unit 7 Flashcards

1
Q

A nurse is working with multiple heart patients in the critical care unit. What information in the patients charts would indicate intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) counterpulsation? Select all that apply.

A) Cardiogenic shock subsequent to acute myocardial infarction

B) Low cardiac output following cardiac surgery

C) Unstable angina

D) Congestive heart failure and an incompetent aortic valve

E) Severe peripheral vascular disease

F) Aortic aneurysm

A

a b c

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2
Q

A patient with cardiac failure is being prepped to receive a ventricular assist device for circulatory support. What procedure should the nurse expect the patient to undergo in the future?

A) Intra-aortic balloon pump counterpulsation

B) Heart transplantation

C) Coronary artery bypass graft surgery

D) Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty

A

b

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3
Q

A nurse working with a patient with a Novacor ventricular assist device (VAD) for long-term circulatory support recognizes that this patient is at risk for thromboembolic events. Which of the following is the best intervention for this patient?

A) Heparin infusions indefinitely

B) Warfarin therapy initially, which is gradually replaced by heparin infusions

C) Warfarin therapy indefinitely

D) Heparin infusions initially, which is gradually replaced by warfarin therapy

A

d

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4
Q

What should the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient being prepared for electrical cardioversion? Select all that apply.

A) Obtain informed consent from the patient.

B) Encourage the patient to eat a meal shortly before the procedure.

C) Record a 12-lead ECG and vital signs.

D) Turn off the synchronizer mode button.

E) Smear electrode gel between the two paddles on the chest.

F) Sedate the patient.

A

A C F

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5
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient during radiofrequency ablation. What nursing interventions would most likely put the patient at ease?

A) Communicating with the patient about the progress of the procedure

B) Connecting the patient to a cardiac monitor

C) Placing a lead apron under the patients lower back

D) Establishing a sterile field

A

A

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6
Q

A patient is being evaluated for possible permanent pacemaker implantation. Which of the following would be the best indication for permanent pacemaker implantation in this patient?

A) Myotonic muscular dystrophy with any degree of atrioventricular (AV) block

B) Asymptomatic sinus node dysfunction

C) Chronic, intermittent complete (bifascicular) heart block

D) Transient AV block after acute myocardial infarction (MI)

A

C

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7
Q

A patient requires a pacemaker that will pace his atria, sense electrical activity in his atria, and inhibit the response to sensed events. Which mode of pacemaker would he need?

A) ADD

B) VVI

C) AAI

D) VDD

A

C

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8
Q

A patient who had a transvenous pacemaker placed in the subclavian vein 24 hours ago is experiencing pleuritic pain, hypotension, and respiratory distress. What complication does the nurse suspect in this patient?

A) Perforation of ventricular wall

B) Pneumothorax

C) Lead dislodgment

D) Phlebitis

A

B

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9
Q

A patient is experiencing a malfunction with his permanent implanted pacemaker, and the nurse is examining his electrocardiogram strip. The patients pacemaker has a ventricular unipolar catheter and is in VVI mode. Which of the following findings should the nurse be most concerned about?

A) Pacing spikes absent

B) Pacing spike followed by a QRS complex

C) Tall pacing spikes

D) A narrow QRS

A

A

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10
Q

What information should the nurse include when teaching a patient with incessant ventricular fibrillation who is being considered for an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)?

A) An ICD would be beneficial for this patient.

B) An ICD would be reasonable to consider for this patient.

C) An ICD may be considered but is questionable for this patient.

D) An ICD would not be useful and may even be harmful for this patient.

A

D

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11
Q

The physician has ordered fibrinolytic agents for a patient with coronary artery disease. What patient diagnosis would the nurse most expect?

A) Posterior wall acute myocardial infarction

B) Acute coronary syndrome without ST segment elevation

C) Acute ST segment elevation myocardial infarction

D) New onset of right bundle branch block

A

C

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12
Q

The patient is receiving an intravenous drip of lidocaine hydrochloride to suppress ventricular arrhythmias. During repositioning of the patient, the intravenous tubing is dislodged from the pump and the patient receives a bolus of approximately 300 mg. The nurse stops the drip temporarily. What is the best nursing action to take next?

A) Observe closely for hallucinations and hypotension.

B) Reconnect drip at ordered rate per minute.

C) Administer intravenous magnesium sulfate.

D) Complete unusual occurrence report form.

