on multiple criteria.

65
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is acidotic. The nurse asks the charge nurse why the client is
breathing rapidly. What response by the charge nurse is best?
a. Anxiety is causing the client to breathe rapidly.
b. The client is trying to get rid of excess body acids.
c. The rapid respirations cause buildup of bicarbonate.
d. An increased respiratory rate is due to increased metabolism.

A

ANS: B
The client is acidotic, and the respiratory system is attempting to compensate by “blowing
off” excess acid in the form of carbon dioxide. The increased respiratory rate is not due to
anxiety or increased metabolism. An increased respiratory rate does not cause a buildup of
bicarbonate.

66
Q

A client had a recent thromboembolism and must resume work which requires frequent car
and plane travel. What self-care measure does the nurse teach to reduce the risk of impaired
clotting in this client?
a. Get up and walk around at least every 2 hours while traveling.
b. Use a soft toothbrush and an electric razor for safety.
c. Be sure to sit with the legs elevated as much as possible.
d. Increase fiber in the diet so as not to strain to move the bowels.

A

ANS: A
Clients who are at risk of increased clotting (as evidenced by prior thromboembolic event) can
take several measures to reduce their risk of further problems. One measure is to get up and
walk frequently when sitting for a long period of time. Using a soft toothbrush and an electric
razor and needing to prevent constipation would be important for a client at risk of bleeding.
Elevating the legs is not as beneficial as ambulating.

67
Q

A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client does the nurse assess first for impaired
cognition?
a. A 28-year-old client 2 days post-open cholecystectomy
b. An 88-year-old client 3 days post-hemorrhagic stroke
c. A 32-year-old client with a 20–pack-year history of smoking
d. A 42-year-old client with a serum sodium of 134 mEq/L (134 mmol/L)

A

ANS:B
There are many risk factors for impaired cognition including advanced age and diseases and
disorders that affect the brain. The 88-year-old client who is recovering from a stroke has two
such risk factors and is at highest risk for impaired cognition. The nurse assesses this client
first. The other clients have a much lower risk of developing impaired cognition.

68
Q

The assistive personnel (AP) reports to the registered nurse that a postoperative client has a
pulse of 132 beats/min and a blood pressure of 168/90 mm Hg. What response by the nurse is
most appropriate?
a. Ask the AP to repeat the client’s vital signs in 15 minutes.
b. Assess the client for pain.
c. Ask the client if something is bothersome.
d. Instruct the AP to reposition the client.

A

ANS: B
The “fight-or-flight” syndrome can occur from sympathetic nervous stimulation due to acute
pain. Symptoms can include nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis, tachycardia, tachypnea,
hypertension, and dilated pupils. Since this client is postoperative, it is reasonable to believe
that he or she might be in pain. The nurse first assesses for pain or discomfort and treats it. If
the client is not in pain, the nurse would conduct further assessments to determine the cause of
the abnormal vital signs.

69
Q

client has urinary incontinence. Which assessment finding indicates that outcomes for a
priority nursing diagnosis have been met?
a. Client reports satisfaction with undergarments for incontinence.
b. Client reports drinking 8 to 9 glasses of water each day.
c. Skin in perineal area is intact without redness on inspection.
d. Family states that client is more active and socializes more.

A

ANS: C
Urinary incontinence can lead to skin breakdown and possibility of infection. Skin that is
intact without redness shows that a major goal for this client has been met. Becoming more
social is a positive finding as many adults with incontinence limit their social activities, but
this psychosocial outcome is not the priority over a physical outcome. Being satisfied with
undergarments is also not the priority. Drinking adequate water can sometimes help with
incontinence and is important for general health, but is not directly related to an important
goal for this client.

70
Q

The registered nurse asks the nursing assistant why a cardiac client’s morning weight has not
yet been done. The nursing assistant says, “I’ll get to it, what’s the big deal?” When deciding
how to respond, the nurse considers what information about weight?
a. Decisions on treatment often depend on the daily weight.
b. The nursing assistant needs to ensure that tasks are done on time.
c. Weight is the most accurate noninvasive indicator of fluid status.
d. A change in weight may indicate the need to change IV fluids.

