Unit 11 & 12 Lindsay, Elaina 13 & Rachel 14 Test 4 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What are the five main criteria for determining psychological disorders?

A

a) Is the behaviour considered strange within the person’s own culture?
b) Does the behaviour cause personal distress?
c) Is the behaviour maladaptive?
d) Is the person a danger to self or others?
e) Is the person legally responsible for his or her acts?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the five perspectives that attempt to explain the causes of psychological disorders?

A

1) Biological perspective-symptom of an underlying physical disorder caused by structural or biochemical abnormality in the brain, by genetic inheritance, or by infection.
2) Psychodynamic Perspective-stem from early childhood experiences; unresolved unconscious sexual or agressive conflicts; and/or imbalance among id, ego, and superego
3) Learning Perspective- abnormal thoughts feelings, and behaviours are learned and sustained like any other behaviours, or there is failure to learn appropriate behaviour
4) Cognitive Perspective-faulty and negative thinking can cause psychological disorders
5) Humanistic Perspective-result from blocking of the normal tendency toward self-actualization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the definition of DSM-IV-TR?

A

The Diagnostic & Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders- Describes about 300 mental disorders & the symptoms that must be present for diagnosing each disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the difference between psychosis and neurosis?

A

Psychosis-A severe psychological disorder, sometimes requiring hospitalization, in which one typically loses contact with reality, suffers delusions and/or
hallucinations, and has a seriously impaired ability to function in everyday life.
Neurosis-a now obsolete term, for a disorder causing personal distress and some impairment in functioning, but not causing one to lose contact with
reality or to violate important social norms .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe anxiety disorders:

A
Disorders characterized by anxiety and avoidance behaviour
EG.
Panic Disorder
Social Phobia
Obsessive-Compulsive disorder
PTSD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe somatoform disorders:

A
Disorders in which physical symptoms are present that are psychological in origin rather than due to a medical condition
EG.
Hypochondriasis
Pain Disorder
Conversion
Disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe dissociative disorders:

A
Disorders in which one handles stress or conflict by forgetting important personal information or one's whole identity
EG.
Dissociative amnesia
Dissociative fugue
Dissociative identity disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe schizophrenia & other psychotic disorders:

A
Disorders characterized by the presence of psychotic symptoms including hallucinations
EG.
Schizophrenia, disorganized type
Schizophrenia, paranoid type
Schizophrenia, catatonic type
Delusional disorder, jealous type
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe mood disorders:

A

Disorders characterized by periods of extreme or prolonged depression or mania, or both
EG.
Major depressive disorder
Bipolar disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe personality disorders:

A

Disorders characterized by long-standing, inflexible, maladaptive patterns of behaviour beginning
early in life and causing personal distress or problems in social and occupational functioning
EG.
Antisocial personality disorder
Histrionic personality disorder
Narcissistic personality disorder
Borderline personality disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe sexual and gender identify substance related disorders?

A
Disorders in which undesirable behavioural changes result from substance abuse, dependence, or intoxication
EG.
Alcohol abuse
Cocaine abuse
Cannabis dependence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe disorders usually diagnosed in infancy, childhood & adolescence:

A
Disorders that include mental disability, learning disorders, communication disorders,
pervasive developmental disorders, attention-deficit and disruptive behaviour disorders, tic
disorders, and elimination disorders
EG.
Conduct disorder
Autism
Tourette syndrome
Stuttering
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe sleep disorders:

A
Disorders including dyssomnias and parasomnias
EG.
Primary insomnia
Narcolepsy
Sleep terror disorder
Sleepwalking disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe eating disorders:

A

Disorders characterized by severe disturbances in eating behaviour
EG.
Anorexia nervosa
Bulimia nervosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Humanistic Perspective?

A)result from blocking of the normal tendency toward self-actualization

B)faulty and negative thinking can cause psychological disorders

C)stem from early childhood experiences; unresolved unconscious sexual or agressive conflicts; and/or imbalance among id, ego, and superego

D)abnormal thoughts feelings, and behaviours are learned and sustained like any other behaviours, or there is failure to learn appropriate behaviour

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cognitive Perspective?

