UNIT 7 Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Name 4 types of glial cells and describe the function of each

A

astrocytes

  • most abundant
  • regulation of metabolic environment
  • repair neuron after neuronal injury

ependymal cells

  • concentrated in roof of 3rd/4th ventricles & SC
  • form the choroid plexus, which produces CSF

oligodendrocytes

  • form the myeline sheath in the CNS
  • schwann cells form the myelin sheath in the PNS

microglia
- act as macrophages and phagocytize neuronal debris

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2
Q

list the name and function of the 4 lobes of the cerebral cortex

A

frontal: motor cortex
parietal: somatic sensory cortex
occipital: vision cortex
temporal: auditory and speech

  • Wernicke’s area: understanding speech
  • Broca’s area: motor control of speech
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3
Q

Name the 12 cranial nerves

A
1 olfactory
2 optic
3 oculomotor
4 trochlear
5 trigeminal
6 abducens
7  facial
8 Acoustic
9 glossopharyngeal
10 vagus
11 spinal accessory
12 hypoglossal

O o o to touch and feel a girl’s vagina, ah heavenly

How to know which are sensory, motor, or both:
1 Some
2 Say
3 Marry
4 Money
5 But
6 My
7 Brother
8 Says
9 Bad
10 Business
11 Marrying
12 Money

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4
Q

What CNs provide motor control of the eyes? How does each nerve contribute to the eye’s movement?

A

CN 3, 4, 6:

CN III:

  • up (in, out, and straight)
  • in
  • down (out and straight)

CN IV
- in and down

CN VI
- out

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5
Q

What bedside tests are used to assess the CN?

A
I smell
II vision
III eye movement, pupil constriction
IV eye movement
V facial sensation (+ ant 2/3 tongue sensation)
VI eye movement
VII facial movement except chewing 
VIII hearing, balance
IX posterior 1/3 tongue sensation
X swallowing
XI shoulder shrug
XII tongue movement
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6
Q

Which CN resides in the CNS? What is the implication of this?

A

CN II is the only CN that is part of the CNS (the rest are part of the Peripheral nervous system).

This means that CN II is the only CN that is surrounded by dura and surrounded by meninges, it’s bathed in CSF!

If you accidentally inject local anesthetic into the optic nerve during eye regional block, you gave them a subarchnoid block = CNS depression and respiratory arrest!!!

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7
Q

What is tic douloureux? What CN contributes to this problem?

A

trigeminal neuralgia
CN 5

causes excruciating neuropathic pain in the face

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8
Q

What is Bell’s palsy? What CN contributes to this problem?

A

CN 7

causes ipsilateral facial paralysis

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9
Q

What is the function of CSF, and where is it located?

A

cushions the brain, provides buoyancy, and delivers optimal conditions for neurologic function.

It is located in the:

  • ventricles (lateral, 3rd, and 4th)
  • cisterns around the brain
  • subarachnoid space in brain & SC
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10
Q

What regions of the brain are NOT protected by the BBB?

A

BBB separates the CSF from the plasma. It has tight junctions that restrict pass of large molecules & ions.

The BBB isn’t present at the chemoreceptor trigger zone, posterior pituitary gland, pineal gland, choroid plexus, and parts of the hypothalamus

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11
Q

What is the normal volume and specific gravity of CSF?

A

volume 150mL

spec grav 1.002-1.009

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12
Q

Describe the production, circulation, and absorption of CSF.

A

CSF production: ependymal cells of the choroid plexus (of lateral ventricles), rate of 30mL/hr

need to match to image

absorption: arachnoid villi within the superior sagittal sinus (to the venous circulation)

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13
Q

What is the formula for CBF? what are the normal values for global, cortical, and subcortical flow?

A

CBF = CPP/CVR
(CVR = cerebral vascular resistance)

  • global 45-55mL/100g (or 15% of CO)
  • cortical 75-80mL/100g
  • subcortical 20mL/100g
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14
Q

What are the 5 determinants of CBF? You need to know where to label it on the graph

A
CMRO2
CPP
venous pressure
PaCO2
PaO2
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15
Q

What is the normal value for CMRO2? What factors cause it to increase? To decrease?

A

3.0-3.8mL O2/100g brain tissue/min- how much O2 the brain consumes per minute

decreased by hypothermia (7%/1C), IA, propofol, etomidate, barbs peb

increased by hyperthermia, ketamine, N2O

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16
Q

What is the formula for CPP? What is normal?

A

CPP = MAP - ICP (or CVP, whichever is higher)

autoregulation via vessel diameter changes to provide a constant CPP of 50-150mmHg

  • i.e. MAP needs to be higher
  • autoreg is influenced by products of local metabolism, myogenic mechanisms, and autonomic innervation
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17
Q

What are the consequences of a CPP that exceeds the limits of autoregulation (too high and too low?)

A

CPP <50

  • vessels are maximally dilated
  • CBF becomes pressure dependent
  • risk of cerebral hypoperfusion

CPP >150

  • vessels are maximally constricted
  • CBF becomes pressure dependent
  • risk of cerebral edema & hemorrhage
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18
Q

list 4 conditions that reduce CPP as a function of increased venous pressure.

A

a high venous pressure decreased cerebral venous drainage & increases cerebral volume –> backpressure is created to the brain that reduces the arterial/venous pressure gradient (MAP-CVP)

conditions that impair drainage:

  • jugular compression d/t head position
  • increased intrathoracic pressure d/t cough, PEEP
  • vena cava thrombosis
  • vena cava syndrome
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19
Q

What is the relationship b/n PaCO2 and CBF? What physiologic mechanism is responsible for this?

A

linear

  • pH of the CSF around the arterioles controls the cerebral vascular resistance
  • at a PaCO2 of 40mmHg, CBF is 50mL/100g tissue/min
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20
Q

At what PaCO2 does maximal cerebral vasodilation occur? How about maximal cerebral vasoconstriction?

A

for every 1mmHg change in PaCO2, CBF will change by 1-2mL/100g tissue/min

max vasodilation occurs at PaCO2 of 80-100mmhg

max vasoconstriction occurs at PaCO2 of 25mmHg

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21
Q

What is the relationship b/n CMRO2 and CBF?

A
  • things that increase the amount of O2 the brain uses (CMRO2) tend to cause cerebral vasodilation (increased CBF) –> hyperthermia, ketamine
  • things that decrease CMRO2 tend to cause cerebral vasoconstriction (decreased CBF) –> hypothermia, propofol

halogenated anesthetics are an exception; they decouple the relationship: reduce CMRO2, but also cause cerebral vasodilation

  • this is why TIVA is a better choice w/ intracranial hypertension
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22
Q

How do acidosis & alkalosis affect CBF?

A

resp acidosis = increased CBF
resp alkalosis = decreased CBF

met acidosis/alkalosis don’t directly affect CBF. This is because H+ doesn’t pass through the BBB. A compensatory change in MV can, however, affect CBF.

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23
Q

How does PaO2 affect CBF?

A

PaO2 <50-60mmHg causes cerebral vasodilation & increases CBF. So don’t let your patient become hypoxic and the PaO2 drop less than 50mmHg

When PaO2 is >60mmHg, it doesn’t affect CBF.

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24
Q

What is the normal ICP? What values are considered abnormal?

A

ICP is the supratentorial CSF pressure
normal = 5-15mmHg
cerebral HTN > 20mmHg

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25
Q

When is ICP measurement indicated? What is the gold standard for measurement?

A

when GCS <7

intraventricular catheter is the gold standard

other ways:

  • subdural bolt
  • catheter placed over the convexity of the cerebral cortex
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26
Q

List the s/s of intracranial HTN

A
HA
N/V
papilledema (swelling of the optic nerve)
focal neurologic deficit
decreased LOC
seizures
coma
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27
Q

discuss the monroe-kellie hypothesis

A
  • if one component increases in volume, another component must decrease in order to maintain constant pressure
  • remember intracranial compliance curve
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28
Q

What is Cushing’s triad? What is the clinical relevance of this reflex?

A

indicates intracranial hypertension

  • HTN
  • bradycardia
  • irregular respirations

increased ICP –> decreased CPP w/ compensatory HTN
–> baroreceptor reflex activation
compression of medulla –> irregular respirations

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29
Q

name 4 areas where brain herniation can occur.

A
  1. of the cingulate gyrus under the falx
  2. transtenotorial
  3. cerebellar tonsils via the foramen magnum
  4. via a site of surgery or trauma
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30
Q

How does hyperventilation affect CBF? What is the ideal PaCO2 to achieve this effect?

