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Intro to Psych > Unit 8 Elaina & Unit 9 & 10 Rachel- Test 3 > Flashcards

Unit 8 Elaina & Unit 9 & 10 Rachel- Test 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

Define Developmental Psychology:

A

how we grow, develop, and change throughout the lifespan.

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2
Q

Describe Chromosome:

A

Rod-shaped structures, found in the nuclei of body cells, that contain all the genes and carry all the hereditary information.

  • 23 pairs
  • 22 pairs are called autosomes
  • 23rd pair is called sex chromosomes
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3
Q

Define DNA:

A

Genes are segments of this located on each of the chromosomes

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4
Q

Define gene:

A

Within the chromosomes, the segments of DNA that are the basic units for the transmission of hereditary traits

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5
Q

Describe dominant trait:

A

A gene that is expressed in the individual

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6
Q

Describe recessive trait:

A

A gene that will not be expressed if paired with a dominant gene, but will be expressed if paired with another recessive gene

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7
Q

Describe sex chromosome:

A
  • It carries the genes that determine one’s sex and primary and secondary sex characteristics
  • Sperm cells and the mature egg cells each have 23 single chromosomes.
  • At conception, the sperm adds its 23 single chromosome to the 23 of the egg. This union forms a single cell called a zygote , which has the full 46 chromosomes (23 pairs), which in turn contains about 30,000 genes-the genetic material needed to make a human being.
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8
Q

What are the three stages of prenatal development?

A
  1. Period of the zygote
  2. Period of the embryo
  3. Period of the fetus
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9
Q

Describe Stage 1- Period of the zygote

A

Time after Conception: 1 to 2 weeks

Major Activities of the Stage: zygote attaches to the uterine lining; at 2 weeks, zygote is the size of the period at the end of this sentence.

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10
Q

Describe Stage 2- Period of the embryo

A

Time after Conception: 3 to 8 weeks

Major Activities of the Stage: Major systems, organs, and structures of the body develop; Period ends when first bone cells appear. At 8 weeks, embryo is about 2.5 cm long and weighs about 4g.

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11
Q

Describe Stage 3- Period of the fetus

A

Time after Conception: 9 weeks to birth (38 weeks)

Major Activities of the Stage: Rapid growth and further development of the body structures, organs, and systems.

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12
Q

What are the environmental influences on an unborn child?

A

TERATOGENS: Harmful agents in the prenatal environment that can have a negative impact on prenatal development and even cause birth defects.

CRITICAL PERIOD: A period that is so important to development that a harmful environmental influence can keep a bodily structure or behaviour from developing normally.

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13
Q

What are the four adaptive reflexes of a neonate?

A
  • sucking
    • swallowing
    • coughing
    • blinking
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14
Q

What are the physical changes that occur during infancy?

A

sitting, standing, and walking; physical and motor development proceeds from the head downward to the trunk and legs, so babies lift their heads before they sit, and sit before they walk, etc.

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15
Q

What are the physical changes that occur during puberty?

A

ejaculation, menarche. Adolescence begins with the onset of puberty–biological changes characterized by a period of rapid physical growth and change that culminates in sexual maturity.

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16
Q

What are the physical changes that occur during middle age?

A

Menopause–cessation of menstruation; men experience a gradual decline in their testosterone levels.

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17
Q

Piaget’s stages of cognitive development- What is the concept of assimilation and accommodation?

A

ASSIMILATION: The process by which new objects, events, experiences, or pieces of information are incorporated into existing schemas

ACCOMMODATION: The process by which existing schemas are modified and new schemas are created to incorporate new objects, events, experiences, or information

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18
Q

Define socialization:

A
  • The process of learning socially acceptable behaviours, attitudes, and values
  • Every one of us is born into a society
  • To function effectively and comfortably within that society, we must come to know the patterns of behaviour that it considers desirable and appropriate.
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19
Q

What are the 8 psychosocial stages of development proposed by Erikson?

A
  1. Trust vs. mistrust
  2. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
  3. Initiative vs. guilt
  4. Industry vs. inferiority
  5. Identity vs. role confusion
  6. Intimacy vs. isolation
  7. Generativity vs. stagnation
  8. Ego integrity vs. despair
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20
Q

What is the concept of separation anxiety?

A
  • fear and distress when the parent leaves them with another caretaker
  • infants show separation anxiety once the attachment has formed
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21
Q

What are the 4 types of attachment identified by Mary Ainsworth?

A
  1. secure
  2. resistant
  3. avoidant
  4. disorganized/disoriented
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22
Q

What are the 3 parenting styles outlined by Diane Baumrind?

A
  1. Authoritarian Parents - expect unquestioned obedience
  2. Authoritative Parents - set high standards, give rationale for rules.
  3. Permissive Parents - set few rules or limits
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23
Q

What are the 3 levels (6 stages) of moral development?