A)result from blocking of the normal tendency toward self-actualization

B)faulty and negative thinking can cause psychological disorders

C)stem from early childhood experiences; unresolved unconscious sexual or agressive conflicts; and/or imbalance among id, ego, and superego

D)abnormal thoughts feelings, and behaviours are learned and sustained like any other behaviours, or there is failure to learn appropriate behaviour

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Psychodynamic Perspective?

A)result from blocking of the normal tendency toward self-actualization

B)stem from early childhood experiences; unresolved unconscious sexual or agressive conflicts; and/or imbalance among id, ego, and superego

C)faulty and negative thinking can cause psychological disorders

D)abnormal thoughts feelings, and behaviours are learned and sustained like any other behaviours, or there is failure to learn appropriate behaviour

E)Biological perspective-symptom of an underlying physical disorder caused by structural or biochemical abnormality in the brain, by genetic inheritance, or by infection.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Biological perspective?
A)result from blocking of the normal tendency toward self-actualization

B)stem from early childhood experiences; unresolved unconscious sexual or agressive conflicts; and/or imbalance among id, ego, and superego

C)faulty and negative thinking can cause psychological disorders

D)abnormal thoughts feelings, and behaviours are learned and sustained like any other behaviours, or there is failure to learn appropriate behaviour

E)symptom of an underlying physical disorder caused by structural or biochemical abnormality in the brain, by genetic inheritance, or by infection.

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Learning Perspective?
A)result from blocking of the normal tendency toward self-actualization

B)stem from early childhood experiences; unresolved unconscious sexual or agressive conflicts; and/or imbalance among id, ego, and superego

C)faulty and negative thinking can cause psychological disorders

D)abnormal thoughts feelings, and behaviours are learned and sustained like any other behaviours, or there is failure to learn appropriate behaviour

E)symptom of an underlying physical disorder caused by structural or biochemical abnormality in the brain, by genetic inheritance, or by infection.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

DEFINE PERSONALITY

A

A person’s unique and stable pattern of characteristics and behaviours is his/her personality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

3 LEVELS OF CONSCIOUSNESS

A
  1. Preconscious
  2. Conscious
  3. Unconscious
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

DEFINE Preconscious

A

It is very much like the present-day concept of long-term memory.

The information that resides here can easily be brought to consciousness.

It contains all the memories, feelings, experiences, and perceptions that we are not consciously thinking about at the moment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

DEFINE CONSCIOUS

A

It consists of whatever we are aware of at any given moment - a thought, a feeling, a sensation, or a memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

DEFINE UNCONSCIOUS

A

The most important of the three levels.

Freud believed it to be the primary motivating force of our behaviour.

It holds memories that once were conscious but were so unpleasant or anxiety-provoking that they were repressed (involuntarily removed from consciousness).

It contains all of the instincts (aggressive and sexual), wishes, and desires that have never been allowed into consciousness.

Freud traced the roots of psychological disorders to impulses and repressed memories found here.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

EXPLAIN THE CONCEPT OF PERSONALITY AS PROPOSED BY FREUD

A

Freud proposed a new conception of personality that contained the following three systems: the ID, the EGO, and the SUPEREGO.

The part of the personality that would make you want to eat, drink and be merry is your: ID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

DEFINE DEFENCE MECHANISM

A
  • technique used to defend against anxiety and to maintain self-esteem, but it involves self-deception and the distortion of internal and external reality .
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

8 TYPES OF DEFENCE MECHANISM

A
  1. repression
  2. projection
  3. denial
  4. rationalization
  5. regression
  6. reaction formation
  7. displacement
  8. sublimation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

EXPLAIN WHY FREUD CONSIDERED THE PSYCHOSEXUAL STAGES TO BE IMPORTANT IN PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT

A

The sex instinct, Freud said, is the most important factor influencing personality; but it does not just suddenly appear full-blown at puberty. It is present at birth and then develops through a series of psychosexual stages. Each stage centres on a particular erogenous zone, a part of the body that provides pleasurable sensations and around which a conflict arises.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

5 PSYCHOSEXUAL STAGES

A
ORAL
ANAL
PHALLIC
LATENCY
GENITAL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

DEFINE ORAL STAGE

A

ages: birth to 12-18 months

erogenous zone: mouth

conflicts/experiences: weaning

adult traits: excessive optimism, gullibility, dependency, pessimism, passivity, hostility, sarcasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