A

CO2 dilates vessels = decreased CVR = increases CBF = increases ICP

hyperventilation causes vasoconstriction and decreases CBF = decreases ICP

lowering PaCO2 <30 increases the risk of cerebral ischemia d/t vasoconstriction & L shift of the oxyHgb dissociation curve. Don’t hyperventilate the PaCO2 below 30

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31
Q

How do NTG & SNP affect ICP?

A

cerebral vasodilators = increases CBF = increase ICP

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32
Q

How does head position affect ICP?

A

head elevation >30 degrees facilitates venous drainage away from the brain

neck flexion or extension can compress the jugular veins, reduce venous outflow, increase CBV, and increase ICP

head down positions increase CBV & ICP

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33
Q

How does mannitol reduce ICP? What problems can arise when mannitol is used in this way?

A

0.25-1g/kg increases serum osm & “pulls” water across the BBB towards the bloodstream for excretion

  • if BBB is disrupted, mannitol enters the brain & promotes cerebral edema
  • mannitol transiently increases blood volume, which can increase ICP & stress the failing heart bad for low EF patients
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34
Q

describe anterior & posterior circulation of the brain. Where do these pathways converge?

A

converge at the circle of willis

anterior
ICA enter skull via foramen lacerum
aorta –> carotid –> ICA –> circle of willis –> cerebral hemispheres

posterior
vertebral a enter skull via foramen magnum
aorta –> SC –> vertebral –> basilar –> posterior fossa structures & cervical SC

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35
Q

Describe the anatomy of the circle of willis. Need to know how to label

A

primary function of the circle of willis is to provide redundancy of blood flow in the brain.

If one side of the circle becomes occluded, the other side should theoretically be able to perfuse the affected areas of the brain

- Basilar artery 
- Posterior cerebral artery 
- Posterior communicating artery 
- Middle cerebral artery 
- Anterior cerebral artery
- Anterior cerebral communicating artery 
Know how to label the main arteries
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36
Q

Which population of stroke patients should receive a thrombolytic agent?

A

CVA d/t thrombosis
diagnosis must be made by emergent head CT prior to administration

if tx can begin <3hrs after onset of symptoms, the pt should receive tPA
- aspirin is acceptable if tPA cannot be administered

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37
Q

What is the relationship b/n hyperglycemia & cerebral hypoxia?

A

During cerebral hypoxia, glucose is converted to lactic acid. Cerebral acidosis destroys brain tissue & is associated w/ worse outcomes

monitor serum glucose, treat hyperglycemia, be careful administering dextrose containing IVF

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38
Q

in the context of cerebral aneurysm, how is transmural pressure calculated?

A

an increased transmural pressure predisposes the aneurysm to rupture.

transmural pressure = MAP - ICP

MAP = pressure pushing outward against the aneurysmal sac
ICP = counterpressure that pushes against it.
–> creates a tamponade effect

risk of rupture is increased by HTN and/or acute reduction in ICP

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39
Q

What is the most common clinical finding in a patient w/ SAH? What are the other s/s?

A

WHOL (worst HA of life)

others

  • LOC (50%)
  • neurologic deficits
  • N/V
  • photophobia
  • fever
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40
Q

What is the most significant source of M&M in the patient w/ SAH?

A

cerebral vasospasm- due to delayed contraction of the cerebral arteries can lead to cerebral infarction

Free Hgb that is in contact w/ the outer surface of the cerebral arteries increases the risk

there is a correlation b/n amount of blood observed on CT & vasospasm incidence

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41
Q

What is the incidence of cerebral vasospasm? When is it most likely to occur?

A

25% of patients

most likely 4-9days after SAH!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

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42
Q

What is the treatment for cerebral vasospasm?

A

triple H therapy (hypervolemia, HTN, permissive hemodilution to Hct 27-32%)

nimodipine (CCB) reduces M&M associated w/ vasospasm –> doesn’t actual reduce the spasm, but increases the collateral blood flow

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43
Q

during endovascular coil placement for a cerebral aneurysm, the aneurysm ruptures. What is the best treatment at this time?

A
  • Give them protamine 1mg/100U heparin
  • low/normal MAP
  • adenosine to temporarily arrest the heart to see where the bleeding is
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44
Q

be able to calculate the Glascow coma scale

A

eyes (1-4)
motor (1-6)
verbal (1-5)

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45
Q

How do you treat the patient w/ an ICH who is on warfarin?

A
  • FFP
  • prothrombin complex concentrate
  • recombinant factor 7a

vitamin K isn’t the best option for acute warfarin reversal

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46
Q

How do you treat the patient w/ an intracranial hemorrhage who is on clopidogrel?

A
We need to reverse clopidogrel with a platelet transfusion (aspirin can be reversed this way too)

there is also evidence of reversal w/ recombinant factor VIIa
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47
Q

What are two common ways of reducing ICP that should specifically be avoided in the patient w/ a TBI?

A

hyperventilation- can worsen cerebral ischemia + it’s only indicated as a temp measure

steroids- worsen neurologic outcome in traumatic brain injury

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48
Q

Is N2O safe in the pt w/ TBI?

A

No

other injuries, such as pneumothorax, may only become evident after anesthetic induction & PPV

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49
Q

compare and contrast the 5 types of seizures.

A

grand mal

  • generalized tonic/clonic activity
  • apnea, respiratory arrest –> hypoxia
  • tx: propofol, diazepam
  • surgical: vagal nerve stim or rsxn of foci

focal cortical

  • localized to a particular cortical region
  • can be motor or sensory
  • usually no LOC

absence (petit mal)
- temporary loss of awareness staring into space and blinking
- more common in children

akinetic
- temporary lost of consciousness and loss of postural tone (can result in fall & TBI)
- more common in children

status epilepticus

  • seizure activity >30min or 2 grand mal w/out regaining consciousness in between
  • resp arrest –> hypoxia
  • tx: phenobarb, phenytoin, benzos, propofol, and even GA
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50
Q

What is the relationship b/n etomidate and seizures

A

etomidate commonly causes myoclonus. This is not associated w/ increased EEG activity in those that do not have epilepsy.

In those w/ sz disorders, etomidate (or methohexital or alfentanil) increases EEG activity and can be used to help determine location of seizure foci during cortical mapping

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51
Q

Describe the patho of Alzheimer’s disease

A

diffuse beta amyloid rich plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the brain

consequences:
- dysfunctional synaptic transmission (most notable at nACh neurons)
- apoptosis (programmed cell death)

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52
Q

What class of drugs is used to treat Alzheimer’s disease?How do they interact w/ succinylcholine?

A

tx is palliative & aims to restore the [ACh]; cholinesterase inhibitors (tacrine, donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine)

cholinesterase inhibitors increase the DOA of succ, although the clinical significance is debatable

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53
Q

Describe the patho of Parkinson’s disease.

A

dopaminergic neurons in the basal ganglia are destroyed —> imbalance of DA & ACh (relative ACh increase)

this leads to suppression of corticospinal motor system + overactivity of extrapyramidal motor system

-skeletal muscle tremor
- akinesia- inability to initiate purposeful movement
- rigidity-limited movement

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54
Q

What drugs increase the risk of extrapyramidal s/s in the pt w/ Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • reglan
  • butyrophenones (haldol, droperidol)
  • phenothiazines (promethazine)
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55
Q

What is the most common eye complication in the perioperative period? What is the most common cause of vision loss?

A

corneal abrasion

ischemic optic neuropathy = most common cause of vision loss

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56
Q

Describe the patho of ischemic optic neuropathy.

A

ischemia of the optic nerve. Most likely explanation is that venous congestion in the optic canal reduces perfusion pressure

ocular PP = MAP - intraocular pressure

central retinal & posterior ciliary arteries are at highest risk b/c they are “watershed” areas – they lack anastomoses w/ other arteries

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57
Q

What surgical procedure presents the most significant risk of ION? What are other procedure & patient risk factors?

A

spinal surgery in the prone position = most significant risk

other factors:

  • prone
  • use of Wilson frame = BAD
  • long duration of anesthesia
  • large EBL
  • low colloid:crystalloid resus
  • hypotension
  • male
  • obesity
  • DM
  • HTN
  • smoking
  • old age
  • atherosclerosis
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58
Q

discuss the blood flow to the SC

A

SC is perfused by:
1) 1 anterior spinal artery (anterior 2/3 of SC)
2) 2 posterior spinal arteries (posterior 1/3 of SC)
3) 6-8 radicular arteries

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59
Q

What is the most important radicular artery? Which spinal segment does it typically enter the SC?

A

artery of Adamkiewicz

along w/ the anterior spinal artery, the artery of adamkiewicz supplies the anterior cord in the thoracolumbar region. Most commonly originates b/n T11-T12

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60
Q

Envision the anatomy of the SC & spinal nerve in cross section.