A

A

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13
Q

A patient calls emergency services with complaints of crushing chest and left shoulder pain. He should be instructed to:

A) Take 325 mg acetaminophen.

B) Take 325 mg of aspirin.

C) Take an antacid.

D) Drive to the ED.

A

B

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14
Q

The patient is receiving a positive inotropic drug by intravenous drip. If this therapy is effective, what physical change would the nurse most expect to find?

A) New-onset extra heart sound S3

B) Increasing peripheral edema

C) Increased urine output per hour

D) Basilar pulmonary crackles

A

C

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15
Q

A patient who has had an acute ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is started on an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor drug. In explaining the action of this drug to the patient, what is the best rationale for the nurse to use?

A) Most patients with acute myocardial infarction also have hypertension.

B) Reduction of afterload reduces stress on the damaged heart and further damage.

C) Use of ACE inhibitors is part of protocol for treatment of a STEMI.

D) ACE inhibitor therapy is not effective for other types of heart disease.

A

B

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16
Q

The patient is being evaluated for antihyperlipidemic therapy. The patient has two active risk factors for coronary artery disease. The nurse expects that this therapy will be initiated if which patient criteria are present?

A) Total cholesterol less than 200 mg/dL

B) Low-density lipoprotein greater than 160 mg/dL

C) High-density lipoprotein less than 40 mg/dL

D) Low-density lipoprotein less than 70 mg/dL

A

B

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17
Q

The patient is scheduled to undergo a percutaneous cardiac intervention (PCI). What patient history would the nurse least expect to find?

A) Poor left ventricular function and ejection fraction

B) Coronary artery lesions less than 70% narrowing

C) Extreme old age with fragility

D) Unstable angina with activity and at rest

A

B

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18
Q

. A female patient has just undergone a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). What symptom, if found by the nurse, requires immediate intervention?

A) Three premature ventricular complexes

B) Frank bleeding from the femoral insertion site

C) Serum potassium level 4.8 mEq/L

D) Hemoglobin 11.7 g/dL

A

B

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19
Q

. The patient has undergone a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) for relief of coronary stenosis secondary to arteriosclerotic heart disease. During discharge teaching, what patient statement most indicates the need for reteaching?

A) This procedure means that my heart disease is cured.

B) I should continue to take my antilipidemic.

C) If I have any chest pain, I will call my doctor.

D) I will start a walking program after my doctor agrees.

A

A

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20
Q

. The patient is scheduled for a percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty (PBV). What would the nurse most expect to find in the patient history?

A) Acute myocardial infarction

B) Increased serum troponin

C) Stenotic cardiac valves

D) Severe peripheral edema

A

C

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21
Q

A patient is being treated with the intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP). What effect of the balloon is most important?

A) Reduction of left ventricular workload

B) Improvement in right ventricular perfusion

C) Reduction of right ventricular preload

D) Minimal compromise of cardiac output

A

A

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22
Q

The patient is receiving intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) counterpulsation. What is an indication for this therapy?

A) Hypotension after ST elevation myocardial infarction refractory to other therapy

B) High cardiac output in cardiogenic and other acute shock syndrome states

C) Right-sided congestive heart failure refractory to other therapy

D) Routine recovery from coronary artery bypass surgery in low-risk patients

A

A

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23
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient undergoing intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) counterpulsation. What patient symptom most requires immediate nursing intervention?

A) Patient complains of stiffness in insertion leg.

B) Mean arterial blood pressure is increased by 10 points.

C) Balloon is inflating during ventricular systole.

D) Cardiac output is increased by 3 L/min.

A

C

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24
Q

. The patient has a newly inserted VVI pacemaker set at a demand rate of 70. What cardiac monitor reading, if found by the nurse, most indicates a pacemaker malfunction?

A) Patient pulse is 75 with no pacing stimuli seen on cardiac monitor.

B) Patient pulse is 70 with pacing stimulus seen before each R wave.

C) Patient pulse is 65 with no pacing stimuli seen on cardiac monitor.

D) Patient pulse is irregular with pacing stimuli seen before some R waves.

A

C

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25
Q

The patient has just had a transvenous cardiac pacemaker lead inserted into the subclavian vein. What patient symptom, if found by the nurse, would most indicate a possible complication unique to the use of the subclavian vein?