DEFINE ANAL STAGE

A

ages: 12-28 months

erogenous zone: anus

conflicts/experiences: toilet training

adult traits: excessive cleanliness, orderliness, stinginess; or messiness, rebelliousness, destructiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

DEFINE PHALLIC STAGE

A

ages: 3 to 5-6 years

erogenous zone: genitals

conflicts/experiences: oedipal conflict, sexual curiosity, masturbation

adult traits: flirtatiousness, vanity, promiscuity; or pride, chastity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

DEFINE LATENCY STAGE

A

ages: 5-6 years

erogenous zone: none

conflicts/experiences: period of sexual calm; interest in school, hobbies, play, sports, and same-sex friends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

DEFINE GENITAL STAGE

A

ages: puberty onward

erogenous zone: genitals

conflicts/experiences: revival of sexual interests; establishment of mature sexual relationships

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

DEFINE TRAIT

A

stable and consistent personal characteristic that is used to describe or explain personality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

DEFINE TRAIT THEORIES

A

are attempts to explain personality and differences between people in terms of personal characteristics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

DEFINE CARDINAL TRAIT

A

Allport’s name for a personal quality that is so strong a part of a person’s personality that he or she may become identified with that trait. “so pervasive and so outstanding in a life that…almost every act seems traceable to its influence”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

DEFINE CENTRAL TRAIT

A

Allport’s name for the type of trait you would mention in writing a letter of recommendation. “mention in writing a careful letter of recommendation”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

DEFINE SURFACE TRAIT

A

Cattell’s name for observable qualities of personality, such as those used to describe a friend.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

DEFINE SOURCE TRAIT

A

Cattell’s name for the traits that underlie the surface traits, make up the most basic personality structure, and cause behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

DEFINE THE 5-FACTOR THEORY OF PERSONALITY

A

the most talked-about theory of personality is the five-factor theory, also known as the “ Big Five “

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

LIST THE FACTORS IN THE 5-FACTOR THEORY OF PERSONALITY

A
  1. Extraversion
  2. Neuroticism
  3. Conscientiousness
  4. Agreeableness
  5. Openness to Experience
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

B.F. SINNER’S VIEWS ON PERSONALITY

A

According to Skinner, the of the following ideas about personality was acceptable: behaviour is caused by forces outside the person and based upon past rewards and punishments.

He simply described the variables in the environment that shape an individual’s observable behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

EXPLAIN ALBERT BANDURA’S VIEW ON PERSONALITY

A

concept that personal/cognitive factors, our behaviour, and the external environment all influence and are influenced by each other.

One of the personal/cognitive factors Bandura considers especially important is self-efficacy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

DEFINE SELF-ACTUALIZATION

A
  • means developing to one’s fullest potential. A healthy person is one who is always growing and becoming all that he or she can be .
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

PROVIDE MASLOW’S DESCRIPTION OF A SELF-ACTUALIZER

A

Maslow’s characteristics/traits of self-actualizers:

  • accurate in perceiving reality
  • comfortable with life
  • have a mission to accomplish or the need to devote their life to some larger good
  • tend not to depend on external authority or on other people.
  • autonomous and independent.
  • feel a strong fellowship with humanity
  • good sense of humour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

DEFINE CARL ROGERS’ PERSPECTIVE ON THE FULLY FUNCTIONING PERSON

A

Carl Rogers viewed human nature as basically good.

If left to develop naturally, he thought, people would be happy and psychologically healthy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

EXPLAIN THE DEGREE TO WHICH PERSONALITY IS INHERITED

A

Many behavioural geneticists believe that personality may be as much as 40-50% inherited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

DESCRIBE PERSONALITY ASSESSMENT TECHNIQUES - DIRECT OBSERVATION

A

Psychologists use observation in personality assessment and evaluation in a variety of settings, including hospitals, clinics, schools, and workplaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

DESCRIBE PERSONALITY ASSESSMENT TECHNIQUES - STRUCTURED AND UNSTRUCTURED INTERVIEWS

A

They use interviews to help diagnose and treat patients. Interviewers consider not only a person’s answers but also tone of voice, speech, mannerisms, gestures, and general appearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