A

sensory neurons from the periphery via the dorsal nerve root

motor & autonomic neurons exit via the ventral nerve root

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61
Q

compare the structure & function of the dorsal column with the spinothalamic tract.

A

dorsal column (medial lemniscal system)

  • transmits mechanoreceptor sensations (fine touch, proprioception, vibration, pressure)
  • capable of 2 point discrimination (high degree of localization)
  • large, myelinated, rapidly conducting fibers
  • faster transmission than anterolateral system
  • a “more evolved” system

anterolateral system (spinothalamic tract)

  • transmits pain, temp, crude touch, tickle, itch, sexual sensation
  • no 2 point discrimination
  • smaller, myelinated, slower conducting fibers
  • more “primitive” system
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62
Q

What bedside exam can assess the integrity of the corticospinal tract? How can you interpret it?

A

most important motor pathway (often referred to as the pyramidal tract, all others are collectively the extrapyramidal tract)

Babinski test (firm stimulus to underside of foot) yields:

  • normal: downward motion of all the toes
  • upper motor neuron injury: upward extension of big toe + fanning of the others = abnormal, positive test
  • lower motor neuron injury: no response
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63
Q

contrast the presentation of upper vs. lower motor neuron injury

A

upper motor neurons begin in the cerebral cortex & end in the ventral horn of the SC, while the lower motor neurons begin in the ventral horn & end at the NMJ

upper motor neuron injury presents w/ hyperreflexia & spastic paralysis

lower motor neuron injury presents w/ impaired reflexes & flaccid paralysis

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64
Q

discuss the patho of neurogenic shock.

A

impairment of cardioaccelerator fibers (T1-T4) –> unopposed cardiac vagal tone –> bradycardia & decreased inotropy

decreased SNS tone –> vasodilation –> venous pooling –> decreased CO & BP

impairment of sympathetic pathways from hypothalamus to blood vessels –> inability to vasoconstrict or shiver –> hypothermia

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65
Q

how can you differentiate neurogenic shock from hypovolemic shock?

A

neurogenic: bradycardia, hypotension, hypothermia w/ pink, warm extremities d/t cutaneous vasodilation

hypovolemia: tachycardia, hypotension, cool, clammy extremities

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66
Q

Discuss the use of succinylcholine in the patient w/ SC injury.

A

avoid if >24hrs post injury

do not use for at least 6months thereafter, some books say 1yr

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67
Q

When does a pt w/ SC injury become at risk for autonomic hyperreflexia? What factor (other than time) contributes to this risk?

A

It occurs after the neurogenic shock phase ends (1-3 weeks), the body begins to mend itself in a pathologic and disorganized way, putting the pt at risk for autonomic hyperreflexia.

up to 85% of patients w/ injury >T6 will develop

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68
Q

List 6 situations that can precipitate autonomic hyperreflexia

A
sitmulation of the hollow organs (bladder, bowel, or uterus)
bladder catheterization
surgery (esp cysto, colonoscopy)
bowel movement
cutaneous stimulation
childbirth
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69
Q

Discuss the presentation & pathophysiology of autonomic hyperreflexia.

A

classic presentation = HTN & bradycardia.

stimulation below the level of SCI triggers sympathetic reflex arc that creates a profound degree of vasoconstriction below the level of injury –> baroreceptor activation in carotid bodies (bradycardia) –> body attempts to reduce afterload w/ vasodilation above the level of the injury.

other s/s:
- reflex vasodilation above level of SC injury –> nasal stuffiness

  • HTN –> HA/blurred vision
  • malignant HTN –> CVA, sz, LV failure, dysrhythmias, pulmonary edema, and/or MI, seizure, or stroke
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70
Q

detail the anesthetic management of the patient w/ autonomic hyperreflexia.

A

prevent stimulation to the area below level of injury to prevent AH!

  • GA or spinal = best
  • epidural not as good for laboring mother b/c doesn’t inhibit sacral nerve roots as much
  • tx HTN w/ removal of stim, deepen IA, + rapid vasodilator (SNP)
  • tx bradycardia w/ atropine/glyco
  • avoid meds that increase HR & vasoconstrict
  • avoid sux x6months
  • monitor for AH closely in the immediate post-op period, when anesthesia is wearing off.
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71
Q

Discuss the patho of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig’s disease)

A

Progressive degeneration of motor neurons in the corticospinal tract

Astrocytic gliosis replaces the affected motor neurons. Both the upper & the lower motor neurons are affected.

Etiology is unknown

  • Avoid sux due to risk of hyperkalemia
  • They have increased sensitivity to nondepolarizers, so decrease the dose
  • upper motor produces hyperreactive responses
  • ortho hypotension
  • bulbar atrophy
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72
Q

Detail the anesthetic management of ALS

A
  • no clear evidence that supports one technique over another
  • avoid sux (hyperK+)
  • increased sensitivity to NDMR: so decrease the dose
  • bulbar m dysfunction increases risk of aspiration
  • chest weakness decreases VC & MMV
  • consider post-op mechanical ventilation
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73
Q

describe the patho of myasthenia gravis

A

autoimmune disease

IgG Ab destroy post-junctional nAChR at the NMJ

(ACh is present in sufficient quantity, the receptors just aren’t there)
–> skeletal m weakness.

Key feature is skeletal m weakness that becomes worse later in the day or that develops w/ exercise & can recover some w/ rest.

Early signs: diplopia and ptsosis

Other signs: bulbar muscle weakness of mouth and throat, dysphagia, dysarthria, difficulty handling saliva, proximal weakness

Things that make it worse:
- pregnancy
- infection
- electrolyte imbalance
- stress
- aminoglycoside antibiotics- so avoid this bc it makes them more weaker

Treat: First line treatment with oral pyridostigmine AchE. But if you overdose is it cholinergic crisis or if they’re feeling better was it myasthenia crisis? Test with Tensilon test with Edrophonium 1-2mg IV

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74
Q

What surgical procedure can reduce symptoms in the patient w/ myasthenia gravis?

other treatments for MG?

A

the thymus gland plays a key role in MG, and thymectomy

  • it reduces circulating anti-AChR IgG in most patients
  • surgical approach may be via median sternotomy or by the transcervical approach

Other treatments:
- Immunosuppresants like steroids cylosporine, azathioprine, mycophenolate
- Plasmapharesis- temp relief during crisis

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75
Q

How does myasthenia gravis affect the pregnant mother & the fetus?

A

in 1/3 of women, pregnancy intensifies the symptoms of MG.

Anti-AChR IgG Antibodies cross the placenta and cause weakness in 15-20% of neonates.

This can persist x2-4 weeks, which is consistent w/ the half-life of these antibioties in the neonates circulation

Neonate may require airway management.

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76
Q

How can you tell the difference b/n cholinergic crisis and myasthenic crisis?

A

Pryidostigmine (anticholinesterase) is the first line tx for MG. An OD can cause cholinergic crisis, which can include skeletal m weakness (makes differentiation difficult)

diagnosis is made by administering 1-2mg IV edrophonium (“Tensilon test”)

  • if weakness is made worse, then the pt has cholinergic crisis (tx = anticholinergic)
  • if weakness improves, then it was an MG exacerbation

Treat with = anticholinesterase, immunosuppression, plasmapheresis

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77
Q

How do patients with myasthenia gravis respond to NMB?

A

There less nicotinic type m receptors at the neuromuscular junction.

  • They’re more resistant to Sux. give 1.5-2mg/kg. Remember pyridostigmine impairs efficacy of pseudocholinesterase and can also prolong sux
  • More sensitive to nondepolarizers. If roc was used there’s a higher risk of residual blockade. REDUCE THE DOSE by 1/2-1/3

Volatile anesthetics cause skeletal m relaxation by acting in the ventral horn of the SC - in many cases this eliminates the need for NMB.

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78
Q

Why are patients w/ myasthenia gravis prone to aspiration?

A

bulbar weakness (mouth and throat) manifests as difficulty handling oral secretions –> increased risk of aspiration just like in ALS!

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79
Q

describe the patho of Eaton Lambert syndrome. Can you use paralytics? What is the treatment?

A

IgG mediated destruction of the v-gated Ca++ channel at the presynaptic nerve terminal. presynaptic!!!