A) Persistent hiccups at the same rate as the pacemakers set rate

B) Sudden respiratory distress, hypoxia, and hypotension

C) Persistent premature ventricular complexes seen on cardiac monitor

D) Oversensing, undersensing, or failure to capture

A

B

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26
Q

A patient has a permanent pacemaker and complains of redness and swelling over the site of the generator implantation. The patient also has fever and leukocytosis. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

A) Assess for any patient action causing pressure on the site.

B) Assure the patient that these are signs of normal healing.

C) Ensure that pacemaker is working correctly.

D) Facilitate administration of intravenous antibiotics

A

D

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27
Q
  1. A patient has had an alkali splash causing burns to the right upper extremity and the right side of the face. Which intervention by the nurse is a priority?

A) Obtain a health history.

B) Irrigate with water to the burned area.

C) Apply an antibiotic cream.

D) Start an intravenous line (IV) of normal saline at 10 mL/hr.

A

B

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28
Q

A patient arrived in the emergency department (ED) after being found by a family member unconscious in the garage with the car running. High flow oxygen at 100% is administered in the ED. The nurse knows that which of the following diagnostic tests would be the best to determine that the present therapy is effective?

A) Pulse oximetry

B) Chest x-ray

C) Serial carboxyhemoglobin levels

D) Hemoglobin and hematocrit

A

C

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29
Q

A patient has been treated for severe burns over 36% of the body. What assessment data obtained by the nurse indicates the patient may be experiencing septic shock? Select all that apply.

A) White blood count (WBC) 7,200

B) Blood pressure 60/40

C) PaO2 72

D) Urine output <10 mL/hour

E) Blood pressure 140/76

A

B C D

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30
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient 24 hours after fluid resuscitation for burns over 50% of the body. Which assessment data obtained by the nurse indicates complications from the fluid resuscitation?

A) Absent peripheral pulses

B) Crackles in lung fields

C) Sinus bradycardia

D) 1+ pitting edema of the feet

A

B

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31
Q

The nurse determines that the patient is at the end of the resuscitation phase of the burn injury. What assessment data has the nurse obtained that is a primary indicator of this phase?

A) Pa02 of 90

B) A reddish-brown color of urine

C) Urine output of >30 mL/hr

D) Urine output of <20 mL/hr

A

D

32
Q

The patient has received a nebulizer treatment with a bronchodilator for the treatment of bronchospasm related to an inhalation injury. What intervention by the nurse can effectively evaluate the effectiveness of this treatment?

A) Assess breath sounds.

B) Monitor for cardiac dysrhythmias.

C) Assess heart rate.

D) Assess for jugular vein distention.

A

A

33
Q

The nurse is assessing the patient with a circumferential burn to the left upper extremity. The nurse anticipates the performance of an escharotomy with which of the following assessment findings? Select all that apply.

A) Absent distal radial pulses

B) Progressive diminution of ultrasound signal

C) Limited range of motion

D) Decrease in capillary refill

E) Pink nail beds

A

A B D

34
Q

. A patient with third degree burns on both lower extremities from a house fire has been in the hospital for two weeks. The patient states, I do not feel like walking today. I am going to stay in bed. What is the best response by the nurse?

A) I understand. I have days like that too. Go ahead and stay in bed.

B) I am going to tell the doctor that you were not compliant with the order to get out of bed.

C) I will allow you to wait until the afternoon, but then you must get up.

D) It is important for your recovery to walk every day. Lets walk in the hallway for 10 minutes and then get a snack.

A

D

35
Q

A patient is in the ICU with lesions of the chest, back, and extremities. The physician suspects toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN). What statement by the patient would alert the nurse to the precipitating factor?

A) I started taking an antibiotic for a respiratory infection.

B) I was working in the garden planting flowers.

C) I have been treated for basal cell carcinoma of my nose.

D) I had a flu shot one month ago.

A

A

36
Q

. A patient is admitted into the emergency department with the complaint, I burned my hand. I didnt realize the stove top was still so hot. The palmar surface of the hand is blistered, red, and blanches. What type of burn does the nurse document this patient has?

A) Superficial

B) Deep partial thickness

C) Superficial partial thickness

D) Full thickness

A

C

37
Q

The patient has an acute burn injury. What might be the cause of the burn trauma? Select all that apply.