A
  1. Conventional - to gain approval or to follow the law.
  2. Postconventional - to ensure that human rights are protected.
  3. Preconventional - to avoid punishment or gain a reward.
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24
Q

Why is middle age often considered the prime of life?

A

Life satisfaction in older adults appears to be most strongly related to good health, as well as to a feeling of control over one’s life.

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25
Q

What are the five stages of coming to terms with death as proposed by Dr. Elisabeth Kubler-Ross?

A
  1. Denial and isolation
  2. Anger
  3. Bargaining
  4. Depression
  5. Acceptance
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26
Q

Define motivation.

A

The process that initiates, directs, and sustains behaviour to satisfy physiological or psychological needs.

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27
Q

Distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic motivation.

A

Intrinsic Motivation: The desire to perform an act because it is satisfying or pleasurable in and of itself.
Extrinsic Motivation: The desire to perform an act in order to gain a reward or to avoid an undesirable consequence.

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28
Q

Explain how instinct can affect motivation.

A

Instinct theory: the notion that we are motivated by certain innate, unlearned tendencies that are part of the genetic makeup of all individuals.

EX. Two people fight because of their aggressive instinct.

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29
Q

Describe how instinct theory is related to human motivation.

A

Instinct we were born with may motivate us to behave a certain way. Clark Hull suggests all living organisms have certain biological needs that must be met if they are to survive.

Although, common experience alone suggests that human behaviour is too richly diverse, and too unpredictable, to be considered fixed and invariant across our species. Most psychologists reject the instinct theory as an explanation of human motivation.

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30
Q

Describe a motivational sequence using the drive-reduction theory.

A

A need creates an unpleasant state of arousal or tension called a drive. This drive impels the organism to engage in behaviour that will satisfy the need and reduce the tension.

EX. A person eats to reduce hunger

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31
Q

Define Homeostasis.

A

The tendency of the body to maintain a balanced internal state with regard to body temperature, blood sugar, water, oxygen level, and so forth to ensure physical survival.

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32
Q

Describe the arousal theory of motivation.

A

A theory suggesting that the aim of motivation is to maintain an optimal level of arousal.

If arousal is less than the optimal level, we do something to stimulate it.
If arousal exceeds the optimal level, we seek to reduce it.

EX. A person climbs a mountain for excitement; a person listens to classical music for relaxation

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33
Q

Relate arousal to the Yerkes-Dodson law.

A

The principle that performance on tasks is best when arousal level is appropriate to the difficulty of the task - higher arousal for simpler tasks, moderate arousal for tasks of moderate difficulty, and lower arousal for complex tasks.

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34
Q

List, in order, the needs found in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.

A
  1. (Bottom of pyramid). Physiological Needs
    EX. food, water, oxygen, sleep, elimination
  2. Safety Needs
    EX. Need for safety and seurity
  3. Belonging and Love Needs
    EX. Need to love andbe loved; need to affiliate with others and be accepted
    4.Esteem Needs
    EX. Needs to achieve, to gain competence, to gain respect and recognition from others.
  4. Need for Self-Actualization
    EX. Need to realize ones full potential.
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35
Q

Differentiate extracellular and intacellular thirst.

A

Extracellular thirst: Fluid is lost from body tissues. Ex. exercising, hot weather makes you perspire and loose body fluid as well as bleeding, vomiting, and diarrhea.

Intracellular thirst: Loss of water from inside the body cells.
Ex. Eating a lot of salty food.

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36
Q

Describe the relationship of blood sugar to hunger.

A

Blood levels of sugar called glucose are monitored by nutrient detectors in the liver, and send this information to the brain. Hunger is stimulated when the brain receives the message that the blood sugar is low. When glucose is high, insulin is released to convert the glucose into energy. Elevated insulin levels can cause an increase in hunger, food intake, and desire for sweets.

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37
Q

Describe the relationship of the hypothalamus to hunger.

A

Two areas of the hypothalamus are important in regulating eating behaviour and the hunger drive.
The lateral Hypothalamus (LH) acts as a feeding center signalling animals to eat. When the LH is destroyed the animal initially refuses to eat.
The Ventromedial Hypothalamus (VMH) acts as a satiety center. Stops eating. When this area is destroyed is causes overeating which leads to obesity.

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38
Q

List biological factors that stimulate eating.

A
  • Activity in lateral hypothalamus
  • Low blood sugar levels of glucose
  • Increase in insulin
  • Stomach contractions
  • Empty stomach
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39
Q

List environmental factors that stimulate eating.

A
  • Aroma of food
  • Sight of appetizing food
  • Taste of appetizing food
  • Acquired food preferences
  • Being around others who are eating
  • Foods high in fat and sugar
  • Learned eating habits
  • Reaction to boredom, stress, unpleasant emotional state
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40
Q

Define the need for achievement.