When the AP depolarizes the nerve terminal, Ca++ entry into the presynaptic neuron is limited, reducing the amount of ACh that is released into the synaptic cleft. Postsynaptic nAChR is normal

  • they’re sensitive to both depolarizers and non depolarizers
  • Volatile anesthetics also provide enough muscle relaxation for most surgical procedures like in MG
  • association with small cell lung carcinoma
  • Treatment: 3,4-diaminopyridine (DAP) increases ACh release from the presynaptic nerve terminal and improves the strength of contraction.
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80
Q

compare and contrast myasthenic gravis to eaton-lambert syndrome in terms of patho, common comorbidities, and response to NMB

A

eaton-lambert

  • Destroyed v-gated Ca++ channels (pre-synaptic)
  • decreased ACh release
  • presynaptic neuron of NMJ
  • comorb: small cell lung CA
  • sensitive to NMB (both)
  • AChE inhibitors doesn’t improve symptoms

MG

  • Fewer Nm receptor (post-synaptic)
  • decreased ACh response
  • comorb: thymoma
  • resistant to sux, sensitive to NDMR
  • AChE inhibitors improve symptoms
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81
Q

Describe Guillain-Barré syndrome also known as acute idiopathic polyneuritis

Common etiologies:

Treatment:

Can you use sux and roc?

Are steroids helpful?

A

common etiologies: campylobacter jejuni bacteria, Epstein Barr virus, and cytomegalovirus

starts like flu-like illness followed by ascending paralysis. Starts in distal extremities and ascends up

Muscle weakness: impairs ventilation and difficulty swallowing

Immunologic assault on the myelin in the peripheral nerves. Action potential can’t be conducted –> the motor endplate never receives the incoming signal

Persists for 2 weeks and ends w/ full recovery in approx 4 weeks.

Treatment: plasmapheresis like in MG, and you also give IgG. Steroids do NOT help

Avoid sux and decrease dose of nondepolarizers like in ALS!

Sensory deficits are common: parathesias, numbness, and pain

Autonomic dysfunction is common: tachy or Brady, htn or hypotension, orthostatic hypotension, diaphoresis or anhidrosis

There is an exaggerated response to indirect acting sympathomimetics due to upregulation of postjunctioanl adrenergic receptors. So avoid ephedrine

Regional is not preffered over GA

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82
Q

discuss the presentation of guillian-barre and can you use sux and roc?

A

flu-like illness usually precedes paralysis by 1-3 weeks

s/s:

  • flaccid paralysis begins in the distal extremities and ascends bilat toward proximal extremities, trunk, face
  • intercostal m weakness impairs ventilation
  • facial, pharyngeal weakness causes dysphagia
  • sensory deficits: paresthesias, numbness, +/- pain
  • autonomic dysfunction is common: HR, BP, sweating abnormalities, orthostatic hypotension

Avoid sux and use less Roc!

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83
Q

What is familial periodic paralysis and how can the 2 variants of this disease be distinguished from each other?

A

two distinct disease processes that are characterized by acute episodes of skeletal m weakness that is accompanied by hypo or hyperkalemia

hypokalemia: diagnosed if skeletal m weakness follows a glucose-insulin infusion

hyperkalemia: diagnosed if skeletal m weakness follows oral K+ administration

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84
Q

What drugs should be avoided in the patient with each type of familial period paralysis?

How about temperature?

A

Familial periodic paralysis is acute episodes of skeletal muscle weakness with changes in potassium. It is not a disease with the neuromuscular junction. It’s a disorder of the skeletal muscle membrane: reduced excitability

With hypokalemic avoid:
- glucose containing solutions! AVOID D5LR because it usually follows an insulin infusion
- K+ wasting diuretics
- B2 agonists like Terbutaline
- avoid succinylcholine because this condition might be associated with MH
- it is associated with a calcium channelopathy

With hyperkalemia avoid:
- succinylcholine
- K+ containing slns (LR)
- it’s associated with a sodium channelopathy

acetazolamide is the tx for both forms bc it creates a nonanion gap acidosis, which protects against hypokalemia. It also facilitates renal K+ excretion which guards against hyperkalemia

Shorter acting nondepolarizers are best!

Avoid hypothermia for both types at all costs

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85
Q

What is the dysfunctional receptor in the patient w/ MH?

A

when T-tubule is depolarized, extracellular Ca++ enters the myocyte via the dihydropyridine receptor at the T-tubule

this activates the ryanodine receptor (RYR1) and it’s dysfunctional, which instructs the SR to release massive Ca++ into the cell. In the case of MH, it releases WAY TOO MUCH
(consumes ATP, O2, produces CO2)

cell attempts to return some Ca++ into the SR via the SERCA2 pump (in MH, this pump becomes overworked)
(consumes ATP, O2, produces CO2)

when the skeletal m consumes all of its ATP, cell membrane integrity is no longer maintained & intracellular components (myoglobin & K+) are released into the systemic circulation

MH inherited disease: disordered calcium homeostasis

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86
Q

list 8 consequences of too much Ca++ inside of the skeletal myocyte

A
  • sustained muscular contraction
  • accelerated metabolic rate & rapid ATP depletion
  • increased O2 consumption
  • increased CO2 & heat production
  • mixed respiratory and lactic acidosis
  • sarcolemma breaks down
  • K+ & myoglobin leak into the systemic circulation
  • rigidity from sustained contraction

MH is inherited disease of skeletal muscle. Exposure of halogenated activates the defective ryanodine receptor RYR1 and stimulates SR to release too calcium

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87
Q

identify 3 conditions that are definitively linked to MH

A
  1. King-Denborough syndrome
  2. central core disease
  3. multiminicore disease
88
Q

list 6 conditions that are NOT definitively linked to MH

A
  • Duchenne muscular dystrophy- due to rhabdomylolysis
  • Becker muscular dystrophy
  • neuroleptic malignant syndrome
  • myotonia congenita or dystrophy
  • osteogenesis imperfecta
89
Q

what is the most sensitive indicator of MH? What is the time course of the other s/s?

A

MH can occur as late as 6hrs after exposure to a triggering agent.

most sensitive indicator of MH: EtCO2 rises out of proportion to MV

early:
- tachycardia
- tachypnea
- masseter spasm- jaw can’t be opened
- warm soda lime
- irregular heart rhythm

intermediate:
- cyanosis
- pt warm to touch
- irregular heart rhythm

late:
- muscle rigidity
- cola-colored urine
- coagulopathy
- irregular heart rhythm

90
Q

what is the difference b/n trismus and MH? How should you proceed if the patients presents with either condition?

A

trismus & masseter m rigidity exist on a continuum

  • trismus: tight jaw can still be opened, normal response to sux
  • masseter muscle rigidity: cannot open jaw

trismus is a normal response to succinylcholine - ok to proceed w/ surgery if occurring in isolation, but may want to avoid other triggering agents.

if the pt has masseter m rigidity, assume MH until proven otherwise

  • NMB will not help this since it’s occurring distal to the NMJ spasm is due to increase calcium in the myoplasm
91
Q

What is the definitive test for susceptibility to MH?

A

Caffeine halothane contracture test- live muscle biopsy
Gold standard

High sensitivity but low specificity

92
Q

How does dantrolene treat MH? What are its most common side effects?

A

classified as a muscle relaxant.
two mechanisms of action:
- halts Ca++ release from the RyR1 receptor
- prevents Ca++ entry into the myocyte which reduces the stimulus for calcium induced calcium release.

the most common side effects are muscle weakness & venous irritation

93
Q

How is dantrolene formulated? How is it prepared?

A

each vial contains 20mg dantrolene + 3g mannitol &

must be reconstituted w/ preservative free H2O 60 ml

Initial dose 2.5mg/kg IV

NaCl introduces additional solute which prolongs the time required for dantrolene to dissolve into the dilutent

enlist help early!!

Dantrolene can irritate the vein, also a muscle relaxant and can cause muscle weakness

94
Q

How do you treat MH?

A

1 d/c triggering agent #2 call for help

100% FiO2 >10L/min

dantrolene 2.5mg/kg IV, repeat Q5-10mins

  • hyperventilate
  • correct lactic acidosis w/ bicarb
  • treat hyperK+
  • CaCl 5-10mg IV
  • insulin 0.15U/kg + D50 1mL/kg
    protect against dysrhythmias
  • charcoal filter to inspiratory and expiratory limb of the circuit if you have time. Vapor- clean filter needs to be changed every hour during MH crisis
  • class I agents (lido, procaine)
  • avoid CCB like Verapamil w/ dantro to avoid hyperK+
  • maintain UOP
  • IV hydration
  • 0.25mg/kg mannitol
  • 1mg/kg
  • cool the pt until temp <38C
  • cold IVF
  • cold fluid lavage
  • ice packs

monitor coags, avoid DIC

If at risk of MH: monitor in PACU 1-4 hours

If they actually had MH: need to go to the ICU, MH can reoccur up to 36 hours!!!!!!

