Unit 8 Chapter 14

Question 1

Which of the following is true, according to the medical model?
a. All physical illnesses have a psychological component.
b. Abnormal behaviour can be thought of as a disease.
c. All mental illnesses are caused by biological factors.
d. All mental illnesses can be treated using drugs

Answer 1

b. Abnormal behaviour can be thought of as a disease.

Question 2

Which of the following models goes with the concept that abnormal behaviour is the result of
a disease?
a. psychological
b. humanistic
c. medical
d. behavioura

Answer 2

c. medical

Question 3

. With which model of abnormal behaviour are the terms “mental illness” and
“psychopathology” most closely associated?
a. humanistic
b. learning
c. psychodynamic
d. medical

Answer 3

d. medical

Question 4

Dr. Cueto believes that psychological disorders can be diagnosed, treated, and possibly cured,
just like physical illnesses. Which of the following models of abnormal behaviour are
reflected by Dr. Cueto’s beliefs?
a. medical
b. psychodynamic
c. behavioural
d. deviance

Answer 4

a. medical

Question 5

Thomas Szasz criticized the medical model. What was his major complaint?
a. The model is not well understood by its practitioners.
b. Uniformity of behaviour patterns cannot be established from the medical model
viewpoint.
c. No evidence exists to support the efficiency of the medical model’s treatment
approaches.
d. Most abnormal behaviour reflects a moral judgment about what is socially
acceptable or unacceptable behaviour.

Answer 5

d. Most abnormal behaviour reflects a moral judgment about what is socially
acceptable or unacceptable behaviour.

Question 6

Complete the following analogy: Diagnosis is to etiology as ____________
a. what is to why.
b. when is to where.
c. why is to what.
d. where is to when

Answer 6

a. what is to why.

Question 7

. What is the term for the apparent causation and developmental history of an illness?
a. etiology
b. epidemiology
c. prognosis
d. diagnosis

Answer 7

a. etiology

Question 8

What is etiology?
a. study of mental illness
b. collection of a group of symptoms
c. projected course of a condition
d. apparent cause of a condition

Answer 8

d. apparent cause of a condition

Question 9

Dr. Underhill is reviewing the records from a patient who has just been referred for treatment.
He is carefully considering the symptoms that have been documented, and is attempting to
identify the type of psychological disorder the individual is most likely to have. What is Dr.
Underhill trying to create?
a. diagnosis
b. etiology
c. histology
d. prognosis

Answer 9

a. diagnosis

Question 10

What is a prognosis?
a. plan for treating an illness
b. distinction between two similar illnesses
c. forecast about the probable course of an illness
d. apparent causation and developmental history of an illness

Answer 10

c. forecast about the probable course of an illness

Question 11

Which of the following terms refers to the future course of a condition or illness?
a. etiological forecast
b. prognosis
c. foreclosure
d. diagnosis

Answer 11

b. prognosis

Question 12

. Dr. Wabush is asking her newest client questions about his life history. She is particularly
interested in any recent stressful events that the client may have experienced. What is Dr.
Wabush doing?
a. developing a prognosis for her client
b. trying to determine an appropriate diagnosis
c. engaging in naturalistic observation
d. trying to understand the etiology of her client’s current illness

Answer 12

d. trying to understand the etiology of her client’s current illness

Question 13

Mario has just entered treatment for a major depressive episode. He is told that most patients
respond to treatment within a month, and many never experience a second depressive episode.
What does this information represent?
a. histology
b. prognosis
c. etiology
d. diagnosis

Answer 13

b. prognosis

Question 14

Complete the following analogy: Diagnosis is to prognosis as _______
a. outcome is to etiology.
b. what is to outcome.
c. why is to what.
d. ontogeny is to phylogeny

Answer 14

b. what is to outcome

Question 15

Complete the following analogy: Prognosis is to etiology as __________
a. why is to what.
b. outcome is to why.
c. what is to why.
d. why is to outcome.

Answer 15

b. outcome is to why.

Question 16

What is the term used to describe behaviour that does not coincide with cultural norms?
a. insane
b. personally distressing
c. maladaptive
d. deviant

Answer 16

d. deviant

Question 17

Wendy works at Dyne Corporation. At the last business executive meeting she showed up in
pyjamas and slippers. When her coworkers commented on the inappropriateness of her outfit,
Wendy did not seem the least bit disturbed or embarrassed by their comments. What is the
best description for Wendy’s style of dressing, in this example?
a. delusional
b. personally distressing
c. maladaptive
d. culturally deviant

Answer 17

d. culturally deviant

Question 18

Hamilton has embezzled over $3 million from the bank where he is employed as an executive
loan officer. He feels no remorse for his actions, and he is looking forward to an early
retirement in some South American country with no extradition agreement. Which term best
describes Hamilton’s embezzling behaviour in this example?
a. maladaptive
b. legal insanity
c. culturally deviant
d. personally distressing

Answer 18

c. culturally deviant

Question 19

Ben is not a very conscientious individual. He often sleeps late in the morning, and on
mornings when he oversleeps, he usually just skips work. He has been fired from four jobs in
the past year, but he is not concerned because he feels that there are lots of other jobs
available. Which of the following terms best describes Ben’s lack of dedication?
a. personally distressing
b. legally incompetent
c. culturally deviant
d. maladaptive

Answer 19

d. maladaptive

Question 20

Summer has anorexia nervosa and is slowly starving herself to death. When friends or family
tell her to seek professional help, she tells them that she feels fine. She can’t understand why
people won’t just leave her alone. Which of the following terms best describes Summer’s
eating disorder?
a. personally distressing
b. delusional
c. culturally deviant
d. maladaptive

Answer 20

d. maladaptive

Question 21

Kashi enjoys gambling so much that he does it every day, totally neglecting his family and
job. Which criterion of abnormality does Kashi’s behaviour satisfy most clearly?
a. persistence
b. maladaptive behaviour
c. personal distress
d. deviance

Answer 21

b. maladaptive behaviour

Question 22

Corrina constantly experiences feelings of dread and despair. Lately, she finds that she is
thinking more and more about committing suicide so she can end her feelings of desperation
and hopelessness. Which of the following terms best describes Corrina’s feelings of dread and
despair?
a. signs of incompetence
b. delusions
c. personally distressing
d. culturally deviant

Answer 22

c. personally distressing

Question 23

Treit’s best friend was seriously injured in a car accident last month. Since that time Treit has
been attending all his classes, but he feels like he is unable to pay attention because he is
constantly thinking about his friend. Treit finds he can’t seem to think about anything else,
and he is frequently overwhelmed by feelings of helplessness. Which of the following terms
best describes Treit’s feelings?
a. culturally deviant
b. personally distressing
c. delusional
d. compulsive

Answer 23

b. personally distressing

Question 24

Many people believe that those with mental illness are violence-prone. Why is this belief
common?
a. There actually is a strong association between mental illness and violent
tendencies.
b. Incidents of violence involving people with mental illness receive a great deal of
media attention.
c. Many people have personally been the victims of such violence.
d. Violence is much more common among mental patients than among the general
population.

Answer 24

b. Incidents of violence involving people with mental illness receive a great deal of
media attention

Question 25

Rosa is the personnel director at Acme Enterprises. If she finds that an individual who has
applied for employment has ever been treated for a psychological disorder, she doesn’t
consider that person for a job. She is concerned that the person will have another breakdown
under the stressful conditions that exist at Acme Enterprises. Which of the following
stereotypes is illustrated in this example?
a. Psychological disorders are often over-diagnosed.
b. All psychological disorders are incurable.
c. People with psychological disorders behave in bizarre ways.
d. People with psychological disorders are often dangerous.

Answer 25

b. All psychological disorders are incurable

Question 26

When Erskine found out that his daughter’s Grade 5 teacher had once been treated for a
psychological disorder, he insisted that his daughter be transferred to a different classroom.
He was concerned for her safety, and the safety of her classmates, and tried to have the
individual barred from teaching in the public school system. Which stereotype is illustrated in
this example?
a. Psychological disorders often go unrecognized.
b. Psychological disorders are incurable.
c. People with psychological disorders are often dangerous.
d. People with psychological disorders behave in bizarre ways.

Answer 26

c. People with psychological disorders are often dangerous.

Question 27

Johanna was somewhat surprised when her study partner postponed a study session because
he had an appointment with his psychotherapist. When she was talking to a friend about the
postponed study session she commented, “I have been working on projects with this student
for several months now, and he has never shown any signs of having a psychological
disorder.” Johanna’s comment suggests that she holds which of the following inaccurate
stereotypes?
a. People with psychological disorders are often dangerous.
b. The mental health system has a powerful bias toward seeing pathology in
everyone.
c. Psychological disorders are incurable.
d. People with psychological disorders behave in bizarre ways.

Answer 27

d. People with psychological disorders behave in bizarre ways.

Question 28

What was demonstrated in Rosenhan’s study using “pseudopatients”?
a. Our mental health system is biased toward seeing mental illness in all potential
patients.
b. Most mental patients are extensively observed before an initial diagnosis is made.
c. It is extremely difficult to successfully fake the symptoms of serious mental
illness.
d. Mental hospital staff often spend a great deal of time interacting with patients.

Answer 28

a. Our mental health system is biased toward seeing mental illness in all potential
patients.

Question 29

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from Rosenhan’s study that used
“pseudopatients”?
a. Most behaviour patterns are basically the same in people being diagnosed as
abnormal.
b. The validity of diagnostic categories in DSM-III-R is very suspect in
distinguishing between normal and abnormal persons.
c. Once one has been diagnosed as abnormal, subsequent behaviour gets interpreted
in a manner consistent with the diagnosis.
d. Distinguishing between schizophrenic subtypes is almost impossible.

Answer 29

c. Once one has been diagnosed as abnormal, subsequent behaviour gets interpreted
in a manner consistent with the diagnosis.

Question 30

Which of the following is true of the current classification system for psychological disorders
(DSM-IV)?
a. It contains fewer disorders than previous systems, making it easier to use.
b. It avoids giving people potentially stigmatizing diagnostic labels.
c. It recognizes the importance of information other than a traditional diagnostic
label.
d. It has been shown to be extremely unreliable.

Answer 30

c. It recognizes the importance of information other than a traditional diagnostic
label.