A

The need to accomplish something difficult and to perform at a high standard of excellence.

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41
Q

Describe three components of emotions.

A

Physical Component - Physiological arousal (internal body state accompanying emotion).
Cognitive Component - The way we interpret a stimulus or situation.
Behavioural Component - Outward expression of the emotion (facial expressions, gestures, body posture, tone of voice).

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42
Q

Briefly describe the James-Lange theory of emotion.

A

The theory that emotional feelings result when we become aware of our physiological response to an emotion-provoking stimulus) . Ex. we are afraid because we tremble.

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43
Q

Briefly describe the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion.

A

The theory that physiological arousal and the feeling of emotion occur simultaneously after an emotion-provoking stimulus is relayed to the hypothalamus and the cerebral cortex.

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44
Q

Briefly describe Schachter’s cognitive theory.

A

A two-stage theory stating that for an emotion to occur,there must be (1) physiological arousal and (2) an interpretation or explanation of the arousal.

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45
Q

Briefly describe the Lazarus cognitive-appraisal theory of emotion.

A

The theory that an emotion-provoking stimulus triggers a cognitive appraisal, which is followed by the emotion and physiological trigger.

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46
Q

List the six primary emotions.

A
  • Fear
  • Anger
  • Disgust
  • Surprise
  • Joy or Happiness
  • Sadness or Distress
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47
Q

Discuss the role of emotion as a form of communication.

A
  • Enables us to communicate our feelings, intentions, and needs more effectively.
  • Make it more likely that others respond to us.
  • we motivate others to act.
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48
Q

Define social psychology.

A

The study in which the way the actual, imagined, or implied presence of others influences the thoughts, feelings, and behaviour of individuals.

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49
Q

Describe the primacy effect.

A

The likelihood that an overall impression or judgement of another will be influenced more by the first information received about that person than by information that comes later.

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50
Q

Explain the difference between a situational attribution and a dispositional attribution.

A

Situational attribution: Attribution of a behaviour to some external cause or factor operating in the situation; an external attribution.
Dispositional Attribution: Attribution of one’s own or another’s behaviour to some internal cause such as a personal trait, motive, or attitude; an internal attribution.

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51
Q

Define fundamental attribution error.

A

The tendency to overemphasize internal factors and underemphasize situational ones when explaining other people’s behaviour.

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52
Q

Define self-serving bias.

A

Our tendency to attribute our successes to dispositional causes, and our failures to situational causes.

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53
Q

Identify four factors that influence attraction.

A

Proximity - close to you
Reciprocal Liking - Liking those who like us
Attractiveness - good looks attract
Similarity

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54
Q

Distinguish between conformity and compliance.

A

Conformity: changing or adopting a behaviour or an attitude to be consistent with the norms of a group or the expectations of others.

Compliance: Acting in accordance with the wishes, the suggestions, or the direct requests of another person.

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55
Q

Describe the results of the Milgram Study.

A

He showed that a large majority of his participants would obey authority even if obedience caused great pain or was life-threatening to another person.

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56
Q

Define social facilitation.

A

Any positive or negative effect on performance due to the presence of others; either an audience effect or a co-action effect.

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57
Q

Define social loafing.

A

The tendency to put forth less effort when working with others on a common task than when working alone.

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58
Q

Define group polarization.

A

The tendency of members of a group, after group discussion, to shift toward a more extreme position in whatever direction they were leaning initially.

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59
Q

Define roles.

A

The behaviours considered to be appropriate for individuals occupying certain positions within a group.

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60
Q

Define groupthink.

A

The tendency of members of a very cohesive group to feel such pressure to maintain group solidarity and to reach agreement on an issue that they fail to adequately weigh available evidence or to consider objections and alternatives.

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61
Q

Explain how groupthink may contribute to poor decision making.

A
  • Group is more concerned with preserving group solidarity and uniformity than with objectively evaluating all possible alternatives in decision making, individual members may hesitate to voice any dissent.
  • Group may discredit opposing views from outsiders.
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62
Q

Define attitude.

A

A relatively stable evaluation of a person, object, situation, or issue.

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63
Q

Describe the belief components of attitude.

A

The Cognitive component - thoughts and beliefs about attitudinal object.

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64
Q

Describe the emotional component of attitude.

A

The emotional component - feelings toward attitudinal object.

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65
Q

Describe the action component of an attitude.

A

The Behavioural component - predisposition to act toward attitudinal object.

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66
Q

Explain cognitive dissonance.

A

The unpleasant state that can occur when people become aware of inconsistencies between their attitudes or between their attitudes and behaviour.

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67
Q

Describe methods of reducing cognitive dissonance.

A
  • Changing our behaviour
  • Changing our attitude
  • Somehow explaining away the inconsistency
  • Reducing its importance.