95
Q

describe the patho of Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

dystrophin is a critical structural component of the cytoskeleton of skeletal and cardiac muscle cells. DMD- skeletal muscle myopathy with absence of dystrophin protein from X linked recessive disease, affects many males

Absence of it destabilizes the sarcolemma during muscular contraction & increases membrane permeability.

creatine kinase and myoglobin to leak through the membrane and results in elevated plasma concentration elevated labs

Calcium also freely enters the cell = inflammation, fibrous, cell death

extrajunctional receptors populate –> avoid succinylcholine

At risk for MH-like symptoms with hyperkalemia and rhabdomyolysis not true MH.

Best to use TIVA and avoid sux and volatile agents

however, there is no denervation of skeletal tissue, meaning that sensation and reflexes are intact

96
Q

How does Duchenne muscular dystrophy affect pulmonary function?

A

kyphoscholiosis (restrictive lung disease) –> decreased vital capacity and residual volume –> increased secretions & risk of PNA

respiratory muscle weakness also occurs

They have impaired airway reflexes and GI hypo motility - increased risk of aspiration

97
Q

How does Duchenne muscular dystrophy affect cardiac function? What EKG findings might you expect?

A

cardiac considerations:

  • degeneration of cardiac m –> decreased contractility, pap m dysfunction, mitral regurgitation, cardiomyopathy, CHF
  • signs of cardiomyopathy = resting tachycardia, JVD, S3/S4 gallop
  • gold standard = echo

EKG changes
- ST + short PR
- scarring of posterobasal aspect of LV manifests as increased R wave amplitude in lead 1 & deep Q waves in the limb leads

98
Q

What is the Cobb angle and what is its significance?

A

describes the magnitude of the spinal curvature

40-50 degrees = indication for surgery

60 degrees = decreased pulmonary reserve

70 degrees = pulmonary symptoms present

100 degrees = gas exchange significantly impaired, higher risk of post-op pulmonary complications

99
Q

contrast the early & late complications of scoliosis

A

alters thoracic geometry, which compresses the lungs & creates a restrictive ventilatory defect. One side of the thorax becomes smaller than the other

early:
- restrictive ventilatory defect (same lung volume, capacity decreases as any)
- decreased chest wall compliance

late:
- VQ mismatching
- hypoxemia
- hypercarbia (sign of impending failure)
- pHTN
- reduced response to hypercapnia
- cor pulmonale
- cardiorespiratory failure

CV changes: RV hypertrophy and mitral prolapse (most common), mitral regurgitation, and coarctation of the aorta

100
Q

List 3 ways that rheumatoid arthritis affects the airway.

A

TMJ, cricoarytenoid joints, cervical spine are affected

  1. TMJ: limited mouth opening
  2. cricoarytenoid joints: decreased diameter of glottic opening
  3. cervical spine: A-O subluxation w/ flexion + limited extension

Common complication is Atlantoaxial subluxation and seperation of the antlanto-odontoid articulation

101
Q

What is the most common complication of rheumatoid arthritis? What’s its clinical significance?

What are some other complications of RA?

A

RA: vasculitis

AO subluxation is the most common airway complication of RA

This is d/t the weakening of the transverse axial ligament, which allows the odontoid to directly compress the SC at the level of the foramen magnum.

  • puts the pt at risk for quadriparesis or paralysis
  • side note: pts w/ Down syndrome are also at risk for AO subluxation

Other complications:
- cricoarytenoiditis- painful swallowing airway obstruction or stridor
- restrictive lung disease - pleural effusion/ fibrosis
- aortic regurgitation
- anemia
- renal insufficiency from NSAID use

102
Q

Discuss the pathophysiology of RA.

Treatment:

A

autoimmune disease that targets the synovial joints. There is also widespread systemic involvement d/t infiltration of immune complexes in the small & medium arteries –> vasculitis

cytokines (TNF & interleukin-1) play a central role in the pathogenesis.

Hallmark of RA: morning stiffness that improves w/ activity
joints are painful, swollen, and warm

other symptoms:

  • weakness
  • fatigue
  • anorexia
  • lymph node enlargement
103
Q

using a systems approach, list the complications of RA.

A

Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by symmetric polyarthropathy that affects weight-bearing joints and proximal interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints. It is typically worse in the morning. In the most severe forms, every joint can be affected except for the lumbar and thoracic spine.

airway:
- TMJ synovitis
- cricoarytenoid arthritis
- AO instability

pulmonary
- pleural effusion
- restrictive pattern d/t diffuse interstitial fibrosis + costochondral involvement that limits chest wall expansion

cardiac

  • pericardial effusion/tamponade
  • restrictive pericarditis
  • aortic regurgitation
  • valvular fibrosis
  • coronary artery arteritis

hematologic

  • anemia
  • platelet dysfunction d/t NSAIDs

renal
- renal insufficiency d/t vasculitis, NSAIds

endocrine
- adrenal insufficiency & infections d/t steroids

GI
- gastric ulcerations d/t NSAIDs, steroids

Eyes
- Sjogren’s syndrome - risk of corneal abrasion

PNS
- peripheral neuropathy d/t nerve entrapment

104
Q

describe the patho of systemic lupus erythematosus.

A

SLE is an autoimmune disease characterized by the proliferation of antinuclear antibodies

SLE affects nearly every organ system & most consequences are the direct result of Ab-induced vasculitis and tissue destruction

  • Can cause cricoarythenoiditis: hoarseness/stridor/airway obstruction, recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy is a complication, hypercoagulability
105
Q

Using a systems based approach, list the complications of systemic lupus erythematosus

A

targets young women
most common problems are polyarthritis (generally not the spine) & dermatitis

only 33-50% develop the “butterfly rash”

airway:
- cricoarytenoiditis: hoarseness, stridor, a/w obstruction
- RLN palsy

pulmonary
- restrictive
- pHTN
- interstitial lung dz w/ impaired diffusing capacity
- pleural effusion
- recurrent PE

CV
- pericarditis
- Raynaud’s
- HTN
- conduction defects
- endocarditis

hematologic
- antiphospholipid antibodies
- hypercoagulability = risk of DVT
- anemia
- thrombocytopenia
- leukopenia

renal: nephritis w/ proteinuria

CNS: stroke

106
Q

what drugs can exacerbate SLE?

A

occurs d/t stress or drug exposure
drug induced usually persists for several weeks-months & presents w/ mild symptoms

most common offenders (PISSED CHIMP)
Pregancy
Infection
Surgery
Stress
Enalapril
D-penicillamine
Captopril
Hydralazine- can cause tachycardia
Isoniazid
Methyldopa
Procainamide
107
Q

what is the relationship b/n SLE & antiphospholipid syndrome?

Name of treatments and anesthesia considerations for SLE

A

those w/ SLE are prone to developing antiphospholipid antibodies

Although aPTT is prolonged, these pts are prone to a state of hypercoagulability & thrombosis

  • risk for stroke, DVT, PE
  • pregnant pts are at higher risk
  • Cyclophosphamide- immunosuppressent can prolong sux
108
Q

Discuss the patho of myotonic dystrophy.

A

characterized by prolonged contracture after a voluntary contraction.

This is the result of dysfunctional Ca++ sequestration by the SR.

Contractions can be so severe that they interfere w/ ventilation & intubation

3 things increase risk of contractures:
1) sux
2) NMB reversal so consider Sugammadex
3) hypothermia = sustained contractions

109
Q

What 3 things can increase the risk of contractures in the patient w/ myotonic dystrophy?

A

Prolonged contracture after voluntary contraction, from dysfunctional calcium sequestration by the SR.

  1. succinylcholine
  2. reversal of NMB w/ anticholinesterases (theoretical) like neostigmine
  3. hypothermia (shivering –> sustained contractions)

Other risks include:
- aspiration, respiratory muscle weakness, cardiomyopathy

110
Q

Discuss the patho of Marfan syndrome.

A

It is an autosomal dominant trait.

It is a connective tissue disorder that’s associated w/ an elevated risk of aortic dissection, MV prolapse, mitral regurg, aortic regurgitation

Aortic dissection of the ascending aorta can extend into the pericardium, and this increases the risk of cardiac tamponade!

Becks’ triad: JVG, hypotension, muffled heart tones

spontaneous pneumo is a common complication in these patients.

111
Q

Discuss the patho of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

A

inherited disorder of procollagen and collagen. There are several types, but only type IV is associated w/ vascular rupture (i.e. AAA)

increased bleeding tendency d/t lack of blood vessel integrity+ coagulopathy

  • avoid regional anesthesia = hematoma is a risk
  • avoid IM injections
  • be careful during airway management & line placement.