DESCRIBE PERSONALITY ASSESSMENT TECHNIQUES - INVENTORY METHOD

A

A paper and pencil test with questions about a person’s thoughts, feelings, and behaviours, w which measures several dimensions of personality and can be scored according to a standard procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

DESCRIBE PERSONALITY ASSESSMENT TECHNIQUES - PROJECTIVE TESTS

A

personality test consisting of inkblots, drawings of ambiguous human situations, or incomplete sentences for which there are no obvious correct or incorrect responses.

people respond by projecting their own inner thoughts, feelings, fears, or conflicts onto the test material, just as a moving projector projects film images onto a screen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Define Psychotherapy

A

The treatment for all psychological disorders that uses psychological rather than biological means and primarily involves conversations between patient and therapist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Define Insight Therapies.

A

Any type of psychotherapy based on the notion that psychological well-being depends on self-understanding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Psychoanalysis

A

The psychotherapy that uses free association (reveals whatever thoughts and images come to mind), analysis of resistance, dream analysis, and transference to uncover repressed memories, impulses, and conflicts thought to cause psychological disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Humanistic Therapy

A

Based on a more optimistic and hopeful picture of human nature and human potential.

  • Individuals are viewed as unique and basically self-determining
  • Encourages personal growth
  • teaches clients how to fulfill their potential and take responsibility for their behaviour and what they have become in life.
  • Focus on current relationships and experiences
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Person Centered Therapy

A

A non-directive, humanistic therapy in which the therapist creates a warm, accepting atmosphere, thus freeing clients to be themselves and releasing their natural tendency toward positive growth. Developed by Carl Rogers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Gestalt therapy

A

A therapy originated by Fritz Perls that emphasizes the importance of clients’ fully experiencing, in the present moment, their
feelings, thoughts, and actions and then taking responsibility for their feelings and behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Directive Therapy

A

An approach to therapy in which the therapist takes an active role in determining the course of therapy sessions and provides answers and suggestions to the patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Behaviour Therapy

A

A treatment approach that employs the principles of operant conditioning, classical conditioning, and/or observant learning theory to eliminate inappropriate or maladaptive behaviours and replace them with more adaptive responses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Classical Conditioning-based Therapies

A

A neutral stimulus is paired with either a very positive or a very negative stimulus. After conditioning, our strong feeling toward the positive or negative stimulus transfers to the original, neutral stimulus.
Therapies based on classical conditioning can be used to rid people of their fears and other undesirable behaviours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Participant Modelling

A

A behaviour therapy in which an appropriate response is modelled in graduated steps and the client attempts each step, while encouraged and supported by the therapist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Cognitive Therapies

A

Any therapy designed to change maladaptive thoughts and behaviour, based on the assumption that maladaptive behaviour can result from one’s irrational thoughts, beliefs, and ideas.

64
Q

Rational-emotive therapy

A

A directive, confrontational psychotherapy designed to challenge and modify the client’s irrational beliefs, which are thought to cause personal distress. Developed by Albert Ellis.

65
Q

Cognitive Behavioural Therapy

A

A therapy based on the belief that changing how a person thinks about a situation can result in changes in how a person feels and behaves in that situation, even if the situation itself does not change.

66
Q

(3) Main Biological Therapies

A

(1) Drug Therapy - most frequently used
(2) Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)
(3) Psycho-surgery - strictly to alleviate serious psychological disorders.

67
Q

Clinical Psychologist

A

A psychologist, usually with a Ph.D., trained in the diagnosis, treatment, and/or research of psychological and behavioural disorders.

68
Q

Psychiatrist

A

A medical doctor with a specialty in the diagnosis and treatment of mental disorders; can prescribe drugs and other biological
treatments and provide psychotherapy.

69
Q

Psychoanalyst

A

A professional, usually a psychiatrist, with specialized training in psychoanalysis.

70
Q

Counselling Psychologist

A

Usually has a doctorate (Ph.D.) in clinical or counselling psychology or a doctor of education degree with a major in counselling.

71
Q

Counsellor

A

Typically has a master’s degree in psychology or counsellor education; assists students with personal problems, and offers
assistance in academic/vocational issues.

72
Q

Psychiatric Social Worker

A

Usually has a master’s degree in social work with specialized training in psychiatric problems, and may practice psychotherapy.