EX. Smoking. Easiest way to reduce cognitive dissonance - change the behaviour (Quit smoking). Or Change in attitude (convincing themselves it is not as dangerous as research suggests).

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68
Q

Define persuasion.

A

A deliberate attempt to influence the attitudes and/or behaviour of another.

69
Q

Define and differentiate prejudice and discrimination.

A

Prejudice: Attitudes, usually negative, toward others based on their gender, religion, race, or membership in a particular group.
Discrimination: Behaviour, usually negative, directed toward others based on their gender, religion, race, or membership in a particular group.

70
Q

Define social cognition.

A

Mental processes that people use to notice, interpret, remember, and apply information about the social world and that enable them to simplify, categorize, and order their world.

71
Q

Define stereotypes.

A

Widely shared beliefs about the characteristic traits, attitudes, and behaviours of members of various social groups (racial, ethnic, religious); this includes the assumption that they are usually all alike.

72
Q

Describe the factors that explain why the bystander effect occurs.

A

Bystander effect: As the number of bystanders at an emergency increases, the probability that the victim will receive help decreases, and help, if given, is likely to be delayed.

Factors Affecting Bystander Effect

  1. Diffusion of responsibility: the feeling among bystanders at an emergency that the responsibility for helping is shared by the group, so that each individual feels less compelled to act than if he or she alone bore the total responsibility.
  2. The Influence of Apparently Calm Bystanders. Bystanders often hesitate to act until they are sure intervention is appropriate. They may stand with other apparently calm bystanders and assume nothing is wrong and intervention is not necessary.
73
Q

Define pro-social behaviour.

A

Behaviour that benefits others, such as helping, co-operation, and sympathy.

74
Q

When does pro-social behaviour occur.

A
  • Pro-social impulses arise early in life.
  • When a person feels empathy for the other person.
  • When the victim is attractive
  • Victim is similar to yourself
  • If you have police training or first-aid.
  • if they are not in a hurry
  • If the weather is nice
  • They are in a positive mood
75
Q

Discuss the roles of instincts and physiology in terms of aggression.

A
  • The instinct theory of aggression is often rejected. It is the idea that humans, along with other animals, are programmed for aggressive behaviour.
  • Psychologists believe biological factors are involved. Believe genes predispose individuals to aggressive behaviour.
  • Gender differences in aggression. Males are generally more aggressive than females
  • Alcohol and aggression are linked.
76
Q

Describe the frustration-aggression hypothesis.

A

The hypothesis that frustration produces aggression.

77
Q

Outline the effect aversive events has on aggression.

A

People become aggressive as a result of aversive events. Such as:

  • they are in pain
  • exposed to loud noises
  • exposed to foul odours
  • exposed to extreme heat
  • exposure to cigarette smoke
78
Q

Discuss how social learning theory explains aggression.

A

People learn to behave aggressively by observing aggressive models and by having their aggressive response reinforced.

79
Q

UNIT 9

An ____________ is an inborn, unlearned, fixed pattern of behaviour that is characteristic of an entire species.

A

INSTINCT

80
Q

UNIT 9

Arousal

A

A state of alertness and mental and physical activation.

81
Q

UNIT 9
Drive-reduction theory assumes that various motives like hunger and thirst have in common the fact that they:

a) Are aroused by external stimuli
b) Are unpleasant sensations we want to reduce or eliminate
c) Cause us to behave in ways that increase our need level
d) Are learned reactions

A

b) Are unpleasant sensations we want to reduce or eliminate

82
Q

UNIT 9
Which of the following suggests that performance on tasks is best when arousal levels are appropriate to the difficulty of the task?

a) Instinctual theory of motivation
b) James-Lange Theory
c) Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
d) The Yerkes-Dodson Law

A

d) The Yerkes-Dodson Law

83
Q

UNIT 9
Motivation is defined as a process that:

a) initiates, directs, and sustains behaviour
b) changes behaviour as a result of prior experience
c) reflects physical and behavioural attempts to cope and adapt
d) is a relatively stable personality tendency

A

a) initiates, directs, and sustains behaviour

84
Q

UNIT 9

Two of the most important primary drives that direct motivation are:

A

THIRST & HUNGER

85
Q

UNIT 9

Thirst is a basic ________ drive. Without any intake of fluids, we can only survive about ______ or _____ days

A

biological; four; five

86
Q

UNIT 9
Cannon and Washburn demonstrated a close correlation between stomach contractions and the ________________. But their discovery does not necessarily mean that sensation of hunger is caused by __________. Additional research has confirmed that humans and other animals continue to experience hunger even when _____________.

A

Cannon and Washburn demonstrated a close correlation between stomach contractions and the Perception of hunger. But their discovery does not necessarily mean that sensation of hunger is caused by Stomach contractions.. Additional research has confirmed that humans and other animals continue to experience hunger even when it is impossible for them to feel stomach contractions.

