Unit 7: Ch 52 (Porth's 5th Ed) - Disorders of Skin Integrity and Function Flashcards

1
Q
  1. An 18-year-old female of Southeast Asian ancestry is distraught over the recent
    appearance of white patches on her forearms and upper arms, which have been
    subsequently confirmed as vitiligo. Which of the following statements by the woman
    express an accurate understanding of her condition?
    A) “I suppose it’s some comfort that my patches are small and will always stay out of
    sight in the future.”
    B) “I’m thankful that there are medications to cure this, but I’m nervous about the
    side effects.”
    C) “I suppose this shouldn’t come as too much of surprise, since this tends to run in
    my family.”
    D) “I’m surprised that I ended up contacting that fungus that caused this problem for
    me.”
A

Ans: C
Feedback:
The incidence of vitiligo is thought to have a genetic component. Vitiligo worsens with
time, and treatments are not curative. The etiology is not infectious and does not involve
fungus.

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2
Q
  1. An 11-year-old boy with skin lesions on his trunk characteristic of ringworm has been
    brought to the family’s primary care provider by his mother. Which of the following
    aspects of the clinician’s assessment relates most directly to the suspected diagnosis?
    A) Previous infection with other parasitic worms
    B) Potential contact with the fungus from pets or other children
    C) Allergic reactions to drugs and environmental substances
    D) The child’s infant immunization history
A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Ringworm, or tinea, has a fungal etiology. Parasites, allergies, and immunizations would
be unlikely to relate directly to the etiology

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3
Q
  1. The father of an 18-month-old girl noticed a small vesicle on her face several days ago.
    The lesion ruptured and left a straw-colored crust that remained on the girl’s face. The
    eruption of new vesicles has prompted him to bring the child to the emergency
    department. Which of the following treatments for the child’s skin problem is most
    likely?
    A) A topical antifungal ointment
    B) An oral corticosteroid
    C) An antiviral ointment
    D) A topical antibiotic
A

Ans: D
Feedback:
The course and symptomatology of the child’s skin disorder is characteristic of
impetigo, which is bacterial in etiology and would likely be treated with a topical
antibiotic such as mupirocin

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4
Q
  1. An elderly patient has arrived at the physician’s office complaining of a rash. Upon
    further investigation, the patient states that the rash feels like a burning pain but also has
    some tingling. It is extreme sensitive to touch, and it’s “like crazy.” The nurse notes that
    the rash is made up of vesicles and located on the right thoracic region. The nurse
    suspects the patient has
    A) chickenpox.
    B) German measles.
    C) herpes zoster.
    D) human papillomavirus
A

Ans: C
Feedback:
All of the characteristics point to herpes zoster. The vesicles erupt for 3 to 5 days along
the nerve pathway (hence the reason for the burning pain). Eruptions usually are
unilateral in the thoracic region, trunk, or face. Rubella (German measles) is
characterized by a diffuse, punctuate, macular rash that begins on the trunk and spreads
to the arms and legs. Varicella (chickenpox) has a macular stage where it develops
within hours over the trunk, spreading to the limbs, mucosa, scalp, axillae, upper
respiratory tract, and conjunctiva. HPV causes genital warts and is a sexually
transmitted disease.

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following teaching points is most appropriate for a teenager who has
    sought care for the treatment of his severe acne?
    A) “Avoiding high-fat foods and chocolate won’t cure your acne, but it will likely
    improve it a lot.”
    B) “All the creams and ointments that you can buy have been shown to be no real
    help for acne.”
    C) “It’s important for you to vigorously wash your face several times a day.”
    D) “You might need antibiotic pills in addition to a cream for your face.”
A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Combination treatments for acne often include a topical preparation in addition to oral
antibiotics. Avoiding certain foods has not been shown to be effective in acne treatment
or prevention, and the topical products available are effective in some, though not all,
cases. Care should be taken not to exacerbate lesions by washing the face too vigorously
or too often.