A

ANS: C
Weight is the best (noninvasive) indicator of fluid status. Primary health care providers may
base treatment decisions on weight, because the weight reflects fluid balance, but this answer
does not explain why. IV fluid rates or solutions may change for the same reason. The nursing
assistant would perform tasks on a timely basis, but this is not related to information about
weight.

71
Q

The nurse in the emergency department (ED) is caring for four clients. Which client does the
nurse assess for gas exchange abnormalities first?
a. Involved in motor vehicle crash, has broken femur.
b. Brought in unconscious by roommate after opioid overdose.
c. Asthmatic client being discharged after bronchodilator therapy.
d. History of COPD, presents to ED after being bitten by a dog.

A

ANS: B
Opioid medications can cause respiratory depression, so this client is most at risk for gas
exchange problems. Diminished respirations will allow a buildup of carbon dioxide in the
blood. The clients with asthma and COPD have the potential for gas exchange problems but
this is not indicated in answer option as he or she is being discharged. The client with a
broken femur does not have information suggesting gas exchange problems.

72
Q
The nurse caring for a client with malnutrition assesses which laboratory value as the
priority?
a. Albumin
b. Prealbumin
c. Prothrombin time
d. Serum sodium
A

ANS: B
Both albumin and prealbumin are indicators for nutrition. However, prealbumin changes more
rapidly with decreased nutrition, so it is the better test. Prothrombin time and serum sodium
are not directly related to nutritional status.

73
Q

A nurse is planning primary prevention measures for community-dwelling adults to prevent
visual impairment. What action by the nurse will best meet this objective?
a. Provide glaucoma screening.
b. Assess visual acuity.
c. Teach clients about instilling eyedrops.
d. Offer a healthy lifestyle class.

A

ANS: D
Primary prevention activities are those designed to actually prevent the onset of a disease or
health problem. Secondary prevention focuses on screening and early diagnosis/detection.
Tertiary measures are those that offer treatment and rehabilitation. Encouraging a healthy
lifestyle through classes may help prevent diabetes, a common cause of visual impairment,
and is a primary prevention measure. Assessing for glaucoma and visual acuity is a secondary
prevention measure. Teaching clients how to instill eyedrops is tertiary.

74
Q

The nurse tells the staff development nurse he/she is very uncomfortable discussing sexuality
with clients, especially those who are older. What suggestion by the staff development nurse
is most appropriate?
a. “Find a trusted friend and role play.”
b. “Don’t worry it will get easier.”
c. “A sexual assessment is usually not needed.”
d. “It’s hard for me to do, too.”

A

ANS: A
Discussing sexuality and sex is difficult for most people. Since it is important to be able to
assess this aspect of people’s lives, the nurse needs to become comfortable. Role-playing with
a trusted friend will build confidence and comfort. Saying that it will get easier and that it is
hard for the staff development nurse too does not give the nurse any ideas for improvement.
Sexuality is important to assess.

75
Q

A nurse is planning a community education event-related to impaired cellular regulation.
What teaching topics would the nurse include in this event? (Select all that apply.)
a. Ways to minimize exposure to sunlight
b. Resources available for smoking cessation
c. Strategies to remain hydrated during hot weather
d. Use of indoor tanning beds instead of sunbathing
e. Creative cooking techniques to increase dietary fiber
f. How to determine sodium content in food?

A

ANS: A, B, E
Disrupted cellular regulation can lead to both benign and malignant tumors (cancer). Ways to
minimize the risk of developing cancer include decreasing exposure to sunlight, smoking
cessation, and increasing dietary fiber. Tanning beds do not reduce the risk of cancer as
opposed to sunbathing. While staying hydrated is a good health measure, it is not related to
cellular regulation. Maintaining a normal intake of sodium is also not related to cellular
regulation.