87
Q

UNIT 9
Which theory of emotion claims your feeling of emotion occurs at about the same time that you experience physical arousal and that one does not cause the other.

a) Schachter-Singer theory
b) Cannon-Bard theory
c) James-Lange theory
d) Instinct theory

A

b) Cannon-Bard theory

88
Q

UNIT 10

First impressions are powerful and can colour many of the later _________ we form about people.

A

impressions

89
Q

UNIT 10
Which of the following statements is true of first impressions?

 a) They act as filters for later information
 b) They cannot be changed.
 c) They are usually correct.
 d) They are not particularly important.
A

a) They act as filters for later information

90
Q

UNIT 10
Attribution deals with the question of:

 a) why we and others act the way we do.
 b) how we can best achieve our goals.
 c) what the consequences of our actions will be.
 d) who our best choices for friends are.
A

a) why we and others act the way we do.

91
Q

UNIT 10
7. We tend to make ______ attributions to explain our own behaviour and _______ attributions to explain the behaviour of others.

 a) situational; situational
 b) situational; dispositional
 c) dispositional; situational
 d) dispositional; dispositional
A

c) dispositional; situational

92
Q

UNIT 10
Attributing Mike’s poor grade to his lack of ability is a dispositional attribution.

 a) True
 b) False
A

a) True

93
Q

UNIT 10
The tendency to overemphasize internal factors and underemphasize situational ones when explaining other people’s behaviour has been named the _________________.

A

fundamental attribution error .

94
Q

UNIT 10
Self-serving bias refers to our tendency to use:

 a) situational attributions for our behaviour
 b) internal attributions for our behaviour
 c) internal attributions for our successes and external attributions for our failures
 d) internal attributions for our failures and external attributions for our successes.
A

c) internal attributions for our successes and external attributions for our failures

95
Q

UNIT 10
People are usually drawn to those who are more opposite than similar to themselves.

 a) True
 b) False
A

a) False

96
Q

UNIT 10
Which of the following is best supported by research on interpersonal attraction?

 a) Familiarity breeds contempt.
 b) Absence makes the heart grow fonder.
 c) Opposites attract.
 d) Similarities attract.
A

d) Similarities attract.

97
Q

UNIT 10
We tend to like people who like us - or who we believe like us.

 a) True
 b) False
A

a) True

98
Q

UNIT 10
Physical attractiveness is a very important factor in initial attraction.

 a) True
 b) False
A

a) True

99
Q

UNIT 10
Changing or adopting a behaviour or an attitude to be consistent with the norms of a group of the expectations of others.

A

CONFORMITY

100
Q

UNIT 10

The attitudes and standards of behaviour expected of members of a particular group.

A

NORMS

101
Q

UNIT 10

Acting in accordance with the wishes, the suggestions, or the direct requests of another person.

A

COMPLIANCE

102
Q

UNIT 10

This is in place to create a predictable and stable environment.

A

NORMS

103
Q

UNIT 10
Which of the following statements regarding the effects of social facilitation is true?

 a) Performance improves on all tasks.
 b) Performance worsens on all tasks.
 c) Performance improves on easy tasks and worsens on difficult tasks.
 d) Performance improves on difficult tasks and worsens on easy tasks.
A

C

104
Q

UNIT 10
Social loafing is most likely to occur when:

 a) individual output is monitored
 b) individual output is evaluated
 c) a task is challenging
 d) individual output cannot be identified
A

D- individual output cannot be identified

105
Q

UNIT 10
Match the letter of the following attitude components with its appropriate example (attitude toward exercise).

 a) Behavioural component
 b) Cognitive component
 c) Emotional component

(i) “Exercise is fun.”
(ii) “I read articles about exercise.”
(iii) “Exercise is good for our health.”
(iv) “I exercise every day.”
(v) “Exercise is a good stress reliever.”

A

__C_ (i) “Exercise is fun.”
__A_ (ii) “I read articles about exercise.”
__B_ (iii) “Exercise is good for our health.”
__A_ (iv) “I exercise every day.”
__B_ (v) “Exercise is a good stress reliever.”

106
Q

UNIT 10
Which of the following statements would create the most cognitive dissonance? Not sure about this one.

 a) I bought a Toyota Corolla.  I wish I had a Lexus.
 b) I like Italians,  I don't like Italian food.
 c) I am a honest person.  I cheated on the test.
 d) I should have gotten the job.  I was not hired.
A

c) I am a honest person. I cheated on the test.

107
Q

UNIT 10
All of the following are ways to reduce cognitive dissonance except:

 a) changing an attitude.
 b) changing a behaviour.
 c) explaining away the inconsistency.
 d) strengthening the attitude and behaviour.
A

d) strengthening the attitude and behaviour.