Question 31

Using the DSM-IV, on which axis would disorders of mood be recorded?
a. Axis I
b. Axis III
c. Axis IV
d. Axis X

Answer 31

a. Axis I

Question 32

Using the DSM-IV, where would personality and developmental disorders be recorded?
a. Axis I
b. Axis II
c. Axis III
d. Axis IV

Answer 32

b. Axis II

Question 33

. DSM-IV uses five “axes” to describe a person’s problem. Which axis contains the actual
diagnosis of a disorder?
a. Axis I
b. Axis II
c. Axis I and/or Axis II
d. Axis V

Answer 33

c. Axis I and/or Axis II

Question 34

Lydia has gone in for a psychiatric assessment. She tells the clinician that lately she has been
feeling completely hopeless and dejected, and she no longer enjoys doing any of the things
she used to look forward to. On which axis of the DSM-IV would these symptoms be
recorded?
a. Axis I
b. Axis III
c. Axis IV
d. Axis X

Answer 34

a. Axis I

Question 35

Colton has gone in for a psychiatric assessment. He tells the clinician that he has been hearing
voices that tell him to start building a lab in his basement. On which DSM-IV axis should this
information be recorded?
a. Axis I
b. Axis III
c. Axis IV
d. Axis X

Answer 35

a. Axis I

Question 36

Jaffir has gone in for a psychiatric assessment. He tells the clinician that he has been feeling
detached from his surroundings since he started taking medication to control his high blood
pressure. On which DSM-IV axis should this information be recorded?
a. Axis I
b. Axis II
c. Axis III
d. Axis IV

Answer 36

c. Axis III

Question 37

Blair has gone in for a psychiatric assessment. She meets all the criteria for Major Depressive
Disorder. Blair also tells the clinician that, just before her symptoms began, her husband
moved out and she lost her job. Using the DSM-IV, where would these pieces of information
be recorded?
a. Axis I and Axis II
b. Axis II and Axis X
c. Axis I and Axis IV
d. Axis II and Axis III

Answer 37

c. Axis I and Axis IV

Question 38

. Mayank has gone in for a psychiatric assessment. He tells the clinician that he has been
feeling apprehensive and edgy for the last month, but so far his anxiety hasn’t seemed to have
had a major impact on either his job or his home life. Which DSM-IV scale should be used if
the clinician wants to record this information as part of Mayank’s global assessment of
functioning?
a. Axis IV
b. Axis I or II
c. Axis V
d. Axis III

Answer 38

c. Axis V

Question 39

Jeff has been diagnosed with both an anxiety disorder and a personality disorder. What term
refers to this joint diagnosis?
a. dual diagnosis
b. bipathology
c. comorbidity
d. additive diagnosis

Answer 39

c. comorbidity

Question 40

Depression and addiction are frequently comorbid. What does this mean?
a. Addiction causes depression.
b. If an individual is diagnosed with one, then he or she cannot also receive a
diagnosis for the other.
c. They are frequently diagnosed in the same individual.
d. Depression causes addiction.

Answer 40

c. They are frequently diagnosed in the same individual.

Question 41

What would you study if you were an epidemiologist?
a. treatments for psychological disorders
b. distribution of mental or physical disorders in a population
c. how cultural values affect judgments of abnormality
d. sudden “epidemics” involving specific mental or physical disorders

Answer 41

b. distribution of mental or physical disorders in a population

Question 42

What is the discipline that studies the incidence and distribution of mental or physical
disorders within a population?
a. demography
b. psychobiology
c. epidemiology
d. etiology

Answer 42

c. epidemiology

Question 43

With regard to psychological disorders, what does prevalence refer to?
a. the percentage of a population that has ever been treated for a psychological
disorder
b. the reliability of the diagnosis of psychological disorders
c. the absolute number of people who are experiencing any psychological disorder at
a given point in time
d. the percentage of a population that exhibits a disorder during a specified time
period

Answer 43

d. the percentage of a population that exhibits a disorder during a specified time
period

Question 44

Which of the following has been demonstrated in epidemiological studies of psychological
disorders?
a. There has been a significant decrease in prevalence rates of mental illness in
Canada in recent years.
b. Psychological disorders are more common than many people realize.
c. Epidemics involving psychological disorders are common.
d. Nearly everyone who needs treatment for psychological disorders receives it.

Answer 44

b. Psychological disorders are more common than many people realize

Question 45

What percentage of the population will experience a psychological disorder at some time in
their lives, using the DSM-IV listings and lifetime prevalence?
a. less than 10 percent
b. 15 to 25 percent
c. approximately 50 percent
d. greater than 60 percent

Answer 45

c. approximately 50 percent

Question 46

What proportion of individuals who reported symptoms consistent with mental disorders did
NOT seek assistance or treatment, according to data provided by Statistics Canada?
a. approximately 10 percent
b. approximately 25 percent
c. approximately 40 percent
d. approximately 65 percent

Answer 46

d. approximately 65 percent

Question 47

Which disorder is characterized by free-floating anxiety?
a. phobic disorder
b. panic disorder
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder

Answer 47

d. generalized anxiety disorder

Question 48

Which of the following anxiety disorders does the cartoon character Charlie Brown, with his
chronic dread, pessimism, worrying, and brooding, have symptoms consistent with?
a. panic disorder
b. phobic disorder
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder

Answer 48

d. generalized anxiety disorder

Question 49

Which disorder is characterized by worry and fear, muscle tension, trembling, faintness, and
difficulty in concentrating?
a. conversion disorder
b. dissociative disorder
c. paranoid disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder

Answer 49

d. generalized anxiety disorder

Question 50

Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with generalized anxiety disorder?
a. trembling
b. dizziness
c. delusions
d. diarrhea

Answer 50

c. delusions

Question 51

Jim came home from the office trembling, irritable, unable to concentrate, experiencing
shortness of breath, and worrying about whether his business would still be open next week,
despite the fact that his business was evidencing its highest profit ever. Which disorder is
most consistent with these symptoms?
a. generalized anxiety disorder
b. phobic disorder
c. minor psychotic break
d. major depression

Answer 51

a. generalized anxiety disorder

Question 52

Tak feels like he has been worrying constantly for the past four months. He is worried about
making his car payments, losing his job, and how his children are doing in school. He has also
started to experience dizziness and occasional heart palpitations. Which disorder is most
consistent with these symptoms?
a. panic disorder
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. generalized anxiety disorder
d. hypochondriasis

Answer 52

c. generalized anxiety disorder

Question 53

Elise is so terrified of enclosed places that she had to quit her new job because her office had
no windows. She knows that her fear is irrational, but she can’t seem to control her anxiety.
Which disorder is most consistent with Elise’s symptoms?
a. obsessive-compulsive disorder
b. phobic disorder
c. conversion disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder

Answer 53

d. generalized anxiety disorder

Question 54

What is the major difference between a phobic disorder and a generalized anxiety disorder?
a. Only the generalized anxiety disorder depends on past conditioning.
b. A phobic disorder is more severe and more difficult to treat.
c. Anxiety is specific to one object or situation in a phobic disorder, but is “free
floating” in generalized anxiety disorder.
d. Generalized anxiety disorder occurs primarily in men, and phobic disorders occur
primarily in women.

Answer 54

c. Anxiety is specific to one object or situation in a phobic disorder, but is “free
floating” in generalized anxiety disorder.

Question 55

Ankha is so terrified of fire that she cannot light a match or even enjoy dinner by candlelight.
Which of the following disorders is most consistent with Ankha’s symptoms?
a. panic disorder
b. generalized anxiety disorder
c. phobic disorder
d. obsessive-compulsive disorder

Answer 55

c. phobic disorder

Question 56

Charlie cannot tolerate heights. When walking up several flights of stairs, he breaks out in a
cold sweat, shakes, and believes he is going to fall and seriously injure himself. Consequently,
Charlie avoids any type of height at all costs. Which disorder is most consistent with Charlie’s
symptoms?
a. somatoform disorder
b. generalized anxiety disorder
c. phobic disorder
d. panic disorder

Answer 56

c. phobic disorder

Question 57

Which condition is characterized by recurrent, intense, and sudden onset of anxiety?
a. panic disorder
b. paranoid disorder
c. generalized anxiety disorder
d. phobic disorder

Answer 57

a. panic disorder

Question 58

Which of the following has been experienced by nearly one-third of students, according to
results of questionnaire studies of Canadian university students?
a. post-traumatic stress disorder
b. phobias
c. depression
d. panic

Answer 58

d. panic

Question 59

Damian has brief attacks of overwhelming anxiety in which his heart pounds and he can’t
control his breathing. He never knows when the next attack will occur. Which disorder is most
consistent with Damian’s symptoms?
a. conversion disorder
b. generalized anxiety disorder
c. schizophrenia
d. panic disorder

Answer 59

d. panic disorder

Question 60

Doris feels terrified every time she leaves her house, and avoids doing so whenever possible.
Which of the following is most consistent with Doris’s experience?
a. agoraphobia
b. claustrophobia
c. generalized anxiety disorder
d. obsessive-compulsive disorder

Answer 60

a. agoraphobia

Question 61

What fear is most prominent in agoraphobia?
a. closed spaces
b. spiders
c. heights
d. going out to public places

Answer 61

d. going out to public places

Question 62

What is the term for an unwanted thought that repeatedly intrudes upon an individual’s
consciousness?
a. hallucination
b. delusion
c. compulsion
d. obsession

Answer 62

d. obsession

Question 63

Selena constantly thinks about climbing up the stairs to the roof of her building and jumping
into the street below. Which of the following could Selena’s uncontrollable thoughts be
considered an example of?
a. obsession
b. delusion
c. compulsion
d. hallucination

Answer 63

a. obsession

Question 64

What is the term used to describe the behaviour of checking your alarm clock 20 times before
going to sleep?
a. compulsive
b. obsessive
c. amnesiac
d. phobic

Answer 64

a. compulsive

Question 65

Grayson seems to be preoccupied with the possibility that he might miss an important
message from someone in his family. He checks for new messages on his phone every 15
minutes. Which of the following terms best describes this behaviour?
a. compulsion
b. obsession
c. hallucination
d. delusion

Answer 65

a. compulsion

Question 66

Jack thinks constantly about dirt and germs. He washes his hands hundreds of times a day.
Which disorder is most consistent with Jack’s behaviour?
a. obsessive-compulsive disorder
b. phobic disorder
c. somatization disorder
d. hypochondriasis

Answer 66

a. obsessive-compulsive disorder

Question 67

Kate constantly thinks about jumping in front of an oncoming car when she is walking. The
only way she seems to be able to stop these self-destructive thoughts is to say Mother Goose
nursery rhymes over and over to herself. Which disorder is most consistent with Kate’s
symptoms?
a. generalized anxiety disorder
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. panic disorder
d. bipolar disorder

Answer 67

b. obsessive-compulsive disorder

Question 68

Which of the following is true of people who suffer from an obsessive-compulsive disorder?
a. They can be treated with a form of aversive conditioning.
b. They feel they have lost control of their thoughts or actions.
c. They need to be institutionalized, as they cannot function in society in an
appropriate manner.
d. They find their thoughts and acts reassuring

Answer 68

b. They feel they have lost control of their thoughts or actions.