73
Q

UNIT 14
Medication that relieves the symptoms of schizophrenia is thought to work by blocking the action of:

 a) serotonin
 b) dopamine
 c) norepinephrine
 d) epinephrine
A

b) dopamine

74
Q

UNIT 13

The earliest explanation of psychological disorders was that disturbed people were ______________________

A

The earliest explanation of psychological disorders was that disturbed people were POSSESSED BY EVIL SPIRITS OR DEMONS

75
Q

UNIT 13
It is relatively easy to differentiate normal behaviour from abnormal behaviour.

 a) True
 b) False
A

b) False

76
Q

UNIT 13
Match the letter representing the perspective with its suggested cause of abnormal behaviour.

a) Biological
b) Cognitive
c) Humanistic
d) Learning
e) Psychodynamic

(i) Faulty Learning
(ii) Unconscious, unresolved conflicts.
(iii) Blocking of the natural tendency toward self-actualization.
(iv) Genetic inheritance or biochemical or structural abnormalities in the brain.
(v) Faulty thinking

A

__D_ (i) Faulty Learning
__E_ (ii) Unconscious, unresolved conflicts.
__C_ (iii) Blocking of the natural tendency toward self-actualization.
__A_ (iv) Genetic inheritance or biochemical or structural abnormalities in the brain.
__B_ (v) Faulty thinking

77
Q

UNIT 13
WHAT IS THE now obsolete term, for a disorder causing personal distress and some impairment in functioning, but not causing one to lose contact with reality or to violate important social norms .

A

Neurosis

78
Q

UNIT 13

DEFINE THE TERM PSYCHOSIS:

A

A severe psychological disorder, sometimes requiring hospitalization, in which one typically loses contact with reality, suffers delusions and/or hallucinations, and has a seriously impaired ability to function in everyday life.

79
Q

UNIT 13
Psychosis, like neurosis, is an obsolete term and is never used by mental health professionals.

 a) True
 b) False
A

b) False

80
Q

UNIT 13
Match the letter representing the psychological disorder with its example.

 a) Agoraphobia
 b) Generalized anxiety disorder
 c) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
 d) Panic disorder
 e) Social phobia
 f) Specific phobia

(i) Renee refuses to eat in front of others for fear her hand will shake.
(ii) Juan is excessively anxious about his health and his job, even though there is no concrete reason for it.
(iii) Rhonda has been housebound for four years.
(iv) Jackson gets hysterical when a dog approaches him.
(v) Ruth has incapacitating attacks of anxiety that come over her suddenly.
(vi) Jerry repeatedly checks his doors, windows, and appliances before he goes to bed.

A

__E_ (i) Renee refuses to eat in front of others for fear her hand will shake.
__B_ (ii) Juan is excessively anxious about his health and his job, even though there is no concrete reason for it.
__A_ (iii) Rhonda has been housebound for four years.
__F_ (iv) Jackson gets hysterical when a dog approaches him.
__D_ (v) Ruth has incapacitating attacks of anxiety that come over her suddenly.
__C_ (vi) Jerry repeatedly checks his doors, windows, and appliances before he goes to bed.

81
Q

UNIT 13
Define/describe the following somatoform and dissociative disorders:

hypochondriasis:

A

A somatoform disorder in which persons are preoccupied with their health and convinced they have some serious disorder despite reassurance from doctors to the contrary.

82
Q

UNIT 13

Define/describe the following somatoform and

dissociative disorders:

dissociative amnesia

A

A dissociative disorder in which there is a loss of memory for limited periods in one’s life or for one’s entire personal identity.

83
Q

UNIT 13
Define/describe the following somatoform and dissociative disorders:

conversion disorder

A

A somatoform disorder in which a loss of motor or sensory functioning in some part of the body has no physical cause but solves some psychological problem.

84
Q

UNIT 13
Define/describe the following somatoform and dissociative disorders:

dissociative identity disorder:

A

A dissociative disorder in which two or more distinct personalities occur in the same individual, each taking over at different times; also called multiple personality.