Pneumothorax is also a common complication; avoid high PIP!!!!!

112
Q
A

A!

Intrathecal opioids act centrally by diffusion into the spinal cord and interact with mu receptors in the substantia gelatinosa in the dorsal horn.

Opioid receptors (mu receptors) are present in the substantia gelatinosa (A) of the dorsal horn in the spinal cord. The substantia gelatinosa comprises the cell bodies of the second-order projection neurons that ascend from the spinothalamic tract to the thalamus. These cells are densely populated with mu receptors and form the primary immediate site of action of intrathecal opioids that diffuse from the cerebrospinal fluid into the spinal cord.

113
Q

Guillian barre

A

Common etiology: campylobacteri jejuni, Epstein Barr virus, cytomegalovirus

Weakness begins in lower extremities and ascends, autonomic dysfunction is common: hypotension/htn, bradycardia/tachycardia

Avoid sux, decrease Rocuronium dose

Tx: with plasmaparesis and IVgG

114
Q

Multiple sclerosis

A
  • Demyelination disease of Central Nervous System diagnose with an MRI
  • can be exacerbated by increase in temp by 1 degree
  • epidural is safe, but spinal can worsen it
  • Occurs after 35 years old
  • Avoid SUX!
  • Pregnancy is associated with a reduced incidence of exacerbation, while the postpartum period is associated with an increased risk of relapse
115
Q

which disease are sensitive to non depolarizers and you want to avoid Sux

Why do you want to avoid Sux?

A

MG, MS, ALS

You want to avoid sux bc they have extrajunctional Ach receptors. The body tries to maintain communication between muscle and nerves. This is seen in immobile patients. They have an abnormal configuration and when depolarized, they have a longer time in the open channel and releases abnormal amounts of K+. = risk of hyperkalemia. Since there are more receptors to bind to, non-depolarizers can bind to more receptors and cause profound paralysis at lower doses.

But in MG patients:
- Their functional receptors are destroyed so they need a higher dose of Sux for it to bind to. But the higher dose of sux can also cause a longer duration of action.
- Lower dose is required due to fewer functional receptors and Non depolarizers are more potent. They’re more sensitive to non depolarizers

116
Q

Cranial nerve 7: branches involved

A

Two Zebras Bit My Cat

Temporal, zygomatic, buccal, Mandibular, cervical

117
Q

Bell’s palsy is carried out by which cranial nerve?

A

Cranial nerve 7

118
Q

Parasympathetic output is carried out by which cranial nerves

A

Cranial nerves 3, 7, 9, 10

119
Q

Sensory, motor, both for cranial nerves pneumonic

A

Some Say Marrying Money. But My Brother Says Marrying Money Brings Bad Business Marrying Money

12 Cranial nerves

120
Q

What can decrease CMRO2 and CBF?

A

PEB: Propofol, etomidate, barbituates

Elevating HOB

Hyperventilation

Neo can help increase cerebral perfusion pressure

121
Q

How many hours do you have if a pt comes in with an ischemic stroke to give them TPA?

A

4.5 hours from symptom onset

122
Q

Embelectomy needs to be done within hour many hours for large vessel occlusion?

A

6 hours!!!!

123
Q

Why do you want to avoid giving D5LR for pt with increased ICP?

A

Glucose -> lactic acid and worsens ischemia

124
Q

Structure of spinal cord:

A
125
Q

Review DCML anatomy

A

Which one is continuous touch?

Which one is reading braille?

Which one is vibration?

Which one is proprioception? Ruffini

126
Q

Which pathway is involved in the transmission of pain?

A

Nociceptors and free nerve endings transmit pain signals to the brain via the spinothalamic tracts (anterolateral system).

127
Q

Primary treatment for the patient with neurogenic shock following acute spinal cord injury includes:

A

Volume expansion and neo infusion

128
Q

Where is a herniation most likely to occur?

A
129
Q

Review intracranial hypertension

A
130
Q

The anterior circulation receives blood from?

The posterior circulation receives blood?

A
  • Anterior- internal carotid arteries
  • Posterior- vertebral arteries
131
Q

Bonus random ANS question:

The SNS releases acetylcholine at ganglionic receptors, what does it release at target receptors post synaptic?

Has postganglionic to preganglionic ratio of??

Where does the SNS originate from?

A

The SNS releases acetylcholine at ganglionic receptors.

And it releases epinephrine, norepinephrine, or dopamine at target receptors

  • has short preganglionic fibers
  • have a postganglionic to preganglionic ratio of 30:1 post > pre
  • Originates from T1-T12 and L1-L3.
132
Q

What pathway transmit afferent nociceptive input to the brain?

A

Anterolateral system (Spinothalamic tract)

133
Q

What does the dorsal column medial leminiscal system transmit?

A
  • fine touch
  • proprioception
  • vibration
  • pressure
134
Q

What does the lissauer tract relay?

A

It relaxes sensory input to the spinal cord

135
Q

The dorsal column perfused by

A

The posterior blood supply. This is why touch and proprioception are preserved if the aortic cross clamp is placed above the artery of the Adamkiewicz

The tracts that are perfused by the anterior blood supply:
- The Corticospinal tract- that’s why will have flaccid paralysis of lower extremities
- Autonomic motor fibers- explains why bowel and bladder dysfunction
- Spinothalamic tract- explains why pt will lose some pain and temperature sensation

136
Q
A

Dorsal column

137
Q

Sensory neurons from the periphery enter the spinal cord?

Motor and autonomic neurons exit?

A
138
Q

Laminae 1-6 reside in the dorsal grey matter. Are they sensory or motor? What about Laminae 7-9?

A

Laminae 1-6 in the dorsal grey matter are sensory

Laminae 7-9 in the ventral grey matter are motor

139
Q

Tracts

A
140
Q

The ascending and descending tracts of the spinal cord contain what part of the neuron?

A

Axon- this makes up the white matter

141
Q

Dorsal column:

A
  • first order neuron enters spinal cord via the dorsal root ganglia
  • second order neuron decussates in the medulla
  • it transmits sensory information faster than the anterolateral system
142
Q

DCML:

A
  • transmits mechanoreceptive sensations:
    fine touch, proprioception, vibration, pressure (fine degree of intensity)
  • capable of 2 point discrimination- high degree of localizing the stimulus
  • large, myelinated, rapid conducting fibers
  • transmits sensory faster than the anterolateral system

1) First order- usually A beta, enters spinal cord through dorsal root ganglion, relays sensory info from dorsal column to the medulla

2) Second order- crosses contralateral side in the medulla

3) Third order- fibers pass through internal capsule and go in the postcentral gyrus in the parietal lobe in the cerebral cortex

143
Q

DC-MLS anatomy:

  • Meissner’s corpuscles
  • Merkel’s discs
  • Ruffini’s endings
  • Pacinian corpuscles
A
  • Meissner’s corpuscles- 2 point discriminative touch and vibration. READING BRAILLE
  • Merkel’s discs- continuous touch
  • Ruffini’s endings- proprioception, prolonged touch and pressure
  • Pacinian corpuscles- vibration
144
Q

What pathway transmits afferent nociceptive input to the brain?

A

Anterolateral system (Spinothalamic tract)

  • pain
  • temperature
  • crude touch
  • itch
  • tickle
  • sexual sensation

Smaller, myelinated and NON myelinated, slower fibers

Does not have 2 point discrimination

145
Q

Anterolateral System Spinothalamic Tract: combo of lateral and anterior Spinothalamic tract

A

Transmits: pain, temperature, crude touch, tickle, itch, and sexual sensation

Has smaller myelinated and nonmyelinated slower conducting fibers

There is NO 2-point discrimination

1) First order: there is 2 nerve fibers types:
Alpha-delta fast pain, glutamate is the neurotransmitter.
C fibers slow pain, substance P is the neurotransmitter (Where as in the DCL tract, the first fiber is alpha-beta fibers)

Pain neurons synapses with the 2nd order neuron in the substantia gelatinosa Rexed Lamina 2.

Primary pain neurons can also synapse in the 2nd order neuron in the dorsal horn Laminae 1,4,5, 6.

2) Second order neuron: crosses contralateral side of the spinal cord and ascends in 2 pathways
- 1) Lateral Spinothalamic tract- pain and temperature
- 2) Anterior spinothalaic tract- crude touch and pressure
Second-order neurons synapse with third-order in the reticular activating system and thalamus

3) Third order neuron: fibers pass through internal capsule in the post central gyrus in the parietal lobe in the cerebral cortex. Many pain fibers synapse with the third order neuron in the reticular activating system and thalamus

146
Q

Which go under dorsal column or anterolateral system?