108
Q

UNIT 10
Prejudice is to _________ as discrimination is to ____________.

 a) stereotype; conflict
 b) attitude; behaviours
 c) thought; competition
 d) in-group; out-group
A

b) attitude; behaviours

109
Q

UNIT 10

Behaviours that benefit others, such as helping, cooperation, and sympathy are called _______________.

A

prosocial behaviour

110
Q

UNIT 10

People are more likely to receive help if ….

A

they are physically attractive, if they are perceived by potential helpers as similar to them, and if they are not considered responsible for their plight. Potential helpers are more likely to help if they have specialized training in first aid or police work, if they are not in a hurry, if they have been exposed to a helpful model, if they are in a positive mood and if the weather is good.

111
Q

UNIT 10
The social learning theory of aggression emphasizes all of the following except:

 a) aggressive responses are learned from the family, the subculture, and the media.
 b) aggressive responses are learned through modelling.
 c) most aggression results from frustration.
 d) when aggressive responses are reinforced, they are more likely to continue.
A

c) most aggression results from frustration.

112
Q

UNIT 10

Define frustration

A

Frustration: Interference with the attainment of a goal or the blocking of an impulse.

113
Q

UNIT 10

Define The frustration-aggression hypothesis.

A

Frustration-Aggression Hypothesis: hypothesis that frustration produces aggression.

114
Q

UNIT 8

Developmental psychology is the study of?

A

How we grow, develop, and change throughout the lifespan.

115
Q 
UNIT 8 
In humans, genes are located on how many pairs of chromosomes
     a) 22
     b) 23
     c) 44
     d) 46
A

B-23

116
Q

UNIT 8
The 23rd pair of chromosome &
It carries the genes that determine one’s sex and primary and secondary sex characteristics

A

Sex Chromosome

117
Q

UNIT 8

A gene that is expressed in the individual

A

Dominant trait (gene)

118
Q

UNIT 8

Chromosome

A

Rod-shaped structures, found in the nuclei of body cells, that contain all the genes and carry all the hereditary information

119
Q

UNIT 8
Within the chromosomes, the segments of DNA that are the basic units for the transmission of hereditary traits. &
The biological blueprint that determines and directs the transmission of all of our heredity traits

A

Gene

120
Q

UNIT 8

Genes are segments of this located on each of the chromosomes

A

DNA

121
Q

UNIT 8
A gene that will not be expressed if paired with a dominant gene, but will be expressed if paired with another recessive gene

A

Recessive trait (gene)

122
Q 
UNIT 8
 Twenty-two pairs of chromosomes are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and the 23rd pair is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
     a) complete; partial
     b) sex chromosomes; autosomes
     c) autosomes; sex chromosomes
     d) X;Y
A

c) autosomes; sex chromosomes

123
Q 
UNIT 8
  Sperm cells and the mature egg cells each have \_\_\_\_\_\_ single chromosomes.
     a) 22
     b) 23
     c) 44
     d) 4
A

b) 23

124
Q

UNIT 8
WHAT ARE harmful agents in the prenatal environment that can have a negative impact on prenatal development and even cause birth defects?

A

Teratogens

125
Q

UNIT 8
Although physical abnormalities are always possible, exposure to risks during the ______ trimester of pregnancy-the fourth, fifth, and sixth months-is likely to result in _________ and ___________ impairment.

A

Although physical abnormalities are always possible, exposure to risks during the SECOND trimester of pregnancy-the fourth, fifth, and sixth months-is likely to result in INTELLECTUAL and SOCIAL impairment.

126
Q

UNIT 8

Many drugs cross the _________ and directly affect the embryo or fetus.

A

Many drugs cross the PLACENTAL BARRIER and directly affect the embryo or fetus.

127
Q

UNIT 8
WHAT ARE THE negative outcomes for the developing infant linked to the following:
HEROIN, COCAINE & CRACK

A

miscarriage, prematurity, low birth weight, physical defects and fetal death.

128
Q

UNIT 8
WHAT ARE THE negative outcomes for the developing infant linked to the following:
ALCOHOL

A

altered brain development, fetal alcohol spectrum disorder, mentally disabled, abnormally small heads with wide-set eyes, short nose and other physical abnormalities; hyperactivity, behavioural abnormalities

129
Q

UNIT 8
WHAT ARE THE negative outcomes for the developing infant linked to the following:
SMOKING

A

premature, low birth weight, spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, infant mortality, sudden infant death syndrome.

130
Q

UNIT 8
WHAT ARE THE negative outcomes for the developing infant linked to the following:
RUBELLA

A

physical and mental abnormalities

131
Q

UNIT 8

THE TERM FOR AN newborn infant up to one month old.

A

Neonate

132
Q

UNIT 8
Inborn, unlearned, automatic responses to certain environmental stimuli (swallowing, coughing, blinking, sucking, grasping)

A

Reflexes

133
Q

UNIT 8
Which of the following explains the importance of reflexes?

a) Reflexes are merely remnants of our evolutionary past and have little importance.
b) Reflexes provide ready-made behaviours that ensure the survival of newborns.
c) Reflexes govern all our behaviour.
d) Reflexes exist due to learned behaviours, and thus they indicate how well our learning mechanisms are working.