Question 69

Angela experiences a lot of anxiety associated with housekeeping. The house is never clean
enough for her perfectionistic standards. If she sees anything that she considers to be ‘out of
place’ she has to put it away immediately. Recently, she has been spending approximately 10
hours each day cleaning, organizing and checking things around the house. In fact, her
cleaning has prevented her from having a full-time job and it has really damaged her
relationship with her husband and children. She doesn’t spend time with them and she is often
scolding them for being ‘messy’. All of this cleaning seems to be tied to the intrusive thoughts
that Angela experiences. She is always worried about germs and contamination, and when she
sees a dirty dish she can’t help but imagine that her whole family will die of food poisoning.

Which disorder is most consistent with Angela’s symptoms?
a. obsessive-compulsive disorder
b. bipolar disorder
c. generalized anxiety disorder
d. delusional disorder

Answer 69

a. obsessive-compulsive disorder

Question 70

. On which axis of the DSM-IV would Angela’s disorder be recorded?
a. Axis IV
b. Axis II
c. Axis I
d. Axis III

Answer 70

c. Axis I

Question 71

Which criteria of abnormality does Angela’s behaviour meet?
a. maladaptiveness and personal distress
b. deviance and maladaptiveness
c. insanity and deviance
d. personal distress and insanity

Answer 71

a. maladaptiveness and personal distress

Question 72

Abnormalities in which of the following neurotransmitter circuits have been demonstrated to
be involved in Angela’s disorder?
a. epinephrine
b. melatonin
c. serotonin
d. dopamine

Answer 72

c. serotonin

Question 73

Would Angela’s disorder mean that she would be found not criminally responsible if she was
convicted of a crime?
a. Yes, because her disorder is a diagnosable mental disorder.
b. Yes, because her disorder causes her to act like an automaton.
c. No, because she is capable of understanding criminal proceedings.
d. No, because she is not delusional and knows right from wrong

Answer 73

d. No, because she is not delusional and knows right from wrong

Question 74

Michenne was giving a presentation to her class when suddenly the roof collapsed. Michenne
was not injured, herself, but she watched, helplessly, as her classmates were pinned under
mounds of rubble. She saw horrific injuries, and several of her classmates were killed in the
accident. If Michelle develops symptoms of a mental disorder, what disorder is most likely?
a. post-traumatic stress disorder
b. panic disorder
c. nonspecific phobia disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder

Answer 74

a. post-traumatic stress disorder

Question 75

Approximately what proportion of the population has experienced post-traumatic stress
disorder?
a. 7 percent
b. 27 percent
c. 45 percent
d. 75 percent

Answer 75

b. 27 percent

Question 76

What does a concordance rate indicate?
a. agreement rates between physicians in diagnosing psychological disorders
b. the degree to which biological factors affect psychological adjustment
c. the percentage of twin pairs or other pairs of relatives who exhibit the same
disorder
d. the degree to which psychological factors affect physical health

Answer 76

c. the percentage of twin pairs or other pairs of relatives who exhibit the same
disorder

Question 77

Trish has been diagnosed with an anxiety disorder. What is the lifetime risk that her identical
twin will also develop an anxiety disorder?
a. 5 percent
b. 35 percent
c. 65 percent
d. 100 percent

Answer 77

b. 35 percent

Question 78

Ali has a psychological disorder, and her doctor has prescribed a drug that affects the levels of
GABA in her nervous system. What type of disorder is Ali most likely being treated for,
based on this information?
a. dissociative
b. anxiety
c. somatoform
d. schizophrenic

Answer 78

b. anxiety

Question 79

Anique is being treated for a psychological disorder. As part of her treatment program, she is
taking medication that alters the activity of GABA synapses. Which type of disorder is she
likely being treated for?
a. anxiety
b. somatoform
c. personality
d. schizophrenic

Answer 79

a. anxiety

Question 80

Abnormalities in certain neural circuits have recently been implicated in panic and obsessivecompulsive disorders. Which neurotransmitter is used in those defective circuits?
a. dopamine
b. acetylcholine
c. endorphin
d. serotonin

Answer 80

d. serotonin

Question 81

How are phobic responses acquired and then maintained, according to Mowrer?
a. They are acquired by classical conditioning and maintained by operant
conditioning.
b. They are acquired and maintained by operant conditioning.
c. They are acquired and maintained by classical conditioning.
d. They are acquired by operant conditioning and maintained by classical
conditioning

Answer 81

a. They are acquired by classical conditioning and maintained by operant
conditioning.

Question 82

What does Seligman’s concept of “preparedness” refer to?
a. a biological predisposition to be easily conditioned to fear certain things
b. the physical state or condition associated with a panic attack
c. psychological processes that accompany obsessive-compulsive behaviour patterns
d. a particular type of learning situation in which negatively reinforced behaviours
reduce the level of anxiety

Answer 82

a. a biological predisposition to be easily conditioned to fear certain things

Question 83

Which of the following stimuli should one develop a phobia toward most easily, according to
Seligman’s concept of “preparedness”?
a. heights
b. rabbits
c. feet
d. chairs

Answer 83

a. heights

Question 84

Which of the following factors are conditioning theories of anxiety disorders being revised to
include a greater emphasis of?
a. neurotransmitter
b. cognitive
c. constitutional
d. genetic

Answer 84

b. cognitive

Question 85

Quinton’s father had an irrational fear of railroad crossings and would sometimes spend hours
planning family trips so that all railroad crossings were avoided. Which of the following
processes would best explain the acquisition of his phobia if Quinton also develops a fear of
railroad crossings?
a. reciprocal stress
b. observational learning
c. classical conditioning
d. operant conditioning

Answer 85

b. observational learning

Question 86

Which of the following is NOT typical of the thinking in anxiety-prone individuals, according
to cognitive theorists?
a. selectively recalling information that appears to be threatening
b. excessive reliance on the representative and availability heuristics
c. misinterpreting harmless situations as being threatening
d. focusing excessive attention on perceived threats

Answer 86

b. excessive reliance on the representative and availability heuristics

Question 87

Frank witnessed a horrible car accident but cannot remember anything about it. Which of the
following disorders is associated with Frank’s experience?
a. conversion disorder
b. dissociative amnesia
c. psychosis-induced repression
d. dissociative fugue

Answer 87

b. dissociative amnesia

Question 88

Chantel’s children were killed in an automobile accident, which Chantel survived. When
police question her about the events surrounding the accident, Chantel is unable to remember
anything. She remembers getting into her car to drive her children to school, and she
remembers her trip by ambulance to the local hospital, but everything in between is a
complete “blank.” Which disorder is most consistent with Chantel’s experience?
a. generalized anxiety disorder
b. dissociative fugue
c. dissociative amnesia
d. panic disorder

Answer 88

c. dissociative amnesia

Question 89

Carlos recently lost his family in a tragic fire. He is unable to remember any of the events that
occurred in the hours just before the fire. He is also unable to remember anything about the
actual fire, even though he went into the house three times during the fire, attempting to
rescue his family members. Which of the following is most consistent with Carlos’s
experience?
a. dissociative fugue
b. dissociative amnesia
c. panic disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder

Answer 89

b. dissociative amnesia

Question 90

Rescue workers found Zita sitting in basement rubble after a tornado destroyed several homes
in a neighbourhood. Even though she doesn’t appear to have suffered any physical injuries,
Zita is unable to remember who she is, how she got where she was found, or anything about
her personal life. Which of the following is consistent with Zita’s symptoms?
a. dissociative fugue
b. panic disorder
c. dissociative amnesia
d. generalized anxiety disorder

Answer 90

a. dissociative fugue

Question 91

Simon recently walked into a hospital emergency room in Vancouver. He had no
identification, and although he didn’t appear to be hurt in any way, he had no idea who he was
or where he lived. A check of missing-person reports showed that Simon had walked away
from his home in Winnipeg ten days earlier. Which of the following is most consistent with
Simon’s symptoms?
a. panic disorder
b. generalized anxiety disorder
c. dissociative amnesia
d. dissociative fugue

Answer 91

d. dissociative fugue

Question 92

Oscar was recently taken into custody in Toronto when he was found wandering the streets
with no identification. When the police questioned him, Oscar had no idea who he was or
where he lived. A check of missing persons showed that he had been missing from his home
in Nova Scotia for the past ten days. Which of the following disorders is most consistent with
Oscar’s symptoms?
a. panic disorder
b. dissociative fugue
c. dissociative amnesia
d. generalized anxiety disorder

Answer 92

b. dissociative fugue

Question 93

Alexa started a new job on Monday morning. For the first three days she showed up in bright
colours and was outgoing and extroverted. However, on Thursday she showed up in a dark
suit and appeared shy and introverted. She insisted that her name was Clara, and she couldn’t
understand why her coworkers kept calling her Alexa. Which disorder is consistent with
Alexa’s behaviour?
a. disorganized schizophrenia
b. antisocial personality disorder
c. dissociative identity disorder
d. bipolar disorder

Answer 93

c. dissociative identity disorder

Question 94

Which of the following statements is least accurate concerning dissociative identity disorder?
a. Most individuals with dissociative identity disorder also have anxiety, mood, or
personality disorders.
b. The separate personalities are usually aware of one another.
c. Transitions between the separate identities often occur suddenly.
d. The separate identities can differ in age, race, gender, or sexual orientation

Answer 94

a. Most individuals with dissociative identity disorder also have anxiety, mood, or
personality disorders.