  • transmits pressure
  • small unmyelinated fibers
  • 2 point discrimation
  • transmits pain
  • proprioception
  • transmits sexual sensations
  • transmits temperature
  • rapid conducting fibers
  • transmits vibration
  • large myelinated fibers
A

Dorsal column:
- pressure
- 2 point discrimination
- proprioception
- transmits vibrations
-large myelinated fibers

Anterolateral system:
- small unmyelinated fibers
- transmits pain
- transmits sexual sensations
- transmits temperature

147
Q

What are the 2 types fibers in the 1st order neurons associated with anterolateral system?

A
  1. A-delta first pain mechanoreceptors
  2. C fibers slow pain polymodal nociceptors
148
Q

Nociceptive neurons primarily synapse with second neurons in the

A

Substantia gelatinosa of the dorsal horn lamina 2

They can also synapse in Laminae 1,4,5,6

149
Q

Where do second-order neurons synapse with third-order. Neurons in the anterolateral system?

A

Reticular activating system and the thalamus

150
Q

Injury to the Corticospinal tract above the level of the decussation in the medulla will result in

A

Injury above the decussation= spastic paralysis on the contralateral side

Injury below the decussation= flaccid paralysis on the ipsilateral side

Corticospinal tract is also called the pyramidal tract it is the motor pathway to control limbs and posture

Motor neurons exit the pre central gyrus of the frontal lobe and travel through the pyramids of the medulla

151
Q

Injury to upper motor neuron

A

Upper motor begins in the cerebral cortex and ends in the ventral horn of the spinal cord

Upper motor neuron injury - contralateral spastic paralysis + hyperreflexia

Ex: cerebral palsy and ALS

Can do babinski test to assess corticopinal tract: toes fanning out is abnormal

152
Q

Lower motor neuron

A

Begins in ventral horn and ends in neuromuscular junction

153
Q

SSEPs

A

Monitor dorsal column medial leminiscus

Loss of SSEPs during spinal fusion is most likely due to interruption of posterior spinal artery

154
Q

Neurogenic shock vs. hypovolemic shock:

What is the most common site of SCI, what are some s/s? How long can it last?
What are some initial treatment for SCI?

A

Neurogenic shock triad: Bradycardia, hypotension, hypothermia- with pink and warm extremities

Hypovolemia shock: tachycardia, hypotension, cool and clammy. No hypothermia!

C7 is most common site of SCI. Can last 1-3 weeks. Initially leads to flaccid paralysis, loss of sensation below the level of injury, loss of bowel and bladder function occurs

After acute phase, spinal reflexes return which leads to spastic paralysis after 6 weeks

Treatments: Levo gtt to restore SVR and give volume

sux is ok first 24 hours but switch to non depolarizer

155
Q
A

Nitroprusside works faster than hydralazine and we need to quickly treat pressure. They’re at risk of intracerebral hemorrhage

Autonomic hyperreflexia- they will Vasodilate above the level of injury and vasoconstrict below the injury

Hypertension produces bradycardia via the baroceptor reflex. You can give anticholinergics

156
Q

Autonomic hyperreflexia

HTN + bradycardia

A

Hypertension needs to be treated ASAP or it can cause stroke, LV failure, and pulmonary edema, seizures

Other signs: nasal stuffiness, headache or blurred vision

FIRST REMOVE STIMULUS! Then deepen anesthesia, and give sodium nitroprusside, avoid sux in chronic SCI

Adding lube to the foley doesn’t prevent AH

Things that can elicit AH: stimulation of hollow organs like bladder bowel uterus, bladder catherization, surgery like cystoscopy to colonoscopy, bowel movement, childbirth

157
Q

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

A

Progressive degeneration of motor neurons in the corticospinal tract in the upper and lower motor. Sensory remains intact

  • upper neurons: spasticity, hyperreflexia, loss of coordination
  • lower motor neuron: muscle weakness, fasciculations, and atrophy
  • it begins in the hands and spreads
  • Respiratory failure is the common cause of death
  • Bulbar muscle weakness increases risk of aspiration
  • Extrajunctional receptors at the NMJ can cause life threatening hyperkalemia
  • More sensitivity to non depolarizing neuromuscular blockers so try to avoid all of them
  • Riluzole is an NMDA antagonist and is the only drug that reduces mortality
  • Chest weakness reduces vital capacity. Consider postoperative mechanical ventilation
158
Q
A
159
Q
A
160
Q
A

Spinothalamic tracts (anterolateral system): nociceptors and free nerve endings transmit pain signals to the brain via this tract

161
Q
A

1) 2 posterior spinal arteries perfuse the posterior 1/3 of the spinal cord
- Medial lemniscal system dorsal column

2) 1 anterior spinal artery that perfuses 2/3 of the spinal cord perfuses:
- Spinothalamic
- corticospinal
- autonomic fibers

162
Q
A

initial treatment for spinal cord injury = Levo gtt and intravascular volume expansion

Deep hypothermic circ arrest is for neuroprotection for pts undergoing aortic arch surgery and not SCI

You want to avoid sux for pts with SCI and risk of severe Hyperkalemia 24 hours after the injury

163
Q
A

Meissner’s corpuscles.

Reading braille requires highly sensitive mechanoreptors in the fingertips that are capable of 2-point discrimination

164
Q

Evoked potentials have replaced the need for wake up tests for back surgeries

Wake up test complications: pain, awareness, removal ett, embolism, damage to surgical instruments
A
  • SSEPs- monitor posterior spinal cord- dorsal column (proprioception)
  • MEPs- monitor anterior spinal cord (motor)
165
Q
A

Dens also called odontoid process= superior boney projection off the axis C2, provides pivot point that helps with head rotation

166
Q
A

Marfan’s syndrome- aortic insufficiency

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome- bleeding into joints

Osteogenesis imperfecta- blue sclera eyes is a unique finding, connective tissue disorder, weak bones, risk of fractures! Serum thyroxine is increased and increase basal metabolic rate = hyperthermia

167
Q
A

M.S = sensitivity to hyperthermia

Myotonic dystrophy = sustained contracture with Sux

Paget’s diease = risk of bone fracture. Excess osteoblastic osteoclastic but it causes thick, weak, bone deposits. Caused by excess parathyroid hormone or calcitonin deficiency.

Scleroderma = CREST syndrome. Excessive fibrosis in organs. Calcinosis, Raynaud’s, Esophageal hypo motility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasis spider veins) which increase risk of mucosal bleeding. They also have limited mouth opening from the skin fibrosis

168
Q
A
169
Q
A

M.S

170
Q
A

D5W, glucose causes insulin spike and it shifts K+ into the cells and leads to exacerbation of skeletal muscle weakness

171
Q

What condition is most strongly associated with CREST syndrome?

A

Scleroderma- risk of mucosal bleeding

172
Q
A
173
Q
A
174
Q

How frequently must a Vapor-Clean filter be changed in the pt experiencing MH?

A

Every hour

175
Q
A
176
Q

Arterial bleeding commonly occurs between

A

Arachnoid and pia mater

177
Q

CNS neurons

A

CNS neurons: bipolar, pseudounipolar, multipolar

178
Q

What is around the arterioles and controls cerebral vascular resistance?

A

The pH of the CSF!

179
Q
A

Posterior circulation:
1. Subclavian artery
2. Vertebral artery enter through the foreman magnum
3. Basilar artery
4. Posterior cerebral artery

Anterior circulation:
1. Carotid artery enter through the foramen lacerum
2. Internal carotid artery
3. Middle cerebral artery

180
Q
A
181
Q

What reduces cerebral blood flow, while preserving CMRO2/CBF coupling?

A

Hypothermia reduces both, it reduces CMRO2 by 7% for every 1 degree decrease

Propofol and barbs: potent vasoconstrictors. They reduce CMRO2 and reduce CBF

Ketamine and nitrous: increase CMRO2 and increase CBF

Precedex doesn’t affect CMRO2 but it does reduce CBF

182
Q
A

Cranial nerves

Peripheral nervous system made up of cranial and spinal nerves

183
Q

Prolonged thoracic aortic cross clamp time is most likely to result in a loss of:

A. Movement
B. Proprioception
C. Bowel control
D. Sensation

A

Movement and bowel control

184
Q

Tensilon test

A

Edrophonium 1-2mg IV: increases amount of Ach

  • Myasthenia gravis pt becomes stronger
  • pt with cholinergic crisis becomes weaker, they have too much Ach and will need an anticholinergic
185
Q

Anesthesia considerations for scleroderma?