76
Q
A nurse is caring for clients on an inclient surgical unit. Which clients does the nurse identify
as having a risk for impaired immunity? (Select all that apply.)
a. 86 years old
b. Has type 2 diabetes
c. Taking prednisone
d. Has many allergies
e. Drinks a beer a day
f. Low socioeconomic status
A

ANS: A, B, C, F
Risk factors for impaired immunity include but are not limited to: older adults (diminished
immunity due to normal aging changes), low socioeconomic groups (inability to obtain proper
immunizations), nonimmunized adults, adults with chronic illnesses that weaken the immune
system, adults taking chronic drug therapy such as corticosteroids and chemotherapeutic
agents, adults experiencing substance use disorder, adults who do not practice a healthy
lifestyle, and adults who have a genetic risk for decreased or excessive immunity. Allergies
and one beer a day are not risk factors.

77
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with severely impaired mobility. What actions does the nurse
place on the care plan to address potential complications? (Select all that apply.)
a. Perform a depression screen once a day.
b. Consult physical therapy for range of motion.
c. Increase fiber in the client’s diet.
d. Decrease fluid intake.
e. Allow client to stay in a position of comfort.

A

ANS: A, B, C
There are many complications of immobility including depression, pressure injuries,
constipation, urinary calculi, and muscle atrophy. The nurse would address these by assessing
for depression, consulting physical therapy for activities such as range of motion the client can
do, and increase fiber so the client does not become constipated. Decreasing fluid intake
would increase the possibility of calculi and allowing the client to stay in one position would
increase the risk of pressure injuries.

78
Q

A client has impaired tissue integrity and a nonhealing wound. The nurse has taught the client
about diet changes to improve wound healing. What diet selections does the nurse evaluate as
good understanding by the client? (Select all that apply.)
a. Chicken breast
b. Orange juice
c. Boost supplement
d. Spinach salad
e. Cantaloupe
f. Whole wheat bread

A

ANS: A, B, C, D
Protein and vitamin C are important for wound healing. Foods high in protein include meat
sources such as chicken and nutritional supplements. Foods high in vitamin C include orange
juice and spinach. Cantaloupe is a good source of vitamin A. Whole wheat bread, while
healthy, does not contribute directly to wound healing.

79
Q

A nurse assesses a client recovering from coronary artery bypass graft surgery in an inpatient
rehabilitation unit. Which assessment would the nurse complete to evaluate the client’s
activity tolerance?
a. Vital signs before, during, and after activity
b. Body image and self-care abilities
c. Ability to use assistive or adaptive devices
d. Client’s electrocardiography readings

A

ANS: A
Alterations in the cardiac system can affect a client’s ability to tolerate activity. Signs of this
include changes in blood pressure and pulse since they are directly affected by cardiac output.
A body image assessment is not necessary before basic activities are performed. Self-care
abilities and ability to use assistive or adaptive devices is an important assessment when
planning rehabilitation activities, but will not provide essential information about the client’s
activity tolerance. Electrocardiography is not used to monitor clients in a rehabilitation
setting.

80
Q

A nurse teaches a client with a past history of angina who has had a total knee replacement.
Which statement would the nurse include in this client’s teaching prior to beginning
rehabilitation activities?
a. “Use analgesics before and after activity, even if you are not experiencing pain.”
b. “Let me know if you start to experience shortness of breath, chest pain, or fatigue.”
c. “Do not take your prescribed beta blocker until after you exercise with physical
therapy.”
d. “If you experience knee pain, ask the physical therapist to reschedule your
therapy.”

A

ANS: B
Participation in exercise may increase myocardial oxygen demand beyond the ability of the
coronary circulation to deliver enough oxygen to meet the increased need. The nurse must
determine the client’s ability to tolerate different activity levels. Asking the client to notify the
nurse if symptoms of shortness of breath, chest pain, or fatigue occur will assist the nurse in
developing an appropriate rehabilitation plan the client can tolerate. Analgesics before and
after activity are not warranted. The rehabilitation nurse would not change the client’s
medication schedule without consulting the physiatrist or primary health care provider.
Therapy would not be cancelled if this client had knee pain postoperatively.