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6
Q
  1. A 30-year-old woman, who just found out that she is pregnant, seeks a treatment for her
    severe acne. What is the most appropriate treatment for her skin condition?
    A) Accutane
    B) Low-dose tetracycline
    C) Retin-A
    D) A benzoyl peroxide agent
A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Benzoyl peroxide is a topical agent that has both antibacterial and comedolytic
properties. It is the topical agent most effective in reducing the P. acnes population.
Bacterial resistance does not develop to benzoyl peroxide. The irritant effect of the drug
also causes vasodilation and increased blood flow, which may hasten resolution of the
inflammatory lesions. Although Accutane, low-dose tetracycline, and Retin-A are often
used to treat severe acne, these drugs should not be given to those who are pregnant
because they can affect the development of the fetus.

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7
Q
  1. A 31-year-old man who has worked for several years installing fiberglass insulation has
    developed itchy, irritating lesions on his wrists and forearms over the last several
    months. He has applied moisturizing creams repeatedly and has taken antihistamines but
    has experienced no significant improvement. He is understandably concerned about the
    potential effect this could have on his livelihood and has asked his care provider when
    treatment will resolve the problem. What is the care provider’s most appropriate
    response?
    A) “A steroid cream will likely help but often the skin problem lasts long after
    contact with the product that irritates the skin.”
    B) “You’re clearly allergic to the fiberglass in your insulation, and over-the-counter
    allergy medications are likely to resolve the problem quite rapidly.”
    C) “The problem is that your skin is producing and sloughing off cells prematurely;
    this will respond well to a topical steroid.”
    D) “There are medications I can prescribe that will cure this sensitivity, but they tend
    to take many months to take full effect.”
A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Topical corticosteroids are often used in the treatment of irritant contact dermatitis, but
symptoms can persist long after contact with the irritant ceases. The course of the man’s
complaint is suggestive of irritant, not allergic, contact dermatitis. Hyperkeratinization
is characteristic of psoriasis, and a sensitivity can be treated but not cured.

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8
Q
  1. A 44-year-old man has been diagnosed with chronic urticaria, the exact cause of which
    cannot be determined. What is the pharmacological treatment that is most likely to be of
    most use to the man?
    A) topical retinoids
    B) epinephrine
    C) antihistamines
    D) benzoyl peroxide
A

Ans: C
Feedback:
While epinephrine may be of use during an acute episode of urticaria that affects the
upper airway, antihistamines are the most common regular treatment modality.
Retinoids and benzoyl peroxide are used for the treatment of acne.

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9
Q
  1. A female client who is suspected of having psoriasis. Which of the following aspects of
    the woman’s history and her care provider’s assessment would be potential contributors
    to her health problem? Select all that apply.
    A) The woman takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor for the treatment of
    hypertension.
    B) She has been diagnosed with arthritis.
    C) The woman has a family history of diabetes.
    D) Skin trauma of any kind often precedes an outbreak.
    E) The woman has dark skin.
A

Ans: A, B, D
Feedback:
ACE inhibitors, arthritis, and skin trauma are all associated with psoriasis and acute
episodes of the problem. Diabetes and dark skin tone are not noted to predispose to the
condition

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10
Q
  1. The nurse is caring for a patient in the hospital for pneumonia but also has a severe case
    of psoriasis that is being treated with methotrexate. During the morning assessments,
    which of the following lab values would alert the nurse that the patient may be
    experiencing a side effect to this medication? Select all that apply.
    A) Serum potassium (K+) level 3.6 mmol/L
    B) Platelet count 37 × 103/μL
    C) Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 28 units/L
    D) White blood cell count 1.2x10/μL
A

Ans: B, D
Feedback:
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that inhibits DNA synthesis and prevents cell mitosis.
Oral methotrexate has been effective in treating psoriasis when other approaches have
failed. The side effects include nausea, leukopenia (low WBC count), thrombocytopenia
(low platelet count), and liver function abnormalities. The low platelet count
corresponds to thrombocytopenia, and the low WBC corresponds to leucopenia. The
other lab values, K+ and ALT, are within the normal adult range.