Question 95

What is the most likely cause of psychogenic amnesia and fugue?
a. neurotic personality
b. unconscious recollections of childhood trauma
c. neurotransmitter imbalance
d. extreme stress

Answer 95

d. extreme stress

Question 96

What group of disorders is associated with emotional disturbances that affect one’s physical,
perceptual, social, and thought processes?
a. dissociative disorder
b. anxiety disorder
c. mood disorder
d. somatoform disorder

Answer 96

c. mood disorder

Question 97

. Samha finds she is no longer interested in things she used to do, is sad most of the time, and
thinks she is a terrible person. Additionally, she has recently lost a lot of weight and doesn’t
sleep very much. Which category of disorders is most consistent with Samha’s behaviour?
a. dissociative disorder
b. personality disorder
c. anxiety disorder
d. mood disorder

Answer 97

d. mood disorder

Question 98

Which type of mood disorder is major depressive disorder?
a. unipolar
b. dissociative
c. bipolar
d. cyclical

Answer 98

a. unipolar

Question 99

Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with a depressive disorder?
a. altered appetite
b. insomnia
c. impulsive behaviour
d. feelings of worthlessness

Answer 99

c. impulsive behaviour

Question 100

Carrie has been sad a lot lately. She is down on herself, has very little appetite, can’t sleep,
and doesn’t want to be around her friends or family. Which of the following is most consistent
with Carrie’s symptoms?
a. major depressive disorder
b. schizophrenia
c. dissociative identity disorder
d. hypochondriasis

Answer 100

a. major depressive disorder

Question 101

Janae is an 18-year-old college freshman. She has missed almost all her classes for the past
month, and she spends most of her time in her bedroom. Frequently, she is still in her pajamas
when her parents come home from work, and she often hasn’t eaten anything all day. She
thinks her whole life is a failure, and she blames herself for being a social misfit whom
everyone hates. Which disorder is most consistent with Janae’s symptoms?
a. hypochondriasis
b. antisocial personality disorder
c. major depressive disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder

Answer 101

c. major depressive disorder

Question 102

Dean seems to have lost the ability to enjoy things that he used to enjoy. It’s as if nothing is
pleasurable anymore. What is the term for Dean’s current experience?
a. cyclothymia
b. avolition
c. anhedonia
d. major depression

Answer 102

c. anhedonia

Question 103

For the past month Miko seems to have lost interest in most of his normal activities. He feels
irritable, and he has had difficulty sleeping. He also finds that he has difficulty making
decisions. Which disorder is most consistent with Miko’s symptoms?
a. generalized anxiety disorder
b. major depressive disorder
c. bipolar disorder
d. disorganized schizophrenia

Answer 103

b. major depressive disorder

Question 104

What is the mean duration of depressive episodes?
a. 7 to 14 days
b. 4 to 6 weeks
c. 6 months
d. 1 year

Answer 104

c. 6 months

Question 105

Which of the following statements is most accurate concerning the onset of depression?
a. The peak age of onset is during middle or late adulthood (age 40 and on).
b. The onset of depression can occur at any point in the lifespan.
c. Symptoms tend to be most severe when the disorder has a late onset.
d. Early onset cases are typically acute and do not recur later in life.

Answer 105

b. The onset of depression can occur at any point in the lifespan.

Question 106

Adena has just recovered from her first episode of major depression. What is the likelihood
that Adena will experience a relapse within the next five years, based on the findings from
longitudinal studies?
a. approximately 60 percent
b. between 40 and 45 percent
c. just over 25 percent
d. less than 10 percent

Answer 106

a. approximately 60 percent

Question 107

Antero always seems to be grumpy and irritable. He has a poor self-image and is usually
socially withdrawn. Although he never feels totally dejected and out of control, he feels that
life is not very exciting or enjoyable. Which disorder is most consistent with Antero’s
symptoms?
a. generalized anxiety disorder
b. dysthymic disorder
c. cyclothymic disorder
d. antisocial personality disorder

Answer 107

b. dysthymic disorder

Question 108

Approximately what percentage of Canadians will experience a depressive disorder at some
time in their lives?
a. at least 72 percent
b. between 42 and 48 percent
c. between 25 and 30 percent
d. up to 10 percent

Answer 108

d. up to 10 percent

Question 109

Which of the following represents the sex difference in incidence rates for depression?
a. It is nearly twice as frequent in women as in men.
b. It occurs nearly twice as frequently in men as in women.
c. It is nearly four times as frequent in women as in men.
d. It occurs with equal frequency in women and in men.

Answer 109

a. It is nearly twice as frequent in women as in men.

Question 110

Which disorder can be considered a milder version of bipolar disorder?
a. rapid-cycling disorder
b. cyclothymic disorder
c. manic disorder
d. dysthymic disorder

Answer 110

b. cyclothymic disorder

Question 111

Carina is 50 years old, and her moods are rather unpredictable. Some days she is excited and
happy, other days she is sad and withdrawn. Her symptoms seem fairly mild, but she has had
mood swings of this type since she was in her early 20s. Which disorder is most consistent
with Carina’s symptoms?
a. dysthymic disorder
b. cyclothymic disorder
c. dissociative identity disorder
d. undifferentiated schizophrenia

Answer 111

b. cyclothymic disorder

Question 112

What is the diagnosis for individuals who alternate between periods of depression and periods
of being manic?
a. dissociative disorders
b. multiple personality disorder
c. bipolar disorder
d. conversion disorder

Answer 112

c. bipolar disorder

Question 113

Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with bipolar disorder?
a. hallucinations
b. decreased need for sleep
c. inflated self-esteem
d. sexually reckless behaviour

Answer 113

a. hallucinations

Question 114

Tina has been extremely hyperactive for the past week, and she has been getting by with only
three hours of sleep each night. Her thoughts seem to be racing out of control, and she is
convinced that the novel she started last week will become a best seller and win a Pulitzer
Prize, even though she has never had any of her writing published in the past. Which of the
following is most consistent with Tina’s symptoms?
a. manic episode
b. generalized anxiety disorder
c. dissociative fugue
d. dysthymic disorder

Answer 114

a. manic episode

Question 115

After several weeks of feeling gloomy and being socially withdrawn, Marco has suddenly
become extremely sociable and talkative. He doesn’t seem to need any sleep, and he becomes
irritated when his friends tell him to slow down. Which disorder is consistent with Marco’s
behaviour?
a. obsessive-compulsive disorder
b. bipolar disorder
c. histrionic personality disorder
d. schizophrenia

Answer 115

b. bipolar disorder

Question 116

Charlotte is in a heightened emotional state and hasn’t been sleeping much lately.
Additionally, she is making plans to solve the world’s hunger problem while simultaneously
composing music (even though she’s never had musical training). Which disorder is most
consistent with Charlotte’s symptoms?
a. antisocial personality disorder
b. seasonal affective disorder
c. bipolar disorder
d. dissociative identity disorder

Answer 116

c. bipolar disorder

Question 117

In what proportion of the population do bipolar disorders occur?
a. a little over 1 percent
b. approximately 7 percent
c. approximately 12 percent
d. just over 15 percent

Answer 117

a. a little over 1 percent

Question 118

Which of the following statements is most accurate concerning the onset of bipolar disorder?
a. The peak age of onset is during middle or late adulthood (age 40 and on).
b. The onset of bipolar disorder is spread evenly across almost all age groups.
c. The peak age of onset is usually in early adulthood (age 20 through 29).
d. The symptoms tend to be most severe when the disorder has a late onse

Answer 118

c. The peak age of onset is usually in early adulthood (age 20 through 29).

Question 119

Which of the following represents the incidence rate of bipolar disorders in males and
females?
a. It occurs nearly twice as frequently in women as in men.
b. It occurs with equal frequency in women and in men.
c. It occurs nearly twice as frequently in men as in women.
d. It occurs nearly four times as frequently in women as in men.

Answer 119

b. It occurs with equal frequency in women and in men.

Question 120

In which of the following places would you expect to find the highest incidence of seasonal
affective disorder?
a. in a city close to the equator where the heat and humidity are oppressive
b. in a city where there is a lack of rainfall or other forms of precipitation
c. in a city far from the equator where there is little daylight in the winter
d. in a city where there is very little variability in temperature across the seasons

Answer 120

c. in a city far from the equator where there is little daylight in the winter

Question 121

Which mood disorder is most closely associated with melatonin production and circadian
rhythms?
a. cyclothymic disorder
b. seasonal affective disorder
c. major depressive disorder
d. bipolar disorder

Answer 121

b. seasonal affective disorder

Question 122

Maria’s doctor recommended that she increase her exposure to natural light in order to
improve her symptoms. Which disorder has Maria’s doctor likely diagnosed?
a. seasonal affective disorder
b. post-partum depression
c. generalized anxiety disorder
d. cyclothymia

Answer 122

a. seasonal affective disorder

Question 123

In approximately what proportion of women who have given birth do symptoms of
postpartum depression occur?
a. 1–2 percent
b. 3–5 percent
c. 5–10 percent
d. 10–20 percent

Answer 123

d. 10–20 percent

Question 124

Which of the following does NOT appear to be a factor that influences the experience of
postpartum depression?
a. temperament of the baby
b. prior history of depression
c. age of the mother
d. overall stress levels

Answer 124

c. age of the mother

Question 125

Sarah is a 23-year-old woman and Jacob is a 79-year-old man. Which of the following should
you predict based on evidence about suicide?
a. If both individuals attempt suicide, Sarah is more likely to die.
b. Jacob is more likely to contemplate suicide.
c. Sarah is more likely to contemplate suicide.
d. If both individuals attempt suicide, Jacob is more likely to die.

Answer 125

d. If both individuals attempt suicide, Jacob is more likely to die.