81
Q

A rehabilitation nurse prepares to move a client who has new bilateral leg amputations. Which
is the best approach?
a. Use the bear-hug method to transfer the client safely.
b. Ask several members of the health care team to carry the client.
c. Utilize the facility’s mechanical lift to move the client.
d. Consult physical therapy before performing all transfers.

A

ANS: C
Use mechanical lifts to minimize staff work-related musculoskeletal injuries. Many facilities
have implemented no-lift or minimal-lift policies to reduce staff and client injury. The
bear-hug method does not eliminate staff injuries. Staff would not carry the client. Physical
therapy would be consulted but cannot be depended upon for all transfers. Nursing staff must
be capable of transferring a client safely.

82
Q

A rehabilitation nurse in a skilled nursing facility (SNF) cares for a client who has generalized
weakness and needs assistance with activities of daily living. Which exercise would the nurse
implement?
a. Passive range of motion
b. Active range of motion
c. Resistive range of motion
d. Aerobic exercise

A

ANS: B
Active range of motion is a part of a restorative nursing program. Active range of motion will
promote strength, range of motion, and independence with activities of daily living. Passive
range of motion will not increase the client’s strength. Performing range of motion against
resistance may be too advanced for the client. This client is not yet ready for aerobic exercise.

83
Q

A nurse plans care for a client who is bedridden. Which assessment would the nurse complete
to ensure to prevent pressure injury formation?
a. Nutritional intake and serum albumin levels
b. Pressure injury diameter and depth
c. Wound drainage, including color, odor, and consistency
d. Dressing site and antibiotic ointment application

A

ANS: A
Assessing serum albumin levels helps determine the client’s nutritional status and allows care
providers to alter the diet, as needed, to provide protein to prevent pressure injuries. All other
options are treatment oriented rather than prevention oriented.

84
Q

A nurse teaches a client about performing intermittent self-catheterization. The client states, “I
am not sure if I will be able to afford these catheters.” How would the nurse respond?
a. “I will try to find out whether you qualify for money to purchase these necessary
supplies.”
b. “Even though it is expensive, the cost of taking care of urinary tract infections
would be even higher.”
c. “Instead of purchasing new catheters, you can boil the catheters and reuse them up
to 10 times each.”
d. “I will contact the social worker who will discuss potential resources with you.”

A

ANS: D
Social workers help patients identify support services and resources, including financial
assistance. The nurse would refer the client to the social worker to explore financial concerns.
The nurse would not threaten the client, nor would the client be instructed to boil the
catheters.

85
Q

A nurse delegates the ambulation of an older adult client to a nursing assistant. Which
statement would the nurse include when delegating this task?
a. “The client has skid-proof socks, so there is no need to use your gait belt.”
b. “Teach the client how to use the walker while you are ambulating up the hall.”
c. “Sit the client on the edge of the bed with legs dangling before ambulating.”
d. “Ask the client if pain medication is needed before you walk the client.”

A

ANS: C
Before the client gets out of bed, have the client sit on the bed with legs dangling on the side.
This will enhance safety for the client because it gives the body time to adjust after changing
position and can prevent safety concerns from orthostatic hypotension. A gait belt would be
used for all clients. The nursing assistant cannot teach the client to use a walker or assess the
client’s pain

86
Q

A nurse assesses a client who is admitted to the inpatient rehabilitation unit with hip
problems. The client asks, “Why are you asking about my bowels and bladder?” How would
the nurse respond?
a. “To plan your care based on your normal elimination routine.”
b. “So we can help prevent side effects of your medications.”
c. “We need to evaluate your ability to function independently.”
d. “To schedule your activities around your elimination pattern.”