A) Pot of boiling water pulled off a stove

B) Crockpot full of beans spilled

C) House or room fire

D) Absence of electrical power

E) Exposure to anhydrous ammonia

F) Contact with white phosphorus

A

A B C E F

38
Q

The patient has a superficial partial-thickness (second-degree) burn. What characteristic unique to this type of burn does the nurse expect to find?

A) Bright red color

B) Surface moist and supple

C) Fluid-filled blisters

D) High pain level

A

C

39
Q

An adult has a thermal burn injury involving all of one leg and the entire posterior trunk. There are also three scattered areas on the anterior trunk, each approximately the size of the patients palm. As part of initial assessment, the nurse calculates the size of the burn using a combination of the Rule of Nines and the Rule of Palm. What is the result of this calculation in percentage of total body surface area (TBSA)?

A

39%

40
Q

The underlying pathophysiology of a burn trauma centers around what?

A) Location of burn damage

B) Zone of coagulation

C) Maximum exposure temperature

D) Extent of cellular injury and death

A

D

41
Q

A patient has a large thermal burn injury and is receiving large amounts of intravenous crystalloid fluid as part of initial therapy. What is the best explanation of the purpose of this therapy?

A) It is part of the protocol for initial burn management.

B) Burn trauma cell damage causes external fluid loss.

C) Development of third spacing reduces renal perfusion.

D) Crystalloid intravenous fluids are less expensive.

A

C

42
Q

A patient with a large thermal burn injury is found to have depressed cardiac contractility and a resultant low cardiac index. What is the underlying, primary, physiologic rationale for this situation?

A) Inflammation-triggered release of nitric oxide

B) Reduction of platelet aggregation and adhesion

C) Decreased intravascular volume from third spacing

D) Peripheral vasodilatation from inflammation

A

A

43
Q

A patient has a large burn injury that occurred in an enclosed space. On initial assessment, the patient is found to have erythema and blistering of the mouth and pharynx, hoarse speech, and tachypnea. What immediate therapy addressing these symptoms does the nurse anticipate?

A) Intravenous fluid resuscitation

B) Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy

C) Application of topical burn medications

D) Endotracheal intubation

A

D

44
Q

. A patient with a large thermal burn has been admitted to the burn intensive care unit. Because the leading cause of death in burned patients after the initial care period is infection, what is the nurses priority action?

A) Ensure compliance with hand hygiene protocols by all health care team members.

B) Limit visits of legal next of kin to very brief periods of time.

C) Adhere to clean aseptic principles during wound care and dressing changes.

D) Collect environmental cultures and wound cultures as scheduled.

A

A

45
Q

. In a motor vehicle crash, a patient suffers a skull fracture, possible cervical spine injury, multiple extremity fractures, and a large thermal burn. On initial admission to the emergency department, what is the nursing priority of care?

A) Intravenous fluid resuscitation

B) Protection from infection

C) Assessment of extent of burns

D) Protection of airway and cervical spine

A

D

46
Q

. A patient weighing 65 kg has a deep partial-thickness burn that totals 45% total body surface area (TBSA) and is ordered to receive fluid resuscitation with volumes calculated by the maximum amount from the American Burn Association consensus formula. The burn occurred at 0800 and intravenous fluids are initiated at 1000. For the first 8 hours after the burn, the nurse plans to administer what amount of intravenous lactated Ringers solution in mL/hr?

A

975

47
Q

An adult patient with a large thermal burn has been receiving intravenous fluid resuscitation calculated by the maximum amount according to the American Burn Association consensus formula. What symptom or result would indicate the onset of a complication secondary to rapid fluid resuscitation?

A) Urine output 30 to 50 mL/hr

B) Serum sodium 135 to 140 mEq/L

C) Weight gain of 12% since admission

D) New coarse crackles auscultated at lung bases

A

D

48
Q

The patient has a large burn wound that is mostly a full-thickness (third-degree) injury. Wound care included surgical excision and grafting with a variety of materials. The patient and family ask the nurse to explain why repeated surgical procedures are necessary. What is the best explanation the nurse can give the family?

A) Because of pain and surgical shock, the repair is done in stages.

B) The surgeon is the appropriate person to answer this question.

C) Successful autografting requires preparation of the wound bed.

D) Lack of patient compliance has reduced the effectiveness of autografting.

A

C

49
Q

A patient with a healing burn wound involving several joints is being evaluated at a patient care conference. What would indicate an effective collaborative plan of care and functioning of the health care team?