Question 126

Which of the following disorders has the greatest risk of suicide?
a. major depressive disorder
b. bipolar disorder
c. alcoholism
d. schizophrenia

Answer 126

b. bipolar disorder

Question 127

Penny has been diagnosed with a mood disorder. What is the likelihood that her identical twin
will also be diagnosed with a mood disorder at some point in her lifetime?
a. 100 percent
b. 65 percent
c. 35 percent
d. 10 percent

Answer 127

b. 65 percent

Question 128

Which of the following neurotransmitters has been implicated in mood disorders?
a. serotonin
b. dopamine
c. substance-P
d. endorphins

Answer 128

a. serotonin

Question 129

Jose has a psychological disorder, and his doctor has prescribed a drug that affects both the
levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in Jose’s nervous system. What is Jose most likely
being treated for, based on this information?
a. depression
b. personality disorder
c. schizophrenia
d. dissociative disorder

Answer 129

a. depression

Question 130

Courtney has been diagnosed with depression. Which of the following would you expect to
find if you were to look at an MRI image of her brain?
a. increased activation in the frontal lobes
b. enlarged ventricles
c. reduced hippocampal volume
d. decreased activation in the limbic system

Answer 130

c. reduced hippocampal volume

Question 131

What have Hewitt and Flett determined about perfectionism in their evaluation of
dispositional factors that may contribute to depression?
a. It may prevent an individual from becoming depressed, because of the high
standards that the individual has set for himself.
b. It is a very common coping mechanism for individuals with depression.
c. It may increase the individual’s risk for depression and eating disorders.
d. It may increase one’s risk of depression, but decrease the risk of other disorders.

Answer 131

c. It may increase the individual’s risk for depression and eating disorders.

Question 132

Bennett is constantly frustrated by those around him. He can’t understand why they behave in
such ineffective and inefficient ways. What type of perfectionism does Bennett display?
a. other-oriented
b. self-oriented
c. socially prescribed
d. narcissistic

Answer 132

a. other-oriented

Question 133

What is the relationship between sociotropic and autonomous personality styles, and risk of
depression, according to Beck?
a. Both are risk factors for depression.
b. Sociotropy increases the risk of depression and autonomy decreases the risk.
c. Sociotropy decreases the risk of depression and autonomy increases the risk.
d. Both are preventive against depression

Answer 133

a. Both are risk factors for depression.

Question 134

Nico likes to avoid conflict, and does not want anyone to be unhappy. She spends a great deal
of time concerned with the opinions and feelings of others. What does Nico display, according
to Beck?
a. dependent personality disorder
b. autonomous personality style, which puts her at risk for depression
c. sociotropic personality style, which puts her at risk for depression
d. martyr syndrome

Answer 134

c. sociotropic personality style, which puts her at risk for depression

Question 135

In his investigations of the cognitive factors that might contribute to depression, Seligman
found that people with a pessimistic explanatory style are especially vulnerable to depression.
To what do these individuals tend to attribute their setbacks?
a. external flaws
b. global factors
c. situational factors
d. personal flaws

Answer 135

d. personal flaws

Question 136

Darla was fired from her most recent job. Which of the following attributions would make
Darla most prone to depression, based on Seligman’s investigations into the cognitive factors
that might contribute to depression?
a. She was fired due to her lack of ability to do her job successfully.
b. She was fired due to a downturn in the economy, which resulted in massive
layoffs.
c. She was fired because of the bad mood that her boss was in on the day she was
fired.
d. She was fired because her coworker started a number of false rumours about her.

Answer 136

a. She was fired due to her lack of ability to do her job successfully.

Question 137

Darlene can’t stop thinking about her own flaws and failures. She replays negative events over
and over in her mind, and worries constantly about her lack of motivation. Which of the
following is illustrated in this example?
a. anhedonia
b. rumination
c. compulsion
d. perfectionism

Answer 137

b. rumination

Question 138

n the Featured Study, Lauren Alloy and her colleagues investigated the link between negative
thinking and vulnerability to depression. Their study involved a group of first-year college
students who had no prior history of depression. What proportion of students with a negative
cognitive style developed major depressive disorder over a 2.5-year period?
a. 3 percent
b. 8 percent
c. 12 percent
d. 17 percent

Answer 138

d. 17 percent

Question 139

In the Featured Study, Lauren Alloy and her colleagues investigated the link between negative
thinking and vulnerability to depression. Their study involved a group of first-year college
students who had no prior history of depression. What percentage of students who did NOT
have a negative cognitive style developed major depressive disorder over a 2.5-year period?
a. 1 percent
b. 5 percent
c. 20 percent
d. 40 percent

Answer 139

a. 1 percent

Question 140

. What was the greatest strength of the research methods, compared to many other studies about
correlates of depression, in the Featured Study on negative thinking and depression?
a. It used a control group.
b. It used a prospective design.
c. It used participants who were not currently medicated.
d. It used a double-blind procedure

Answer 140

b. It used a prospective design.

Question 141

What is the likely relationship between social skills and risk for depression?
a. Increased need for social interaction among extraverts puts them at risk for
depression after a relationship ends.
b. Both have common genetic foundations.
c. Those who are depressed lose their ability to interact appropriately with others, so
depression is the cause of poor social skills.
d. People with poor social skills have a harder time getting the social support and
reinforcers that we need.

Answer 141

d. People with poor social skills have a harder time getting the social support and
reinforcers that we nee

Question 142

Which of the following athletes is most likely to suffer from depression?
a. one with a concussion that damaged the occipital lobes
b. one with compression of the cervical spine
c. one with a concussion that damaged the frontal lobes
d. one with compression of the thoracic spine

Answer 142

c. one with a concussion that damaged the frontal lobes

Question 143

What does current evidence suggest about the relationship between stress and mood
disorders?
a. no link between stress and the onset of mood disorders
b. an inverse link between stress and the onset of mood disorders
c. a very weak link between stress and the onset of mood disorders
d. a moderately strong link between stress and the onset of mood disorders

Answer 143

d. a moderately strong link between stress and the onset of mood disorders

Question 144

What is the basic type of disturbance associated with the schizophrenic disorders?
a. thought
b. motor function
c. emotion
d. perception

Answer 144

a. thought

Question 145

Which of the following disorders is commonly mistaken for schizophrenia?
a. obsessive compulsive disorder
b. dissociative identity disorder
c. major depressive disorder
d. panic disorder

Answer 145

b. dissociative identity disorder

Question 146

What is the term for the symptom experienced by a person who maintains bizarre, false
beliefs that have no basis in reality?
a. hallucinations
b. obsessions
c. delusions
d. compulsions

Answer 146

c. delusions

Question 147

What is a delusion?
a. false belief that is maintained even though it is not supported by reality
b. consequence of loosening of associations
c. perceptual experience without a sensation
d. major symptom associated with dissociative disorders

Answer 147

a. false belief that is maintained even though it is not supported by reality

Question 148

Cooper is an auto mechanic at a local garage. However, he is convinced that his phone line is
tapped and all the rooms in his house have listening devices planted, so that enemy agents can
learn all his secret conversations. He never takes the same route to work two days in a row, to
prevent the enemy agents from following him and learning where he works. What is Cooper
experiencing?
a. delusions
b. hallucinations
c. obsessions
d. alogia

Answer 148

a. delusions

Question 149

Johnny believes he is the prime minister of Canada. If Johnny isn’t the prime minister, what
does his false belief represent?
a. hallucination
b. delusion
c. compulsion
d. obsession

Answer 149

b. delusion

Question 150

Ivy excitedly tells you that she has been invited to sing at the coronation of the new King of
Cyprus. You find this difficult to believe, considering Ivy sings terribly and Cyprus has an
elected government, not a monarchy. Ivy’s statements are clearly out of touch with reality.
What is Ivy experiencing?
a. hallucinations
b. obsessions
c. delusions
d. compulsions

Answer 150

c. delusions

Question 151

What is a person experiencing if he perceives stimuli that aren’t there?
a. obsessions
b. hallucinations
c. delusions
d. illusions

Answer 151

b. hallucinations

Question 152

Nabeel hears voices singing even though none are present. What is Nabeel experiencing?
a. delusions
b. loosening of associations
c. obsessions
d. hallucinations

Answer 152

d. hallucinations

Question 153

Norton hears disembodied voices all the time that give him strange commands. The voices
have told him that a spacecraft will land over the weekend and take him to a more advanced
civilization. What is the term for the voices that Norton hears?
a. obsessions
b. delusions
c. hallucinations
d. compulsions

Answer 153

c. hallucinations

Question 154

. Abby was watching a documentary on some of the horrors of the Vietnam War. Even when
she saw soldiers being blown up after stepping on land mines, she showed no emotional
reaction or response. What symptom does this illustrate?
a. avolition
b. blunted or flat affect
c. catatonic stupor
d. antisocial personality disorder

Answer 154

b. blunted or flat affect

Question 155

Which subtype of schizophrenia is marked by delusions of persecution and grandeur?
a. hebephrenic
b. catatonic
c. disorganized
d. paranoid

Answer 155

d. paranoid

Question 156

Tony believes that he is Thomas Edison, and he is convinced that his neighbours are spies
who are trying to steal his inventions. He believes the neighbours break into his house and
search for plans for new inventions when he is not home. Which disorder is most consistent
with Tony’s symptoms?
a. catatonic schizophrenia
b. disorganized schizophrenia
c. undifferentiated schizophrenia
d. paranoid schizophrenia

Answer 156

d. paranoid schizophrenia

Question 157

Tammy believes that a famous movie star is in love with her, and she saw a message from him
in the trailer for his most recent movie. She is also convinced that the star’s wife is trying to
kill her. Which of the following types of schizophrenia would fit Tammy’s symptoms best?
a. undifferentiated
b. catatonic
c. paranoid
d. disorganized

Answer 157

c. paranoid

Question 158

Shii-An will sit in one position for long periods of time, evidencing muscular rigidity. Which
disorder includes this symptom?
a. catatonic schizophrenia
b. undifferentiated schizophrenia
c. paranoid schizophrenia
d. disorganized schizophrenia

Answer 158

a. catatonic schizophrenia

Question 159

Klaus alternates between periods in which he remains motionless and seems oblivious to his
environment, and periods of hyperactivity and frenzied excitement. Which disorder is most
consistent with Klaus’s symptoms?
a. undifferentiated schizophrenia
b. catatonic schizophrenia
c. paranoid schizophrenia
d. disorganized schizophrenia

Answer 159

b. catatonic schizophrenia

Question 160

Hope often sits for hours in extremely rigid positions; during these times she seems to lose
contact with the external world and does not respond to people who try to speak to her. At
other times she becomes extremely hyperactive and rambles on incoherently. Which disorder
is most consistent with Hope’s symptoms?
a. paranoid schizophrenia
b. disorganized schizophrenia
c. catatonic schizophrenia
d. undifferentiated schizophrenia

Answer 160

c. catatonic schizophrenia

Question 161

Etienne sits all day alone on a park bench, babbling incoherently and giggling to himself.
Which disorder is most consistent with Etienne’s symptoms?
a. undifferentiated schizophrenia
b. paranoid schizophrenia
c. catatonic schizophrenia
d. disorganized schizophrenia