A

b) Reflexes provide ready-made behaviours that ensure the survival of newborns.

134
Q

UNIT 8

Some of the changes in physical and motor development are due to _________ and others are due to ___________ .

A

Some of the changes in physical and motor development are due to LEARNING and others are due to MATURATION .

135
Q

UNIT 8

What are secondary sex characteristics AND GIVE TWO EXAMPLES?

A

Those physical characteristics not directly involved in reproduction but distinguishing the mature male from the mature females

  • Girls: breasts and hips; boys: voice deepens and facial and chest hair.
136
Q

UNIT 8

_________formulated a comprehensive theory that systematically describes and explains how intellect develops

A

JEAN PIAGET formulated a comprehensive theory that systematically describes and explains how intellect develops.

137
Q

UNIT 8

Each stage of cognitive development reflects a__________________________

A

Each stage of cognitive development reflects a QUALITATIVELY DIFFERENT WAY A REASONING AND UNDERSTANDING THE WORLD.

138
Q

UNIT 8
Which statement reflects Piaget’s thinking about cognitive stages?

a) All people pass through the same stages but not necessarily in the same order.
b) All people progress through the stages in the same order but not at the same rate.
c) All people progress through the stages in the same order and at the same rate.
d) Very bright children sometimes skip stages.

A

b) All people progress through the stages in the same order but not at the same rate.

139
Q

UNIT 8

According to Piaget, cognitive development begins with a few basic

A

According to Piaget, cognitive development begins with a few basic SCHEMAS

140
Q

UNIT 8

DEFINE schemas:

A

schemas: Piaget’s term for a cognitive structure or concept used to identify and interpret information.

141
Q

UNIT8

DEFINE ASSIMILATION:

A

The process by which new objects, events, experiences, or pieces of information are incorporated into existing schemas

142
Q

UNIT 8

DEFINE ACCOMODATION:

A

accommodation: The process by which existing schemas are modified and new schemas are created to incorporate new objects, events, experiences, or information.

143
Q

UNIT 8
Infants experience the world through their senses, actions, and body movements. A the end of this stage, toddlers develop the concept of object permanence and can mentally represent objects in their absence.

A

Sensorimotor BIRTH TO AGE 2

144
Q

UNIT 8
Children are able to represent objects and events mentally with words and images. They can engage in imaginary play, using one object to represent another. Their thinking is dominated by their perceptions, and they are unable to consider more than one characteristic of an object at the same time. Their thinking is egocentric–that is, they fail to consider the perspective of others.

A

Preoperational AGE 2 TO 7

145
Q

UNIT 8
Children at this stage become able to think logically in concrete situations. They acquire the concepts of conservation and reversibility, and can order objects in a series and classify them according to multiple dimensions.

A

Concrete Operational AGE 7 TO 11 OR 12

146
Q

UNIT 8
At this stage, adolescents learn to think logically in abstract situations, learn to test hypotheses systematically, and become interested in the world of ideas. Not all people attain ill formal operational thinking.

A

Formal Operational 11 OR 12 AND BEYOND

147
Q

The major achievement of the sensorimotor stage is the development of ___________ __________ , which is the ___________________________________________________________________.

A

The major achievement of the sensorimotor stage is the development of OBJECT PERMANENCE, which is the REALIZATION THAT OBJECTS (INCLUDING PEOPLE) CONTINUE TO EXIST EVEN WHEN THEY ARE OUT OF SIGHT.

148
Q

UNIT 8
Not all people attain full formal-operational thinking and those who do attain it usually apply it only in those areas where they are not proficient.

 a) True
 b) False
A

b) False

149
Q

UNIT 8
Every one of us is born into a society. To function effectively and comfortably within that society, we must come to know the patterns of behaviour that it considers desirable and appropriate. The process of learning socially acceptable behaviours, attitudes, and values is called_______

A

SOCIALIZATION

150
Q

UNIT 8
Which factor did Erikson not stress as playing a major role in an individual’s personality development:

a) the parents
b) the individual
c) the society
d) the genetic make-up of the individual

A

a) the parents

151
Q

UNIT 8

Erik Erikson proposed a theory that emphasizes the role of _______ ______ on human development throughout the lifespan

A

Erik Erikson proposed a theory that emphasizes the role of SOCIAL FORCES on human development throughout the lifespan

152
Q

UNIT 8
According to Erikson, if the basic conflict of a given stage is not resolved satisfactorily, the individual:

a) will not enter the next stage
b) will acquire the unhealthy basic attitude associated with the stage, which will adversely affect development at the next stage.
c) will be permanently damaged regardless of future experiences
d) will be fixed at that stage.