A) Conference discussion focuses on patient and family goal achievement.

B) Complication of contractures is blamed on inadequate attention by physical therapy.

C) Lack of adequate nutritional support is explained by poor patient compliance.

D) Family and patient have filed complaints of uncaring behaviors by physician.

A

A

50
Q

The patient has been admitted with toxic epidermal necrolysis (TENS) involving 40% total body surface area (TBSA), including the mouth, trunk, and lower extremities. What therapy does the nurse anticipate initiating?

A) Intravenous antimicrobial therapy

B) Vigorous physical therapy and walking

C) Topical corticosteroid therapy

D) Intravenous fluid and electrolyte replacement

A

D

51
Q

What would the nurse identify as the primary purpose for the administration of intravenous (IV) crystalloid fluids in the patient with hypovolemic shock?

A) Decrease myocardial oxygen demand.

B) Maximize oxygen-carrying capability.

C) Increase capillary permeability.

D) Restore circulating volume.

A

D

52
Q

The nurse is administering an intravenous antibiotic infusion over 30 minutes for a patient with cellulitis of the left lower extremity. The patient states, I am itching all over and am having trouble swallowing. What priority interventions by the nurse are necessary for this patient? Select all that apply.

A) Stop the antibiotic infusion.

B) Administer subcutaneous epinephrine.

C) Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) IV.

D) Switch to amoxicillin by mouth.

E) Administer Ativan for the patients anxiety.

A

A B C

53
Q

A nursing assessment of a patient with hypovolemic shock is most likely to reveal what assessment findings? Select all that apply.

A) Tachycardia

B) Oliguria

C) Disoriented to time and place

D) Diuresis

E) Bradycardia

F) Hypotension

A

A B C F

54
Q

The nurse is assigned to the care of a patient in the ICU who is in cardiogenic shock. What priority nursing intervention is necessary to conserve myocardial energy and decrease workload of the heart?

A) Lactated Ringers at 150 mL/hr

B) Morphine sulfate 4 mg IV

C) Furosemide (Lasix) 80 mg IV

D) Epinephrine 1:1,000, 0.3 mL IV

A

B

55
Q

The nurse in the ICU is assigned to care for a patient with septic shock. What nursing interventions are necessary to prevent malnutrition and optimize cellular function in this patient?

A) Administration of crystalloid solutions IV

B) High calorie, low protein diet

C) Enteral feedings

D) Administration of multivitamins in the IV fluid

A

C

56
Q

In developing the discharge plan for a patient who was treated in the hospital for anaphylactic shock related to a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAID) allergy, what would be the most important information for the nurse to include?

A) Adhere to dietary restrictions.

B) Follow up in one month with the physician.

C) Check labels of over-the-counter medications prior to taking.

D) Have blood pressure checked on a regular basis.

A

C

57
Q

The nurse is assigned to a patient in the ICU who is on a ventilator for exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. What intervention by the nurse can prevent the development of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome?

A) Suctioning the patient every 2 hours

B) Enteral feedings

C) Oral care every 2 hours

D) Administration of total parenteral nutrition

A

C

58
Q

The nurse understands that which of the following patients in the hospital is at the greatest risk for cardiogenic shock?

A) The 76-year-old male patient with a history of diabetes mellitus and previous myocardial infarction (MI)

B) The 42-year-old male who has mitral valve prolapse with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 65%

C) The 52-year-old female with a recent small anteroseptal wall MI

D) The 84-year-old female with hypertension

A

A

59
Q

The patient in the ICU is being treated for left lower lobe pneumonia. What assessment findings by the nurse may indicate that the patient is developing systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)? Select all that apply.

A) White blood cell count of 24,000/mm3

B) Respiratory rate of 24

C) Blood pressure of 100/60

D) Heart rate 96

E) Atrial fibrillation

A

A B D

60
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with hypovolemic shock who has had 6 units of packed red blood cells. Which of the following values would alert the nurse to a complication related to the administration of blood?

A) Potassium level of 6.0

B) Hemoglobin of 13

C) Sodium level of 134

D) pH 7.37

A

A

61
Q

A patient in the critical care unit has developed shock. What symptom or symptom group does the nurse expect to assess in any type of shock?

A) Tissue hypoxia

B) Massive vasodilation

C) Extreme blood loss

D) Presence of enterotoxins

A

A

62
Q

A critically ill patient has developed shock. What nursing assessment result indicates a normal compensatory mechanism?