Answer 161

d. disorganized schizophrenia

Question 162

Tyberius wears a hat 24 hours a day and becomes extremely agitated if anyone tries to remove
it. He is convinced that small robots made of Lego blocks nibbled his ears off while he was
sleeping, and if he removes his hat his brains will leak out through the holes in the sides of his
head. In which form of schizophrenia do you typically see this type of delusion?
a. undifferentiated schizophrenia
b. disorganized schizophrenia
c. paranoid schizophrenia
d. catatonic schizophrenia

Answer 162

b. disorganized schizophrenia

Question 163

Which of the following is NOT a type of schizophrenia according to DSM-IV?
a. manic
b. undifferentiated
c. disorganized
d. paranoid

Answer 163

a. manic

Question 164

Which type of schizophrenia are people said to have who are clearly schizophrenic but who
cannot be placed into any of the three main categories for schizophrenic disorders?
a. undifferentiated schizophrenia
b. disorganized schizophrenia
c. borderline schizophrenia
d. schizophrenia in remission

Answer 164

a. undifferentiated schizophrenia

Question 165

What is characteristic of negative symptoms in schizophrenia?
a. behavioural deficits such as flattened emotion, apathy, and poverty of speech
b. behavioural excesses such as hallucinations, delusions, and bizarre behaviour
c. antisocial behaviours such as violence and rage reactions
d. dissociative behaviours and the emergence of multiple personalities

Answer 165

a. behavioural deficits such as flattened emotion, apathy, and poverty of speech

Question 166

Jack hears voices and believes that he has supernatural powers. Which type of schizophrenic
symptoms are most prevalent in Jack’s case?
a. disorganized
b. positive
c. undifferentiated
d. negative

Answer 166

b. positive

Question 167

Melanie has a blunted affect, rarely bathes, and she shows little evidence of interest in any
stimuli. If Melanie is diagnosed with schizophrenia, which type of symptoms is she
expressing?
a. positive
b. disorganized
c. undifferentiated
d. negative

Answer 167

d. negative

Question 168

What is characteristic of positive symptoms in schizophrenia?
a. compliant behaviour such as medication monitoring
b. behavioural deficits such as flattened emotion, apathy, and poverty of speech
c. dissociative behaviours and the emergence of multiple personalities
d. behavioural excesses such as hallucinations, delusions, and bizarre behaviour

Answer 168

d. behavioural excesses such as hallucinations, delusions, and bizarre behaviour

Question 169

When do individuals with schizophrenic disorders tend to show a greater responsiveness to
treatment?
a. when positive and negative symptoms alternate throughout the schizophrenic
episodes
b. when the predominant symptoms include behavioural deficits
c. when positive and negative symptoms are both evident at the same time
d. when the predominant symptoms include behavioural excesses or peculiarities

Answer 169

d. when the predominant symptoms include behavioural excesses or peculiarities

Question 170

Which of the following statements is most accurate concerning the onset of schizophrenia?
a. The onset of schizophrenia is spread evenly across almost all age groups.
b. The peak age of onset is during middle or late adulthood (age 45 and on).
c. The symptoms tend to be most severe when the disorder has a late onset.
d. The symptoms usually emerge during adolescence or early adulthood.

Answer 170

d. The symptoms usually emerge during adolescence or early adulthood

Question 171

What proportion of individuals who are diagnosed with schizophrenia can expect a reasonable
recovery with comprehensive and coordinated treatment?
a. less than one-tenth
b. approximately one-third
c. as many as one-half
d. nearly three-quarters

Answer 171

c. as many as one-half

Question 172

When does a patient with schizophrenia tend to have the most favourable prognosis?
a. when the onset occurs at an early age
b. when the onset of the disorder is gradual
c. when the patient’s family is high in expressed emotion
d. when the proportion of negative symptoms is relatively low

Answer 172

d. when the proportion of negative symptoms is relatively low

Question 173

Which of the following statements is most accurate?
a. Concordance rates for schizophrenia are the same for fraternal twins and identical
twins.
b. Concordance rates for schizophrenia are near 100 percent for identical twins.
c. Schizophrenia is caused by a single recessive gene that must be contributed by
both parents.
d. Some people inherit a polygenetically transmitted vulnerability to schizophrenia

Answer 173

d. Some people inherit a polygenetically transmitted vulnerability to schizophrenia

Question 174

. Enos and Amir are both currently 30 years old. Enos’s biological mother has schizophrenia,
but neither of his adoptive parents have the disorder. In contrast, neither of Amir’s biological
parents have schizophrenia; however his adoptive mother has schizophrenia. What should you
predict based on research that has investigated the role of genetic vulnerability in
schizophrenic disorders?
a. Enos and Amir are both at high risk for developing schizophrenia.
b. Neither Enos nor Amir is likely to develop schizophrenia.
c. Amir is unlikely to develop schizophrenia, but Enos has an increased risk of
developing schizophrenia.
d. Enos is unlikely to develop schizophrenia, but Amir has an increased risk of
developing schizophrenia

Answer 174

c. Amir is unlikely to develop schizophrenia, but Enos has an increased risk of
developing schizophrenia.

Question 175

Molly has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. What is the approximate likelihood that her
identical twin will also be diagnosed with schizophrenia at some point in her life?
a. 25 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 75 percent
d. 100 percent

Answer 175

b. 50 percent

Question 176

What is the major neurotransmitter that has been linked to schizophrenia?
a. dopamine
b. GABA
c. norepinephrine
d. acetylcholine

Answer 176

a. dopamine

Question 177

Mayra has a psychological disorder, and her doctor has prescribed a drug that affects the
levels of dopamine in her nervous system. Which of the following disorders is Mayra most
likely being treated for?
a. anxiety disorder
b. schizophrenic disorder
c. dissociative disorder
d. mood disorder

Answer 177

b. schizophrenic disorder

Question 178

Which of the following risk factors is implicated by the finding that many schizophrenics
have difficulty in basic information processing?
a. traumatic childhood experiences
b. exposure to deviant communication patterns
c. neurological defects
d. a specific recessive gene

Answer 178

c. neurological defects

Question 179

Which brain feature is suggested to have an association with chronic schizophrenic
disturbance, based on research with higher order scans and MRI scans?
a. shrunken hippocampal regions
b. enlarged temporal lobes
c. atrophied cells in the corpus callosum
d. enlarged brain ventricles

Answer 179

b. enlarged temporal lobes

Question 180

Renata recently had a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan done. The results showed that
her brain has enlarged ventricles and a thalamus that is smaller than normal. If Renata has a
psychological disorder, which disorder is most likely given the results of her MRI scan?
a. dissociative identity disorder
b. bipolar disorder
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. schizophrenia

Answer 180

d. schizophrenia

Question 181

How do typical drugs for the treatment of schizophrenia function?
a. They are dopamine agonists.
b. They are serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
c. They are norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors.
d. They are dopamine antagonists

Answer 181

d. They are dopamine antagonists

Question 182

What does the neurodevelopmental hypothesis suggest is a partial cause of schizophrenia?
a. disruptions in the normal maturational process of the brain before or at birth
b. low levels of expressed emotion in the family of the schizophrenic patient
c. abnormal levels of dopamine and serotonin in the cerebral cortex
d. genetic factors that interact with environmental stressors during infancy

Answer 182

a. disruptions in the normal maturational process of the brain before or at birth

Question 183

What happened to mothers of individuals who had an elevated risk of schizophrenia,
according to several research studies examining the role of prenatal risk factors for the
disease?
a. They took narcotic drugs during the second trimester of their pregnancy.
b. They drank heavily during the second trimester of their pregnancy.
c. They were exposed to influenza during the second trimester of their pregnancy.
d. They were exposed to high levels of stress during the second trimester of their
pregnancy.

Answer 183

c. They were exposed to influenza during the second trimester of their pregnancy.

Question 184

Which type of families are associated with the poorest prognosis when patients return to their
families after treatment for schizophrenia?
a. those with high interpersonal support
b. those with low experienced emotion
c. those with low communication deviance
d. those with high expressed emotion

Answer 184

d. those with high expressed emotion

Question 185

Jazmine has just returned home after receiving treatment for schizophrenia. The therapist who
is supervising her case is aware that Jazmine’s family is high in expressed emotion. What
should Jazmine’s therapist expect under these conditions?
a. Jazmine will need little or no medication because she will have high levels of
social support.
b. Jazmine has is likely to develop positive symptoms.
c. Jazmine has a high risk of relapse.
d. Jazmine is likely to develop symptoms of bipolar disorder.

Answer 185

c. Jazmine has a high risk of relapse.

Question 186

What does the “vulnerability” model of schizophrenia suggest is the trigger for schizophrenia?
a. psychological weakness or vulnerability
b. predisposing factors that interact with stressful life events
c. genetic-based deficiency of certain neurotransmitters
d. inherent physical weakness of the brain to deal with stress

Answer 186

b. predisposing factors that interact with stressful life events

Question 187

What characterizes personality disorders?
a. inability to function outside a hospital setting
b. extremely inconsistent behaviour across a variety of situations
c. extreme, inflexible personality traits
d. hallucinations and delusions

Answer 187

c. extreme, inflexible personality traits

Question 188

Lukas does not trust anyone. He is convinced that no one around him is truthful, and
everything they say to him is a lie. He is extremely suspicious of other people’s motives, and
he often flies into a jealous rage when his wife speaks to other men. Which cluster of
disorders is most consistent with Lukas’s symptoms if he has a personality disorder?
a. neurotic/dissociative
b. anxious/fearful
c. odd/eccentric
d. dramatic/impulsive

Answer 188

c. odd/eccentric

Question 189

Jillian lets her husband keep all the financial records for the family, and she expects him to
make all the decisions that affect the family. She refuses to make any decisions on her own,
and if anything unexpected occurs, she calls her husband at work to ask for his advice. Which
cluster of disorders is most consistent with Jillian’s symptoms if she has a personality
disorder?
a. odd/eccentric
b. anxious/fearful
c. neurotic/dissociative
d. dramatic/impulsive

Answer 189

b. anxious/fearful

Question 190

. Erick is impulsive and unpredictable. His moods seem to be constantly changing and all his
interpersonal relationships seem to be very unstable. Which cluster of disorders is most
consistent with Erick’s symptoms if he has a personality disorder?
a. anxious/fearful
b. dramatic/impulsive
c. odd/eccentric
d. neurotic/dissociative

Answer 190

b. dramatic/impulsive

Question 191

What do the avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive personality disorders have in
common?
a. maladaptive efforts to control anxiety and fear
b. mistrustfulness and the inability to connect emotionally with others
c. a flair for overdramatizing events
d. highly impulsive behaviour

Answer 191

a. maladaptive efforts to control anxiety and fear

Question 192

What do the histrionic and borderline personality disorders have in common?
a. highly impulsive behaviour and a flair for overdramatizing events
b. high levels of communication deviance
c. maladaptive efforts to control anxiety and fear
d. mistrustfulness and the inability to connect emotionally with others

Answer 192

a. highly impulsive behaviour and a flair for overdramatizing events

Question 193

Nancy withdraws socially because of an intense fear of rejection. Wendy withdraws socially
due to a lack of interest in interpersonal intimacy. If both women were diagnosed with
personality disorders, what would they be?
a. Nancy has a schizoid personality and Wendy has a paranoid personality.
b. Nancy has a dependent personality and Wendy has a schizotypal personality.
c. Nancy has an avoidant personality and Wendy has a schizoid personality.
d. Nancy has an avoidant personality and Wendy has a paranoid personality

Answer 193

c. Nancy has an avoidant personality and Wendy has a schizoid personality.