85
Q

UNIT 13
Dissociative disorders are psychological in origin.

 a) True
 b) False
A

a) True

86
Q

UNIT 13

Differentiate between positive symptoms and negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

A
  • Positive: hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking and speech, grossly disorganized or bizarre behaviour or inappropriate affect.
  • Negative: Social withdrawal, apathy, loss of motivation, lack of goal-directed activity, very limited speech, slow movements, poor hygiene, poor problem-solving abilities and distorted sense of time.
87
Q

UNIT 13

Name and briefly describe the four subtypes of schizophrenia

A

a) Catatonic: characterized by extreme stillness or stupor and/or periods of great agitation and excitement; patients may assume an unusual posture and remain in it for long periods.
b) Disorganized: Most serious type of schizophrenia, marked by extreme social withdrawal, hallucinations, delusions, silliness, inappropriate laughter, grotesque mannerisms, and bizarre behaviour.
c) Paranoid: Characterized by delusions of grandeur or persecution.
d) Undifferentiated: A catch-all category; marked by symptoms of schizophrenia that do not conform to the other types or that conform to more than one type.

88
Q

UNIT 13

WHAT ARE SOME of the suggested causes of schizophrenia?

A
  • Genetic Inheritance

* Excessive Dopamine Activity

89
Q

UNIT 13
Define the following:

Major depressive disorder:

A

Major depressive disorder: A mood disorder characterized by feelings of great sadness, despair, guilt, worthlessness, and hopelessness, and in extreme cases, suicidal intentions.

90
Q

UNIT 13
Define the following:
Seasonal affective disorder

A

Seasonal affective disorder: A mood disorder in which depression comes and goes with the seasons.

91
Q

UNIT 13
Define the following:
Bipolar disorder:

A

Bipolar disorder: A mood disorder in which manic episodes alternate with periods of depression, usually with relatively normal periods in between.

92
Q

UNIT 13
Define the following:
Manic episode:

A

Manic episode: A period of extreme elation, euphoria, and hyperactivity, often accompanied by delusions of grandeur and by hostility if activity is blocked.

93
Q

UNIT 13

What are some of the suggested causes of major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder?

A
  • Genetic Inheritance
  • Serotonin and norepinephrine
  • Cognitive Perspective
94
Q

The earliest explanation of psychological disorders was that disturbed people were _____________________________________ .

A

possessed by evil spirits or demons

95
Q

It is relatively easy to differentiate normal behaviour from abnormal behaviour.

 a) True
 b) False
A

f

96
Q

CAUSE OF Faulty Learning

A

LEARNING

97
Q

CAUSE OF Unconscious, unresolved conflicts.

A

Psychodynamic

98
Q

CAUSE OF Blocking of the natural tendency toward self-actualization.

A

HUMANISTIC

99
Q

CAUSE OF Genetic inheritance or biochemical or structural abnormalities in the brain.

A

BIOLOGICAL

100
Q

CAUSE OF Faulty thinking

A

COGNITIVE

101
Q

In 1952, the American Psychiatric Association (APA) published a diagnostic system for describing and classifying _______________ disorders . In 1994, the APA published its most recent edition - the ______________________________________ (fourth edition) which was revised again in 2000 and is now commonly referred to as the _____________ . It describes about _______ specific psychological disorders and lists the criteria for _______________ them.

A

PSYCHOLOGICAL

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders

DSM-IV-TR

300

diagnosing

102
Q

_________________, a now obsolete term, for a disorder causing personal distress and some impairment in functioning, but not causing one to lose contact with reality or to violate important social norms .

A

Neurosis

103
Q

Psychosis, like neurosis, is an obsolete term and is never used by mental health professionals.

 a) True
 b) False
A

F

104
Q

DEFINITION: A generalized feeling of apprehension, fear, or tension that may be associated with a particular object or situation or may be free-floating, not associated with anything specific.

A

ANXIETY

105
Q

DEFINITION: A severe psychological disorder characterized by loss of contact with reality, hallucinations, delusions, inappropriate or flat affect, some disturbance in thinking, social withdrawal, and/or bizarre behaviour.

A

SCHIZOPHRENIA

106
Q

DEFINITION: A sensory perception in the absence of any external sensory stimulus; an imaginary sensation

A

HALLUCINATION

107
Q

DEFINITION: A false belief, not generally shared by others in the culture, that cannot be changed despite strong evidence to the contrary.