A

ANS:A
Bowel and bladder elimination varies from client to client and must be evaluated on the basis
of the client’s normal routine. The nurse asks about bowel and bladder habits to develop a
client-centered plan of care. The other answers are correct but are not the best responses. Oral
analgesics may cause constipation, but they do not interfere with bladder control. The client is
in rehabilitation to assist his or her ability to function independently.

87
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has a flaccid bladder after a spinal cord injury. Which
intervention would the nurse implement to assist with bladder dysfunction?
a. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
b. Stroke the medial aspect of the thigh.
c. Use the Credé maneuver every 3 hours.
d. Apply an external (condom) catheter with a leg bag.

A

ANS: C
When the patient has a lower motor neuron problem, the voiding reflex arc is not intact
(flaccid bladder pattern), and additional stimulation may be needed to initiate voiding. Two
techniques are used to facilitate voiding in a client with a flaccid bladder: the Valsalva
maneuver and the Credé maneuver. Indwelling urinary catheters generally are not used
because of the increased incidence of urinary tract infection. Stroking the medial aspect of the
thigh facilitates voiding in clients with upper motor neuron problems. An external catheter is
not ideal for this lesion which causes urinary retention and overflow.

88
Q

A nurse teaches a client who has a reflex (spastic) bladder after a spinal cord injury. Which
bladder training technique would the nurse teach?
a. Stroking the medial aspect of the thigh
b. Valsalva maneuver
c. Self-catheterization
d. Frequent toileting

A

ANS: A
If there is an upper motor neuron problem but the reflex arc is intact (reflex bladder pattern),
the voiding response can be initiated by any stimulus that sends the message to the spinal cord
level S2-4 that the bladder might be full. Such techniques include stroking the medial aspect
of the thigh, pinching the area above the groin, massaging the peno-scrotal area, pinching the
posterior aspect of the glans penis, and providing digital anal stimulation. The Valsalva
maneuver is used for a flaccid bladder. Intermittent catheterization may be necessary if
nothing else works. A consistent toileting schedule may be included in the regimen.

89
Q

A rehabilitation nurse cares for a client who is wheelchair bound. Which intervention would
the nurse implement to prevent skin breakdown?
a. Place pillows under the client’s heels.
b. Have the client do wheelchair push-ups.
c. Perform wound care as prescribed.
d. Massage the client’s calves and feet with lotion.

A

ANS: B
Clients who sit for prolonged periods in a wheelchair would perform wheelchair push-ups for
at least 20 seconds every hour. Chair-bound clients also need to be repositioned at least every
1 to 2 hours. The lower legs, where the wheelchair could rub against the legs, also need to be
assessed. Pillows under the heels may or may not be beneficial, but repositioning and
redistributing weight are more important. Performing wound care as prescribed is important to
improve the healing of pressure injuries, but this intervention will not prevent skin
breakdown. The calves of a client with no or decreased lower extremity mobility would not be
massaged because of the risk of embolization or thrombus

90
Q

A nurse collaborates with an occupational therapist when providing care for a rehabilitation

client. With which activities would the occupational therapist assist the client? (Select all that
apply. )
a. Achieving mobility
b. Attaining independence with dressing
c. Using a walker in public
d. Learning techniques for transferring
e. Performing activities of daily living (ADLs)
f. Completing job training

A

ANS: B, E
The role of the occupational therapist is to assist the client with fine motor control activities,
such as ADLs and dressing. The physical therapist assists with gross motor function, muscle
strength development, and ambulation. Vocational counselors assist with job placement,
training, and further education.