Question 194

. Sophia has always been preoccupied with schedules, lists, and trivial details. She plans
everything down to the last detail, and becomes very upset if things don’t work out the way
she has planned. Last week, Sophia went in for a psychological assessment, and based on that
assessment, she was told that she might have a personality disorder. Which personality
disorder is consistent with Sophia’s behaviour?
a. borderline
b. schizotypal
c. histrionic
d. obsessive-compulsive

Answer 194

d. obsessive-compulsive

Question 195

Chris always expects special treatment, and he seems to be preoccupied with his own success.
His interpersonal relationships are generally superficial because he seems to lack the ability to
understand how others feel. Which personality disorder is most consistent with Chris’s
personality?
a. avoidant
b. narcissistic
c. obsessive-compulsive
d. schizotypal

Answer 195

b. narcissistic

Question 196

Ellen is self-centred, immature, and excitable. She craves attention, especially from men, with
whom she is flirtatious and seductive. Which personality disorder is most consistent with
Ellen’s personality?
a. avoidant
b. histrionic
c. dependent
d. schizoid

Answer 196

b. histrionic

Question 197

Which of the following could you predict if you know that someone has been diagnosed with
a personality disorder?
a. There is a high likelihood that the symptoms would fit more than one personality
disorder.
b. The individual will likely require hospitalization at some point.
c. The likelihood of complete remission is high.
d. The likelihood of comorbidity with a mood disorder is very high.

Answer 197

a. There is a high likelihood that the symptoms would fit more than one personality
disorder.

Question 198

Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of the antisocial personality?
a. aggressiveness
b. manipulative behaviour
c. social charm
d. excessive guilt

Answer 198

d. excessive guilt

Question 199

What diagnosis is used for a person who does not conform to the accepted norms of morality
and behaviour and is impulsive, callous, and manipulative?
a. borderline personality disorder
b. histrionic personality disorder
c. antisocial personality disorder
d. paranoid personality disorder

Answer 199

c. antisocial personality disorder

Question 200

Ruth was convicted of five separate counts of fraud. She had used her charm to persuade
elderly pensioners to sign their life savings over to her. She confessed to the crimes, but she
showed no remorse for her actions. She even bragged at the trial that she would do it all again
when she had the chance. Which disorder is consistent with Ruth’s behaviour?
a. narcissistic personality disorder
b. avoidant personality disorder
c. antisocial personality disorder
d. bipolar disorder

Answer 200

c. antisocial personality disorder

Question 201

In the past nine months, Andrew has been fired by three different employers. He was
unreliable and often missed work, and each employer finally let him go when they found he
had been stealing money and materials. Andrew feels no remorse over his actions, but he has
managed to convince each of his former employers that he is sorry for his actions, and none of
the employers plans to press any charges. Which diagnosis is consistent with Andrew’s
behaviour?
a. bipolar disorder
b. dissociative identity disorder
c. antisocial personality disorder
d. avoidant personality disorder

Answer 201

c. antisocial personality disorder

Question 202

Which of the following statements is most accurate?
a. Antisocial personalities are, by definition, violent criminals.
b. Antisocial personalities tend to have an excessively high tolerance for frustration.
c. Although they may be superficially charming, antisocial personalities rarely
experience genuine affection for anyone.
d. Antisocial personalities act as they do out of terror of punishment or humiliation.

Answer 202

c. Although they may be superficially charming, antisocial personalities rarely
experience genuine affection for anyone.

Question 203

Which of the following has NOT been proposed as a potential biological factor that might
contribute to the development of antisocial personality disorder?
a. a genetic predisposition to the disorder
b. a sluggish autonomic nervous system
c. abnormalities in GABA and dopamine levels in the brain
d. subtle prenatal neurological damage

Answer 203

c. abnormalities in GABA and dopamine levels in the brain

Question 204

Paxton comes from a home where discipline was erratic, and he was physically abused by his
parents. His parents were also self-centered and exploitive. Based on research, which of the
following disorders is Paxton at increased risk of developing due to this home environment?
a. paranoid schizophrenia
b. one of the somatoform disorders
c. antisocial personality disorder
d. bipolar disorder

Answer 204

c. antisocial personality disorder

Question 205

What is the category of disorders that includes autism?
a. psychotic disorders
b. pervasive developmental disorders
c. personality disorders
d. dissociative disorders

Answer 205

b. pervasive developmental disorders

Question 206

Zachary is 16 years old, and has a lot of difficulty with social interactions. He has a hard time
understanding the perspective of other people and he often engages in repetitive behaviours
that others find very odd. Which of the following disorders best fits Zachary’s behaviour?
a. obsessive compulsive disorder
b. autistic disorder
c. borderline personality disorder
d. dissociative identity disorder

Answer 206

a. obsessive compulsive disorder

Question 207

Mimi has been diagnosed with autistic disorder. Which of the following will likely cause
social problems for Mimi?
a. manipulative behaviour
b. hostile attribution errors
c. paranoia
d. limited theory of mind

Answer 207

d. limited theory of mind

Question 208

Which of the following does the legal status of insanity indicate?
a. a person has a chronic mental illness that is not responsive to treatment
b. an individual is dangerous to him- or herself, or to others
c. a defendant is unable to understand the nature and purpose of legal proceedings
d. a person cannot be held responsible for his or her actions because of mental illness

Answer 208

d. a person cannot be held responsible for his or her actions because of mental illness

Question 209

what is the modern term used for the “insanity” designation in Canada?
a. not criminally responsible on account of mental disorder
b. unfit to stand trial
c. compromised by automatism
d. not guilty by reason of insanity

Answer 209

a. not criminally responsible on account of mental disorder

Question 210

Jeffrey Dahmer was judged to be legally sane, even though he admitted to butchering,
cannibalizing, and then having sex with the dead bodies of over a dozen young men. What did
the judgment of legal sanity mean?
a. He was able to appreciate the fact that his actions were legally or morally wrong at
the time of the crime.
b. His actions failed to meet the criteria of cultural deviance.
c. He had recovered from his psychological disorder by the time the trial took place.
d. His actions failed to meet the criteria of personal distress

Answer 210

a. He was able to appreciate the fact that his actions were legally or morally wrong at
the time of the crime.

Question 211

Which of the following conditions have been recognized as causes of automatism, and could
be used as a defence in court?
a. sleepwalking and carbon monoxide poisoning
b. antisocial personality disorder
c. schizophrenia and bipolar disorder
d. mental retardation

Answer 211

a. sleepwalking and carbon monoxide poisoning

Question 212

What is suggested by the pancultural view of psychological disorders?
a. Basic standards of normality and abnormality are universal across cultures.
b. Culture-bound disorders demonstrate the subjectivity of psychological diagnosis.
c. Western diagnostic concepts have limited validity or utility in other cultural
contexts.
d. There are no universal standards of normality and abnormality.

Answer 212

a. Basic standards of normality and abnormality are universal across cultures

Question 213

The prevalence estimates of both schizophrenia and bipolar disorders are roughly comparable
across diverse cultures. Which of the following views of psychological disorders does this
finding support?
a. stress-vulnerability model
b. relativistic
c. pancultural
d. idiosyncratic

Answer 213

c. pancultural

Question 214

Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder that seems to occur only in Western cultures. Which of
the following views of psychological disorders does the discovery of culture-bound disorders,
such as anorexia nervosa, lend support to?
a. relativistic
b. stress-vulnerability model
c. idiosyncratic
d. pancultural

Answer 214

a. relativistic

Question 215

Which of the following disorders is rarely seen outside affluent Western cultures?
a. bipolar illness
b. anorexia nervosa
c. depression
d. schizophrenia

Answer 215

b. anorexia nervosa

Question 216

Which of the following is NOT an example of a culture-bound disorder?
a. anorexia nervosa
b. bipolar disorder
c. windingo
d. koro

Answer 216

b. bipolar disorder

Question 217

The key symptoms of depression in Western cultures are often cognitive symptoms, such as
guilt and self-blame. The key symptoms of depression in non-Western cultures are often
somatic symptoms, such as headaches and fatigue. Which of the following views of
psychological disorders is supported by the fact that the same disorder can manifest itself in
different ways in Western and non-Western cultures?
a. relativistic
b. stress-vulnerability model
c. pancultural
d. idiosyncratic

Answer 217

a. relativistic

Question 218

For which of the major disorders are symptom patterns most culturally variable?
a. dissociative disorders
b. bipolar illness
c. schizophrenia
d. depression

Answer 218

d. depression

Question 219

Which of your text’s unifying themes is illustrated by the development of schizophrenia
involving a complex interplay among a variety of psychological, biological, and social
factors?
a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes.
b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.
c. Psychology is theoretically diverse.
d. Our experience of the world is highly subjective.

Answer 219

a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes.

Question 220

Which of the following is true of mood disorders and schizophrenic disorders, according to
the stress-vulnerability model?
a. Vulnerability to these disorders is determined by heredity alone.
b. Vulnerability to these disorders is determined by the environment alone.
c. Traumatic stress is the major cause of these disorders.
d. These disorders emerge when high biological vulnerability combines with high
stress.