A

CREST syndrome:
1) Calcinosis
2) Raynaud’s
3) Esophageal hypomotility
4) Sclerodactyly
5) Telangiectasis (T- spider veins and bleeding in mucosa)

Excessive fibrosis, and micro vascular involvement in organs: think pulmonary hypertension, blood pressure hypertension membrane bleeding, and kidney issues

  • pulmonary fibrosis and pulmonary hypertension
  • Dysrhythmias and CHF
  • Hypertension
  • Renal failure/stenosis
  • neuropathy
  • eye dryness
  • mouth/nose bleeds
186
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta anesthesia considerations:

A

Disease of connective tissue = brittle bones

  • Fractures during positioning or during NIBP cuff or even following Sux fasciculations!
  • They have kyphoscoliosis and pectus excavatum (sunken chest) which reduces chest wall compliance and vital capacity and V/Q mismatching = Arterial hypoxemia
  • Serum thyroxine is increased. It increases O2 consumption and can lead to hyperthermia. The risk of MH is not increased.
  • Blue Sclerae eyes
187
Q

Things to avoid with acute idiopathic polyneuritis

A

Remember! This is also known as Guillan-Barre! Immunologic assault on myelin in the peripheral nerves

Sux should be avoided = Hyperkalemia risk

Exaggerated response to ephedrine, so avoid it. = due to upregulation of postjunctioal adrenergic receptors

Epstein Barr is a common etiology

Steroids don’t help

Paralysis begins in the distal extremities

188
Q

Cobb’s angle describes the magnitude of spinal curvature

Larger the angle the smaller the thoracic volume

A

50 degrees- indication for surgery

60 degrees- decreased pulmonary reserve

70 degrees- pulmonary symptoms begin

100 degrees- significant gas exchange impairment

189
Q

List 2 diseases associated with vasculitis (destroys blood vessels by inflammation)

A

1) Rheumatoid arthritis: targets synovial joints and arteries
- Atalantoaxial subluxation
- cricoarytenoiditis- painful swallowing airway obstruction or stridor
- restrictive lung disease - pleural effusion/ fibrosis
- aortic regurgitation
- anemia
- renal insufficiency from NSAID use

2) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus: proliferation of antinuclear antibodies and damage nearly every organ

190
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

Most common arthritis. Degenerative disease affecting cartilage of joints, there is NO VASCULAR INVOLVEMENT

(Unlike Rheumatoid arthritis!)

191
Q

First-line treatment for myasthenia gravis

A

** Firstline treatment with oral pyridostigmine AchE.**

Other treatments include: plasmapheresis, immunosuppressive therapy (steroids, cyclosporine, mycophenolate, azathioprine)

192
Q
A
193
Q

What channelopathy is assocated with hypokalemic periodic paralysis?

A

Calcium!

Hyperkalemic paralysis- sodium channelopathy

Familial periodic paralysis is acute episodes of skeletal muscle weakness, it is a disorder of the skeletal muscle membrane with reduced excitability. It is not a diease of the neuromuscular junction

194
Q

FDA black box warning, giving Sux to children may cause

A

Rhabdomyolysis with hyperkalemia followed by Dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest

195
Q

List 3 spinal pathways supplied by the anterior spinal artery

List the 1 spinal pathway supplied by the posterior spinal artery

A

Anterior spinal artery:
1. Corticospinal tract
2. Autonomic motor fibers
3. Spinothalamic tract

Posterior spinal artery:
1. Dorsal column

196
Q

What is its function as it relates to mechanoreceptors?

  • Merkel’s discs
  • Ruffini’s endings
  • Meissner’s corpuscles
A

Part of the Dorsal column:

  • Merkel’s discs- continuous touch
  • Ruffini’s endings- proprioception, prolonged touch and pressure
  • Meissner’s corpuscles - 2 point touch
197
Q

Nociceptive neurons primarily synapse with 2nd order neurons in the:

A

In the spinal cord! In the substantia gelatinosa of the dorsal horn in lamina 2

They can also synapse in lamina 1, 4, 5, 6

198
Q

What agent does NOT preserve both cerebral autoregulation and CO2 responsiveness?

A. Nitrous
B. Desflurane
C. Fentanyl
D. Ketamine

A

Desflurane - most potent cerebral dilator it decreases CBF. It preserves CO2 responsiveness. But it does not preserve cerebral autoregulatation at a MAC > 1

It can cause blood vessels in the brain to dilate too much or too little, making it harder for the brain to adjust to changes in blood pressure or CO₂ levels.

  • Opioids and IV anesthetics usually preserve both cerebral autoregulation and vascular responsiveness to CO2.
  • Ketamine- increases CMRO2, CBF, autoregulation, and CO2 responsiveness is preserved.
199
Q

What are the effects of an intracranial tumor on cerebral autoregulation?

A

Auto regulatory responses are abolished

Blood flow becomes pressure-dependent

200
Q

PPV has the most influence over which intracranial component?

A. Venous blood flow
B. Arterial blood flow
C. CSF

A

Venous blood flow obstruction can develop with increase Intrathoracic pressure following obstruction, cough, or straining

201
Q

Internal carotid arteries provide primary blood flow to which cerebral arteries?

A

Middle cerebral and anterior cerebral arteries

(Posterior cerebral arteries branch from the basilar artery)

202
Q

Electrolytes associated with seizures

A
  • hypernatremia
  • hyponatremia
  • hypomagnesemia
  • hypophastemia < 1mg/dl
  • hypocalcemia
203
Q

What conditions increase cerebral blood flow?

A

Increases in CBF = Vasodilates = increases ICP which is bad!

  • respiratory acidosis- hypoventilating and PaCO2 dilates
  • seizure activity- increases CBF and CMRO2
  • PO2 50 torr. PO2 below 60 increases CBF
  • temperature 37- 42C increase CBF
204
Q

Treatment of cerebral aneurysm with platinum coiling anesthesia considerations:

A
  • Complete immobility of pt
  • Assess ACT
  • gold standard of monitoring is cerebral angiography
205
Q

Effects of lithium in anesthesia

A
  • recommended lithium levels 0.8-1.2 meg/L
  • decreases MAC requirement
  • impaired parathyroid hormone secretion- leading to hypocalcemia
  • decreased tubular response to ADH
  • thiazide diuretics increase reabsorption and increase toxicity NOT loop diuretics. Loop diuretics are preferred
  • NSAIDS and ACEI can also increase toxicity
206
Q

In a pt with long standing immobility due to spinal cord injury which co-morbid condition MOST influences anesthetic management?

A. Muscle atrophy
B. Spasticity

A

Muscle atrophy avoid Sux due to hyperkalemia

207
Q

What physiological responses to altered temperature are significantly depressed by general anesthesia?

A. Coagulation
B. Sweating
C. Shivering
D. Vasoconstriction

A

C. Shivering
D. Vasoconstriction

GA inhibits thermoregulation

208
Q

Signs of seizure activity under GA

A
  • Rising peak pressure
  • Abrupt onset of tachycardia and hypertension
209
Q

Hereditary neuromuscular disorder associated with defects in the formation and structure of myelin?

A

Charcot- Marie- Tooth: slow distal muscle weakness and loss of sensation of lower extremities. Mutations in genes responsible for myelin destruction

210
Q

Huntington’s disease

A

Choreiform jerking writhing movements

CAG test

Dysfunction in basal ganglia

Haloperidol can be used to treat exacerbations of choreiform movements and emotional lability in these patients

They can still receive SUX

211
Q

What is the most common cardiac abnormality associated with severe scoliosis?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

212
Q

Kyphoscoliosis is seen in which neuromuscular diease?

A

Duchenne’s.

The most common causes of death in patients with kyphoscoliosis are restrictive lung disease and pulmonary hypertension.

213
Q

What preoperative diagnostic tests would be most accurate in predicting the need for postoperative ventilatory support in patients undergoing correction of severe scoliosis?

A

Pulmonary function tests should be performed in patients with severe scoliosis as a vital capacity < 40% of predicted is associated with the likelihood of postoperative ventilatory support.

214
Q

Risks for post op ventilation in myasthenia gravis

A

Risk for postoperative ventilation:
- Disease > 6 years
- Daily pyridostigmine > 750 mg/day
- Vital capacity < 2.9L
- COPD
- If they did a thymectomy and chose the median sternotomy approach
- a negative inspiratory pressure less than -25 cm H2O

215
Q

What is characterized by demyelination of neurons in the central nervous system (peripheral nerves are not affected).

A

Multiple sclerosis

Postpartum exacerbates it, epidural is safe

216
Q

What musculoskeletal muscles are recessive X-linked?

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy- X-linked disorder and rarely cause symptoms in females.

Death is most often attributed to pneumonia, respiratory failure, or cardiac failure and usually occurs between the ages of 20 and 25.