A

b) will acquire the unhealthy basic attitude associated with the stage, which will adversely affect development at the next stage

153
Q

UNIT 8
Erikson’s psychosocial stages of Development

Infant learns to trust or mistrust depending on the degree and regularity of care, love, and affection from mother or primary caregiver.

A

Trust vs. mistrust BIRTH TO 12 MTHS

154
Q

UNIT 8
Erikson’s psychosocial stages of Development

Children learn to express their will and independence, to exercise some control, and to make choices. I font, they experience shame and doubt.

A

Autonomy vs. shame and doubt AGE 1 TO 3

155
Q

UNIT 8
Erikson’s psychosocial stages of Development

Children begin to initiate activities, to plan and undertake tasks, and to enjoy developing motor and other abilities. If not allowed to initiate or if made to feel stupid and a nuisance, they may develop a sense of guilt.

A

Initiative vs. guilt AGE 3 TO 6

156
Q

UNIT 8
Erikson’s psychosocial stages of Development

Children develop industriousness and feel pride in accomplishing tasks, making things, and doing things. If not encouraged, or if rebuffed by parents and teachers, they may develop a sense of inferiority.

A

Industry vs. inferiority AGES 6 TO PUBERTY

157
Q

UNIT 8
Erikson’s psychosocial stages of Development

Adolescents must make the transition from childhood to adulthood, establish an identity, develop a sense of self, and consider a future occupational identity. Otherwise, role confusion can result.

A

Identity vs. role confusion ADOLESCENCE

158
Q

UNIT 8
Erikson’s psychosocial stages of Development

Young adults must develop intimacy–the ability to share with, care for, and commit themselves to another person. Avoiding intimacy brings a sense of isolation.

A

Intimacy vs. isolation YOUNG ADULTHOOD

159
Q

UNIT 8
Erikson’s psychosocial stages of Development

Middle-aged people must find some way of contributing to the development of the next generation. Failing this, t hey may become self-absorbed, personally impoverished, and reach a point of stagnation.

A

Generativity vs. stagnation MIDDLE ADULTHOOD

160
Q

UNIT 8
Erikson’s psychosocial stages of Development

Individuals review their lives. If they are satisfied and feel a sense of accomplishment, ego integrity will result. If dissatisfied, they will sink into despair.

A

Ego integrity vs. despair LATE ADULTHOOD

161
Q

UNIT 8

Virtually all infants will develop an attachment to a caregiver by age ___

A

2

162
Q

UNIT 8
What are the four attachment patterns as proposed by Mary Ainsworth in her classic study of mother-child attachment?

a) tight, loose, fragmented, solid
b) reserved, fearful, schema, conceptual
c) dependent, independent, marginal, main
d) secure, resistant, avoidant, disorganized/disoriented

A

d) secure, resistant, avoidant, disorganized/disoriented

163
Q

UNIT 8
Ainsworth found that most infants had a secure attachment.

 a) True
 b) False
A

a) True

164
Q 
UNIT 8
Diane Baumrind has identified three parenting styles:
a) Authoritarian Parents
b) Authoritative Parents
c) Permissive Parents
DEFINE AUTHORITARIAN:
A

Authoritarian Parents: make the rules, expect unquestioned obedience from their children, punish misbehaviour and value obedience to authority.

165
Q 
UNIT 8
Diane Baumrind has identified three parenting styles:
a) Authoritarian Parents
b) Authoritative Parents
c) Permissive Parents
DEFINE Authoritative Parents
A

Authoritative Parents: set high but realistic and reasonable standards, enforce limits, and at the same time encourage open communication and independence.

166
Q 
UNIT 8
Diane Baumrind has identified three parenting styles:
a) Authoritarian Parents
b) Authoritative Parents
c) Permissive Parents
DEFINE Permissive Parents
A

Permissive Parents: Although rather warm and supportive, make few rules or demands and usually do not enforce those that are made. Allow children to make their own decisions and control their own behaviour.

167
Q

UNIT 8

Many people consider middle age the prime of life. Why is this so?

A

Life satisfaction in older adults appears to be most strongly related to good health, as well as to a feeling of control over one’s life.

168
Q

UNIT 8

Name and describe each of the five stages that people go through in coming to terms with death.

A

Denial and isolation: most patients feel shock and disbelief.

Anger: marked by envy of those who are young and healthy, and resentment. Why me? is the question that rages inside

Bargaining: person attempts to postpone death for a specific period of time in return for “good behaviour.” If i’m good, i’ll live ‘til spring.

Depression: brings a great sense of loss–physical loss, loss of ability to work, loss of the role of mother, father, spouse. depression over past losses and over impending losses.

Acceptance: Neither depressed nor angry, they stop struggling against death and are able to contemplate its coming without fear or despair.

Intro to Psych (4 decks)

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