Answer 220

d. These disorders emerge when high biological vulnerability combines with high
stress.

Question 221

Claire has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. What should you expect to find in Claire’s
medical record, based on the physical symptoms listed in your text?
a. cardiac arrhythmias and elevated blood pressure
b. metabolic disturbances and dental problems
c. amenorrhea and low blood pressure
d. dental problems and cardiac arrhythmias

Answer 221

c. amenorrhea and low blood pressure

Question 222

Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding eating disorders?
a. Bulimia nervosa is a more life-threatening condition than anorexia nervosa.
b. Both bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa lead to death in 2–10 percent of
patients.
c. While bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa are both serious conditions, neither is
a life-threatening condition.
d. Anorexia nervosa is a more life-threatening condition than bulimia nervosa.

Answer 222

d. Anorexia nervosa is a more life-threatening condition than bulimia nervosa.

Question 223

Scarlett has anorexia nervosa and Bridget has bulimia nervosa. What should you predict based
on the research into these two disorders?
a. Both individuals are likely to deny that their eating behaviour is pathological.
b. Scarlett will be more likely to recognize that her eating behaviour is pathological.
c. Both individuals will recognize their eating behaviour is pathological, but neither
will be willing to seek treatment.
d. Bridget will be more likely to recognize that her eating behaviour is pathological.

Answer 223

d. Bridget will be more likely to recognize that her eating behaviour is pathological.

Question 224

Approximately what percentage of the individuals who develop either anorexia nervosa or
bulimia nervosa are females?
a. 90 to 95 percent
b. 70 to 75 percent
c. 50 to 55 percent
d. 20 to 25 percent

Answer 224

a. 90 to 95 percent

Question 225

Fiona has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa. What should you expect to find in Fiona’s
medical record, based on the physical symptoms listed in your text?
a. amenorrhea and low blood pressure
b. cardiac arrhythmias and osteoporosis
c. dental problems and cardiac arrhythmias
d. dental problems and elevated blood pressure

Answer 225

c. dental problems and cardiac arrhythmias

Question 226

What percentages of young women develop anorexia nervosa and bulimia, respectively?
a. 1 to 1.5 percent anorexia; 2 to 3 percent bulimia
b. 2 to 3 percent anorexia; 1 to 1.5 percent bulimia
c. 10 percent anorexia; 20 percent bulimia
d. 20 percent anorexia; 5 percent bulimia

Answer 226

a. 1 to 1.5 percent anorexia; 2 to 3 percent bulimia

Question 227

Melissa has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following traits are most
likely to be seen if Melissa were to complete a personality assessment?
a. impulsive, extroverted, and obsessive
b. obsessive, rigid, and emotionally restrained
c. impulsive, overly sensitive, and low in self-esteem
d. rigid, low in self-esteem, and introverted

Answer 227

b. obsessive, rigid, and emotionally restrained

Question 228

Jacqueline has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa. Which pattern of traits is likely to be
seen if Jacqueline were to complete a personality assessment?
a. impulsive, extroverted, and obsessive
b. rigid, low in self-esteem, and introverted
c. obsessive, rigid, and emotionally restrained
d. impulsive, overly sensitive, and low in self-esteem

Answer 228

d. impulsive, overly sensitive, and low in self-esteem

Question 229

Which of the following is NOT one of the factors that have been linked to the development of
anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa in young women?
a. mothers who model unhealthy dieting behaviours for their daughters
b. parents who are negligent or uninvolved in their children’s lives
c. a genetic vulnerability to eating disorders
d. the presence of rigid, all-or-none thinking and maladaptive beliefs

Answer 229

b. parents who are negligent or uninvolved in their children’s lives

Question 230

Stanley was surprised to hear that Jennifer had been treated by a psychiatrist ten years ago.
When he first met Jennifer she seemed to be calm and rational, and she certainly didn’t look
“psychotic.” Which of the following is likely, if you were to ask Stanley to estimate the
overall prevalence of psychological disorders?
a. The conjunction fallacy would cause him to overestimate the overall prevalence
rate.
b. The availability heuristic would cause him to underestimate the overall prevalence
rate.
c. The representativeness heuristic would cause him to overestimate the overall
prevalence rate.
d. The representativeness heuristic would cause him to underestimate the overall
prevalence rate.

Answer 230

d. The representativeness heuristic would cause him to underestimate the overall
prevalence rate.

Question 231

Often, cases of dissociative identity disorder (multiple personality disorder) receive wide
press coverage, leading people to believe this disorder is a relatively common psychological
problem when, in fact, it is quite rare. Which of the following concepts is illustrated by this
example?
a. availability heuristic
b. hindsight bias
c. representativeness heuristic
d. conjunction fallacy

Answer 231

a. availability heuristic

Question 232

Which of the following disorders would be most likely to lead to a person’s being declared
legally incompetent?
a. antisocial personality disorder
b. substance-abuse disorder
c. schizophrenic disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder

Answer 232

c. schizophrenic disorder

Question 233

It has been said that not all deviant behaviour is maladaptive, but all maladaptive behaviour is
deviant. Discuss this idea, based on what you’ve learned about the definition and criteria of
abnormal behaviour.

Answer 233

Good answers should reflect an understanding of the various ways of defining and
characterizing abnormal behaviour. A deviant behaviour is one that deviates from the norm
and is considered inappropriate in one’s society. Most students can come up with several
examples of such deviant behaviour that may, nevertheless, be adaptive in certain
circumstances. Such deviant behaviour is not maladaptive. On the other hand, behaviour is
maladaptive when it interferes with one’s functioning in one or more of the various arenas of
life (social, occupational, etc.). Most societies have evolved in such a way that these kinds of
behaviours are both uncommon and considered inappropriate, thus deviant. There may be
exceptions here, too, however

Question 234

Freud believed that most, if not all, psychological disorders are mainly the result of anxiety.
However, Freudian explanations of the anxiety disorders receive much less attention today
than they once did. From what you’ve learned of Freudian theory, how would a Freudian
explanation of the etiology of the anxiety disorders differ from the types of explanations
presented in your text?

Answer 234

Freud would say that the anxiety disorders result from internal events, drives, and motivations
that the patient is not conscious of. We normally feel anxiety when we are threatened, but in
the case of anxiety disorders, anxiety is experienced even when we’re not aware of any
dangerous threat. Often there’s just the feeling of danger or a threat being present. Everyone
uses defence mechanisms to alleviate feelings of anxiety, but in clinical cases, these
mechanisms are not effective enough to provide relief. Anxiety that’s severe enough to be
considered abnormal may be caused by unacceptable impulses that are on the verge of
breaking into consciousness, threatened disapproval, withdrawal of love, and fear of
abandonment. These are examples of events that might be threatening to a small child and
which might be thrust into the unconscious, only to emerge later in the form of the symptoms
of an anxiety disorder.
Getting more specific, a phobic object or situation would symbolically stand for something
that the patient is frightened of, either consciously or unconsciously. Obsessions and
compulsions function by directing attention away from fearful, unconscious thoughts

Question 235

There appear to be some similarities between post-traumatic stress disorder and the
dissociative disorders in that most cases of each type of disorder are thought to result from
extreme stress. How would you justify creating separate classifications for these disorders?

Answer 235

Students should demonstrate an understanding of the characteristics of each type of disorder,
and should focus on the differences between them that justify classifying them separately.
Stress plays a role in the etiology of both, but reactions to the stress experienced are quite
different for the two types of disorder. Characteristic of post-traumatic stress disorder is the
inability to get the traumatic experience out of mind, and other evidence of being
“overinvolved” with the stressful situation. Symptoms may persist for quite some time.
In cases of dissociative disorders, rather than being overinvolved with the stressful situation,
patients use various means to escape involvement and its attendant anxieties and conflicts.
These means involve somehow altering consciousness in order to blot out the stressful
experience. Often dissociative disorders begin and end suddenly. These cases are often traced
to traumatic events in childhood, though the disorder may not appear until adulthood.

Question 236

Some of the most prominent modern theories of the mood disorders focus primarily on
cognitive factors. You learned in Chapter 10 that some theorists believe the experience of
emotion is heavily influenced by cognitive factors. In what ways do some of these cognitive
theories of emotion agree with theories about cognitive factors in the etiology of the mood
disorders?

Answer 236

Essentially, cognitive theories of the mood disorders say that depression, in particular, results
from a particular kind of thinking, especially a negative attributional style. Schachter’s twofactor theory of emotion states that we experience particular emotions through interpreting
physiological arousal in accordance with the current environment. If situational cues appear to
be in accord with an explanation of negative events that places the blame on the individual,
then one may experience unpleasant emotions and depression may result. If this pattern of
interpreting physiological arousal hardens into one’s habitual attributional style, then clinical
depression may result

Question 237

According to the DSM-IV, individuals should not be diagnosed as having a personality
disorder before they’re 18 years old because personality is not well established before then.
From what you know about personality development (Chapters 11 and 12), can you support
this position? You may wish to answer from the particular viewpoint of one of the personality
theorists covered in your text (e.g., Erikson, Mischel, Maslow, or others)

Answer 237

Answers should reveal an understanding of the category of personality disorders as well as
something about personality development. A couple of examples of outlines for answers
follow:
In personality disorders the individual shows extreme, inflexible personality traits that cause
subjective distress or impaired social and occupational functioning. It’s reasonable to think
that these extreme traits develop in basically the same way that more normal personality traits
develop. According to Erikson, certain crises arise at predictable life stages within a society,
and individuals are faced with the challenge of dealing satisfactorily with them if their
personality and emotional status are to be healthy. Less than optimal coping with the
challenges of a particular life crisis might lead to a personality disorder. Most of the
personality disorders seem to involve traits that Erikson believes are influenced by social
experiences during the years before the age of 18. So he might agree that we’re unlikely to see
personality disorders before that age.
The social learning theorists would point to observational learning as the prime mechanism by
which maladaptive personality traits might develop. From material in your text, we’re given
no clear indication that Bandura believed that personality development occurred mainly in
childhood, although his best-known research has been with children. Like others in the larger
learning-theory camp, social learning theorists believe that learning continues to occur
throughout life. So there’s no principled reason why they’d restrict the emergence of extreme
personality traits to any particular life stage.