A) Reduction of respiratory depth

B) Increase in systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

C) Decrease in circulating catecholamines

D) Increased stimulation of baroreceptors

A

B

63
Q

The patient is in hypovolemic shock from traumatic massive blood loss and is tachypneic and tachycardic, with cool, clammy skin and weak and thready pulses. What additional assessment parameter would the nurse be least likely to find during stage one or early compensated shock?

A) Hypotension

B) Increased urine output

C) Estimated blood loss greater than 30%

D) Mild altered mental status

A

A

64
Q

A patient is being treated for severe hypovolemic shock. Based on the primary treatment goal, what nursing intervention has the highest priority?

A) Frequent measurement of vital signs

B) Management of mechanical ventilation

C) Rapid intravenous fluid administration

D) Insertion of urinary drainage catheter

A

C

65
Q

The patient has developed cardiogenic shock and is decompensating. What pattern of hemodynamic alterations does the nurse expect to find?

A) High preload, high afterload, low cardiac index, tachycardia

B) Low preload, low afterload, high cardiac index, bradycardia

C) Low preload, high afterload, high cardiac index, tachycardia

D) High preload, low afterload, high cardiac index, tachycardia

A

A

66
Q

The patient is in decompensated cardiogenic shock. What collaborative intervention best addresses the central cause of cardiogenic shock?

A) Mechanical ventilation

B) Hemodynamic monitoring

C) Pharmacologic sedation

D) Intravenous nitrate infusion

A

D

67
Q

. For a patient in cardiogenic shock, the physician has ordered an intravenous continuous infusion of dobutamine hydrochloride. What nursing assessment result demonstrates achievement of therapeutic goals?

A) Blood pressure 120/70 mm Hg

B) Urine output 30 to 40 mL/hr

C) Arterial oxygen saturation 60%

D) Heart rate 110 to 120 bpm

A

B

68
Q

A patient is in shock and is exhibiting low blood pressure, low systemic vascular resistance (SVR), peripheral edema, pulmonary wheezing, tachycardia, and nausea and vomiting. What precipitating event does the nurse expect for this group of symptoms?

A) Acute myocardial infarction

B) Bacterial infectious illness

C) Recent seafood meal

D) Massive fluid loss

A

C

69
Q

The patient has been diagnosed with shock secondary to an antigenantibody reaction. What collaborative intravenous intervention has the highest priority?

A) Dobutamine

B) Red blood cells

C) Antimicrobials

D) Epinephrine

A

D

70
Q

A critically ill patient has developed septic shock. What pattern of hemodynamic values does the nurse expect to find?

A) Low preload, high afterload, low cardiac index, tachycardia

B) Low preload and afterload, high cardiac index, tachycardia

C) High preload and afterload, low cardiac index, tachycardia

D) Normal preload, low afterload, normal cardiac index, bradycardia

A

B

71
Q

A leading cause of death in critically ill patients is sepsis and septic shock. What nursing intervention is most directed toward preventing this life-threatening complication?

A) Strict adherence to hand hygiene protocols

B) Prompt initiation of isolation protocols

C) Patient and family preventive teaching

D) Sterile technique for care of intravenous sites

A

A

72
Q

A patient has been diagnosed with septic shock and is receiving intravenous fluid resuscitation along with other therapies. What nursing assessment best indicates improvement in tissue perfusion?

A) Mean arterial pressure 65 to 70 mm Hg

B) SvO2 80% to 90%

C) Skin warm and dry

D) Arterial bicarbonate ion 22 to 24 mEq/L

A

D

73
Q

A critically ill patient who is mechanically ventilated and has developed shock is in need of nutritional support. What route is preferred for this patient?

A) Oral

B) Enteral

C) Parenteral

D) Variable

A

B

74
Q

. A patient in shock has developed systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). What is the most likely type of shock resulting in SIRS?

A) Hypovolemic

B) Septic

C) Cardiogenic

D) Any shock

A

D

75
Q

A critically ill patient has developed multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). What should the nursing goal for management of the patient with impending MODS center on?

A) Early normalization of SvO2 and acidbase balance

B) Use of intravenous drotrecogin alfa (Xigris)

C) Specific organ system support

D) General intensive nursing care

A

A

76
Q
A