A

DELUSION

108
Q

DEFINITION: A persistent or recurrent problem that causes marked distress and interpersonal difficulty that may involve any or some combination of the following: sexual desire, sexual arousal, or the pleasure associated with sex or orgasm.

A

SEXUAL DYSFUNCTION

109
Q

DEFINITION: Disorders characterized by a problem accepting one’s identity as male or female.

A

GENDER IDENTITY DISORDER

110
Q

THIS IS AN EXAMPLE OF WHAT DISORDER? Renee refuses to eat in front of others for fear her hand will shake.

A

Social phobia

111
Q

THIS IS AN EXAMPLE OF WHAT DISORDER? Juan is excessively anxious about his health and his job, even though there is no concrete reason for it.

A

Generalized anxiety disorder

112
Q

THIS IS AN EXAMPLE OF WHAT DISORDER?Rhonda has been housebound for four years.

A

Agoraphobia

113
Q

THIS IS AN EXAMPLE OF WHAT DISORDER? Jackson gets hysterical when a dog approaches him.

A

Specific phobia

114
Q

THIS IS AN EXAMPLE OF WHAT DISORDER? Ruth has incapacitating attacks of anxiety that come over her suddenly.

A

Panic disorder

115
Q

THIS IS AN EXAMPLE OF WHAT DISORDER? Jerry repeatedly checks his doors, windows, and appliances before he goes to bed.

A

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

116
Q

DEFINITION: A somatoform disorder in which persons are preoccupied with their health and convinced they have some serious disorder despite reassurance from doctors to the contrary.

A

hypochondriasis

117
Q

DEFINITION: A somatoform disorder in which a loss of motor or sensory functioning in some part of the body has no physical cause but solves some psychological problem

A

conversion disorder

118
Q

DEFINITION: A dissociative disorder in which there is a loss of memory for limited periods in one’s life or for one’s entire personal identity

A

dissociative amnesia

119
Q

DEFINITION: A dissociative disorder in which two or more distinct personalities occur in the same individual, each taking over at different times; also called multiple personality.

A

dissociative identity disorder

120
Q

Dissociative disorders are psychological in origin.

 a) True
 b) False
A

T

121
Q

DEFINITION: A mood disorder characterized by feelings of great sadness, despair, guilt, worthlessness, and hopelessness, and in extreme cases, suicidal intentions.

A

Major depressive disorder:

122
Q

DEFINITION: A mood disorder in which depression comes and goes with the seasons.

A

Seasonal affective disorder

123
Q

DEFINITION: A mood disorder in which manic episodes alternate with periods of depression, usually with relatively normal periods in between

A

Bipolar disorder

124
Q

DEFINITION: A period of extreme elation, euphoria, and hyperactivity, often accompanied by delusions of grandeur and by hostility if activity is blocked.

A

Manic episode

125
Q

______________ uses psychological rather than biological means to treat emotional and behavioural disorders; it usually involves a _____________ between the ___________ and the ____________

A

Psychotherapy

conversation

client

therapist

126
Q

Some forms of psychotherapy are collectively referred to as _____________ __________ because their assumption is that our psychological well-being depends on __________- understanding of our ________ thoughts, emotions, motives, behaviour, and coping mechanisms .

A

Insight therapies

self

own

127
Q

DEFINITION: a kind of psychotherapy that emphasizes the development of a sense of self-direction through choice, awareness, and acceptance of individual responsibility

A

Existential therapy

128
Q

DEFINITION: A therapy originated by Fritz Perls that emphasizes the importance of clients’ fully experiencing, in the present moment, their feelings, thoughts, and actions and then taking responsibility for their feelings and behaviour.

A

GESTALT THERAPY

129
Q

DEFINITION: An approach to therapy in which the therapist takes an active role in determining the course of therapy sessions and provides answers and suggestions to the patient.

A

DIRECTIVE THERAPY

130
Q

DEFINITION: A behaviour therapy, used to treat phobias, that involves training clients in deep muscle relaxation and then having them confront a graduated series of anxiety-producing situations until they can remain relaxed while confronting even the most feared situation.

A

SYSTEMATIC DESENSITIZATION

131
Q

DEFINITION: A behavioural therapy used to treat phobias; clients are exposed to the feared object or event for an extended period until their anxiety decreases.