91
Q

An interprofessional team is caring for a client on a rehabilitation unit. Which team members
are paired with the correct roles and responsibilities? (Select all that apply.)
a. Speech–language pathologist—evaluates and retrains clients with swallowing
problems
b. Physical therapist—assists clients with ambulation and walker training
c. Recreational therapist—assists physical therapists to complete rehabilitation
therapy
d. Vocational counselor—works with clients who have experienced head injuries
e. Registered dietitian—develops client-specific diets to ensure that client needs are
met
f. Clinical psychologist—assesses and diagnoses mental health/behavioral health or
cognition issues resulting from the disability or chronic condition and help both
the patient and family identify strategies to foster coping

A

ANS: A, B, E, F
Speech–language pathologists evaluate and retrain clients with speech, language, or
swallowing problems. Physical therapists help clients to achieve self-management by focusing
on gross mobility. Registered dietitians develop client-specific diets to ensure that clients meet
their needs for nutrition. Recreational therapists work to help clients continue or develop
hobbies or interests. Vocational counselors assist with job placement, training, or further
education. The clinical psychologist assesses and diagnoses mental health/behavioral health or
cognition issues resulting from the disability or chronic condition and help both the patient
and family identify strategies to foster coping.

92
Q

A rehabilitation nurse is caring for an older adult client who states, “I tire easily.” How would
the nurse respond? (Select all that apply.)
a. “Schedule all of your tasks for the morning when you have the most energy.”
b. “Try to rest before and after eating or going to the bathroom.”
c. “Your family could hire someone who can assist you with daily chores.”
d. “Plan to gather all of the supplies needed for a chore prior to starting the activity.”
e. “Try to break large activities into smaller parts to allow rest periods between
activities.”

A

ANS: A, B, D, E
Resting before and after eating or going to the bathroom reduces strain and fatigue. Gathering
equipment before performing a chore decreases unneeded steps. Breaking larger chores into
smaller ones allows rest periods between activities and still gives the client a sense of
completion even if the client is unable to complete the whole task. Major tasks would be
performed in the morning, when energy levels are high, while lesser tasks would be done
throughout the day after frequent rest periods. Someone would be hired to do the chores only
if the client cannot do them. The outcome would be achieving independence as close to the
predisability level as possible.

93
Q

A nurse is caring for clients as a member of the rehabilitation team. Which activities would
the nurse complete as part of the nurse’s role? (Select all that apply.)
a. Maintain the function of assistive technology by making needed repairs.
b. Coordinate rehabilitation team activities to ensure implementation of the plan of
care.
c. Assist clients to identify support services and resources for the coordination of services.
d. Counsel clients and family members on strategies to cope with disability.
e. Support the client’s choices by acting as an advocate for the client and family.

A

ANS: B, E
The rehabilitation nurse’s role includes coordination of rehabilitation activities to ensure that
the client’s plan of care is effectively implemented and advocating for the client and family.
Assistive technology (computer keyboards, door locks) would be maintained by the vendor,
not the nurse. The social worker assists clients with support services and resources. The
clinical psychologist counsels clients and families on their psychological problems and on
strategies to cope with disability.

94
Q
A rehabilitation nurse assesses a client upon admission. Which assessments would the nurse
complete to determine actual or potential interruption in skin and tissue integrity? (Select all
that apply.)
a. Oxygen saturation
b. Cognitive abilities
c. Functional mobility
d. Spiritual needs
e. Urinary output
f. Nutrition
A

ANS: A, B, C, E, F
To identify actual or potential interruptions in skin and tissue integrity, the nurse would assess
for adequate oxygenation, cognition, bladder and bowel patterns and incontinence, sensation,
adequate nutrition, and functional ability. The client’s spiritual needs do not impact skin
integrity

95
Q

A nurse begins discharge planning for a rehabilitation client who will be discharged in a

wheelchair. Which would the nurse include in this predischarge assessment? (Select all that
apply. )
a. Doorway widths within the client’s home
b. Nutritional status including laboratory results
c. Feelings and concerns related to the discharge
d. Vital signs before, during, and after exercise activities
e. Client’s ability to perform activities of daily living

A

ANS: A, C, E
In preparation for discharge, the nurse in collaboration with the health care team would assess
the client’s home to ensure accessibility given the client’s mobility impairments,
psychological and mental readiness for discharge, ability to perform ADLs and IADLs, and
support resources needed. Vital signs and nutritional status would be assessed during the
rehabilitation stay but are not part of the predischarge assessment.