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11
Q
  1. A 13-year-old girl has presented to a clinic with her mother explaining that she had an
    oval-shaped red patch on her chest a week ago but that more of the lesions are now
    appearing on her back. On examination, the lesions on her back are in a “Christmas
    tree” pattern. What is the girl’s most likely diagnosis?
    A) Lichen planus
    B) Pityriasis rosea
    C) Rosacea
    D) Melasma
A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The characteristic lesion of pityriasis rosea is an oval macule or papule with surrounding
erythema. This initial lesion is a solitary lesion called the herald patch and is usually on
the trunk or neck. As the lesion enlarges and begins to fade away (2 to 10 days),
successive crops of lesions appear on the trunk and neck. The lesions on the back have a
characteristic “Christmas tree” pattern. The girl’s history and symptomatology are not
characteristic of lichen planus, rosacea, or melasma

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12
Q
  1. A 22-year-old male who has been backpacking around Southeast Asia for several
    months has responded well to treatment for scabies that he acquired while on his trip.
    What follow-up measures should be taken?
    A) Continuing his antibiotics until the full course is completed
    B) Treatment of individuals that he has been in close contact with
    C) Applying corticosteroid creams for at least 8 weeks to prevent recurrence
    D) Avoiding potentially irritating products such as dyes and perfumes
A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Treatment of scabies should be extended to individuals with whom the affected person
has had close contact. Antibiotics and steroids are not used in treatment of scabies, and
irritants are of no particular threat.

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13
Q
  1. When trying to discern the extent of a burn, the nurse will note that second-degree
    full-thickness burns are characterized by
    A) extending into the subcutaneous tissue.
    B) noting that blood vessels have clotted and can be seen under the burned skin.
    C) redness or pinkness noted, but no blister formation is present on the epidermis.
    D) extensive pain along with waxy white areas with blister formation
A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Second-degree full-thickness burns involve the entire epidermis and dermis. These
burns have extensive pain because the pain sensors remain intact. These burns appear as
mottled pink, red, or waxy white areas with blister formation and edema. Answers A
and B relate to third-degree full-thickness burns, whereas answer C is characteristic of
first-degree burns.

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14
Q
  1. A 17-year-old male experienced third-degree full-thickness burns 2 days ago to his
    lower limbs after a fire at his workplace. Which of the following complications should
    his care team foresee and regularly assess for? Select all that apply.
    A) Systemic infection
    B) Fluid volume deficit
    C) Respiratory dysfunction
    D) Hypermetabolic response
    E) Constipation and bowel obstruction
A

Ans: A, B, C, D, E
Feedback:
Sepsis, hemodynamic instability, respiratory dysfunction, hypermetabolism, and bowel
obstructions are all demonstrated consequences of thermal injury.

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15
Q
  1. A care aide who works in a long-term care facility recognizes the high incidence and
    prevalence of a stage I pressure ulcer in immobile older adults. Which of the following
    protocols in the facility would the care aide advocate changing?
    A) Residents with persistently low food intake are identified.
    B) Immobilized residents are turned every 2 hours during both day and night.
    C) Residents are frequently encouraged to increase their fluid intake.
    D) Wound dressings are applied promptly to all identified or potential pressure
    ulcers.
A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Early-stage pressure ulcers and potential pressure ulcers do not necessitate wound
dressings and are better treated by turning, keeping skin dry, and removing pressure.
Nutrition and hydration status are important factors, and individuals who cannot
reposition themselves independently should be turned regularly.

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following clients of an oncologist is likely to have the poorest prognosis?
    A) A 69-year-old man who has been diagnosed with stage IV malignant melanoma
    B) A 70-year-old whose skin cancer has been identified as nodular ulcerative basal
    cell carcinoma
    C) A 51-year-old women whose biopsy has revealed intraepidermal squamous cell
    carcinoma
    D) A 59-year-old woman who has invasive squamous cell carcinoma
A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Late detection of malignant melanoma is associated with particularly poor outcomes.
Basal cells carcinomas often have strong treatment success rates. While invasive SCC
has worse outcomes than intraepidermal SCC, these are both exceeded in mortality by
late-stage malignant melanoma.