A

FLOODING

132
Q

DEFINITION: A behaviour therapy used to rid clients of a harmful or socially undesirable behaviour by pairing it with a painful, sickening, or otherwise aversive stimulus until the behaviour becomes associated with pain and discomfort.

A

AVERSION THERAPY

133
Q

DEFINITION: A behaviour therapy in which an appropriate response is modelled in graduated steps and the client attempts each step, while encouraged and supported by the therapist.

A

PARTICIPANT MODELLING

134
Q

DEFINITION: A directive, confrontational psychotherapy designed to challenge and modify the client’s irrational beliefs, which are thought to cause personal distress; developed by Albert Ellis.

A

RATIONAL-EMOTIVE THERAPY

135
Q

DEFINITION: A therapy based on the belief that changing how a person thinks about a situation can result in changes in how a person feels and behaves in that situation, even if the situation itself does not change.

A

Cognitive behavioural therapy

136
Q

Professionals who favour the biological perspective - the view that psychological disorders are symptoms of underlying physical disorders - usually favour a ____________ therapy.

A

biological

137
Q

The favourite, by far, the most frequently used biological treatment is __________ therapy.

A

drug

138
Q

WHAT KIND OF DRUGS? Drugs that are prescribed to treat depression and some anxiety disorders.

A

ANTIDEPRESSANT DRUGS

139
Q

WHAT KIND OF DRUGS? Work against depression by blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin into the axon terminals, which enhances the action of these neurotransmitters in the synapses.

A

TRICYCLICS

140
Q

WHAT KIND OF DRUGS? Block the reuptake of the neurotransmitter serotonin, increasing its availability at the synapses in the brain.

A

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors

141
Q

WHAT KIND OF DRUGS? Blocking the action of an enzyme that breaks down norepinephrine and serotoning in the synapses, it increases the availability of norepinephrine and serotonin.

A

Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors

142
Q

What is lithium? How does it help patients with bipolar disorders?

A

A naturally occurring salt. It begins to calm the manic state within 5 to 10 days

143
Q

WHAT KIND OF DRUGS TREAT: panic disorder and agoraphobia

A

Antidepressant

144
Q

WHAT KIND OF DRUGS TREAT: schizophrenia

A

Antipsychotic

145
Q

WHAT KIND OF DRUGS TREAT: bipolar disorder

A

Lithium

146
Q

WHAT KIND OF DRUGS TREAT: depression

A

Antidepressant

147
Q

WHAT KIND OF DRUGS TREAT: obsessive-compulsive disorder

A

Antidepressant

148
Q

Medication that relieves the symptoms of schizophrenia is thought to work by blocking the action of:

 a) serotonin
 b) dopamine
 c) norepinephrine
 d) epinephrine
A

b) dopamine

149
Q

Minor tranquilizers known as _______________ include _____________, ____________, and ________________ .

A

benzodiazepines

diazepam

alprazolam

chlordiazeproxide

150
Q

minor tranquilizers used to treat _____________

A

ANXIETY

151
Q

For which disorder is ECT typically used?

A
  • Severe depression
152
Q

WHICH MENTAL HEALTH PROFESSION: Typically has a master’s degree in psychology or counsellor education; assists students with personal problems, and offers assistance in academic/vocational issues.

A

Counsellor

153
Q

WHICH MENTAL HEALTH PROFESSION: A psychologist, usually with a Ph.D., trained in the diagnosis, treatment, and/or research of psychological and behavioural disorders.

A

Clinical psychologist

154
Q

WHICH MENTAL HEALTH PROFESSION: A professional, usually a psychiatrist, with specialized training in psychoanalysis.

A

Psychoanalyst

155
Q

WHICH MENTAL HEALTH PROFESSION: A medical doctor with a specialty in the diagnosis and treatment of mental disorders; can prescribe drugs and other biological treatments and provide psychotherapy.

A

Psychiatrist

156
Q

WHICH MENTAL HEALTH PROFESSION: Usually has a doctorate (Ph.D.) in clinical or counselling psychology or a doctor of education degree with a major in counselling.

A

Counselling psychologist

157
Q

WHICH MENTAL HEALTH PROFESSION: Usually has a master’s degree in social work with specialized training in psychiatric problems, and may practice psychotherapy.

A

Psychiatric social worker