17
Q
  1. Which of the following changes in an 86-year-old male’s skin would necessitate further
    examination and possible medical treatment?
    A) A decrease in general sebaceous gland activity
    B) Appearance of new skin tags on his chest
    C) A new mole-like growth on his forearm
    D) Appearance of a keratosis on the man’s trunk
A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Appearance of a new mole or a change in the size or shape of an existing mole can be
indicative of malignant melanoma. Decreased sebaceous gland secretions, skin tags, and
keratoses are normal age-related changes

18
Q
  1. A nurse practitioner student is trying to distinguish the various rashes they will be
    seeing in their pediatric rotation. Their nurse preceptor is assisting by describing the
    rash associated with rubeola. Which of the following characteristics would apply to
    rubeola? Select all that apply.
    A) Rash is macular and blotchy.
    B) Maculopapular rash covering the trunk and spreading to the appendages.
    C) The rash usually begins on the face and then spreads to the legs/arms.
    D) The rash forms vesicles with depressed centers that are filled with yellow-colored
    fluid.
    E) The painful rash follows a nerve root usually on only one side of the body.
A

Ans : A, C
Feedback:
Rubeola is highly communicable. The characteristic rash is macular and blotchy. The
rash usually begins on the face and then spreads to the legs/arms (appendages). A
maculopapular rash covering the trunk and spreading to the appendages is noted in
roseola infantum. Varicella begins as a macular stage and then proceeds to the second
stage where the rash forms vesicles with depressed centers that are filled with
yellow-colored fluid. A painful rash follows a nerve root usually on only one side of the
body is usually characteristic of shingles

19
Q
  1. A few of the more experienced nurses are sitting around a lunch table discussing the
    changes they are seeing in their skin. Which of the following would be considered
    normal age-related changes? Select all that apply.
    A) Thickening of the dermis layer.
    B) Reduction in subcutaneous tissue.
    C) Increased hair growth on back and legs.
    D) Dry, scaly skin
A

Ans: B, D
Feedback:
Normal skin changes associated with aging are seen on areas of the body that have not
been exposed to the sun. They include thinning of the dermis and the epidermis,
diminution in subcutaneous tissue, a decrease and thickening of blood vessels, and a
decrease in the number of melanocytes, Langerhans cells, and Merkel cells. Hair growth
is reduced. The skin becomes dry, rough, scaly, and itchy.

20
Q
  1. A patient is showing the nurse some changes in his skin that he found while taking a
    shower. Which of the following lesions would give the nurse concern that it might be a
    precancerous lesion? Select all that apply.
    A) Soft, flesh-colored papule located on the neck and “armpit.”
    B) Wart-like, tan-brown lesion that is sharply outlined and a few centimeters in
    diameter.
    C) Several dry, brown, scaly lesions that are approximately 1 cm in diameter, and a
    few of the lesions are showing some ulceration.
    D) Tan to brown lesions commonly called “liver spots” are located on the forearm
    and hands.
    E) Red-colored mark close to the skin surface located on the face.
A

Ans: C, D
Feedback:
Actinic keratoses are the most common premalignant skin lesion that develops on
sun-exposed areas. The lesions are often multiple and more easily felt than seen. The
lesions are described as dry, brown, and scaly approximately 1 cm in diameter. A few of
the lesions may be showing some ulceration. Tan to brown lesions commonly called
“liver spots” are located on the forearm and hands. Liver spots are considered risks for
the development of skin cancer and should be treated. Keratoses are a horny growth or
an abnormal growth of the keratinocytes. A seborrheic keratosis is a benign, sharply
circumscribed, wartlike lesion that has a stuck-on appearance. Soft, flesh-colored papule
located on the neck, axilla (“armpit”), and intertriginous areas are skin tags. A
seborrheic keratosis is a wartlike, tan brown or black lesion that is sharply outlined and
a few centimeters in diameter. Strawberry nevus, or hemangioma, is named for its color.
This red tinge to your skin comes from a collection of blood vessels close to your skin’s
surface. While the hemangioma can be anywhere, the most common locations are the
face, scalp, back, or chest. It is very common and noncancerous.