Unit 4 Flashcards

1
Q

A patient with Duchennes muscular dystrophy requires an intermittent short-term therapy to maintain alveolar ventilation. The patient is not a candidate for aggressive mechanical ventilation as provided through an artificial airway. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

A) Manual resuscitator

B) Negative-pressure ventilator

C) Volume ventilator

D) Pressure ventilator

A

B

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2
Q

A patient in the ICU is on a volume ventilator. The nurse recognizes that which of the following are true for this type of ventilator? Select all that apply.

A) Peak inspiratory pressure varies from breath to breath and must be monitored closely.

B) Amount of pressure depends on patients lung compliance and patient-ventilator resistance factors.

C) The device fits like a tortoise shell, forming a seal over the chest.

D) Exhaled tidal volume must be monitored closely.

E) Volume varies based on changes in resistance or compliance.

F) Small tidal volumes are used at frequencies greater than 100 breaths/minute.

A

A B

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3
Q

A patient has recently arrived in the ICU following cardiac arterial bypass graft surgery and has not yet emerged from anesthesia. He requires full ventilatory support. Which ventilation mode should the nurse use for this patient?

A) Pressure support ventilation mode

B) Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation mode

C) Pressure-controlled ventilation mode

D) Assist-control mode

A

D

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4
Q

A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) requires mechanical ventilation but is at risk for barotrauma due to decreased lung compliance. Which mode of ventilation should the nurse use with this patient?

A) Pressure support ventilation mode

B) Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation mode

C) Pressure-controlled ventilation mode

D) Assist-control mode

A

C

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5
Q

A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) has been receiving ventilation in assist-control mode for the past 48 hours. The fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) is set to 70% and tidal volume is set to 15 mL/kg of body weight. What complication or complications should the nurse be most concerned about in this situation? Select all that apply.

A) Barotrauma

B) Oxygen toxicity

C) Volutrauma

D) Hypoxemia

A

A B C

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6
Q

A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is receiving pressure-controlled ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 10 cm H2O. Which of the following nursing interventions will help protect this patient from one of the complications of PEEP?

A) Administration of antihypertensive medication

B) Increased administration of IV fluids

C) BiPAP ventilation via full facemask

D) Increase tidal volume to 20 mL/kg of body weight

A

B

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7
Q

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has just been started on pressure-controlled ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 18 cm H2O. The fraction of inspired oxygen is set to 50%. Which of the following is a sign of tension pneumothorax that the nurse should watch for?

A) An abrupt decrease in peak inspiratory pressure

B) Tracheal deviation from the midline

C) Syncope

D) Bradypnea

A

B

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8
Q

A patient in the ICU has been on assist-control ventilation via endotracheal intubation for 24 hours but will need to be shifted to a long-term ventilation method. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

A) Iron lung

B) Manual resuscitator

C) Tracheostomy tube

D) Pressure-controlled ventilation via endotracheal intubation

A

C

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9
Q

A patient in the CCU is on a ventilator with oral intubation. The nurse notices that a pressure sore is forming on the patients lip where it comes into contact with the endotracheal tube. Which nursing action would be most appropriate?

A) Reposition the endotracheal tube from one side to the other

B) Retape the endotracheal tube

C) Use twill tape

D) Place an oral bite block in the patients mouth

A

A

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10
Q

A patient in the ICU failed long-term ventilation weaning via CPAP trials. What is the next intervention that should take place?

A) The T-piece trial should be performed.

B) The patient should be switched to SIMV method.

C) The patient should be rested on the ventilator for 24 hours.

D) The patient should be switched to the SIMV plus PSV method.

A

C

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11
Q

The patient is scheduled for a lobectomy. As part of preoperative teaching, the nurse stresses the importance of coughing and deep breathing postoperatively. What positive outcome from this procedure does the nurse expect?

A) Thicker and less mobile secretions

B) Lower incidence of atelectasis

C) Increased risk for pneumonia

D) Increased need for pain medication

A

B

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12
Q

The patient has consolidation of his right lateral lower lung segments and is receiving chest physiotherapy. What position is best for draining this portion of the lung?

A) Semi-Fowlers

B) Supine

C) Left side-lying

D) Right side-lying

A

C

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13
Q

The patient is receiving supplemental oxygen therapy. What finding most clearly demonstrates achievement of one of the goals of oxygen therapy?

A) Therapy is discontinued after 3 days.

B) Increased respiratory rate and depth

C) Verbalization of relief of dyspnea

D) Reduction of arterial carbon dioxide pressure

A

C

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14
Q

The patient is receiving supplemental oxygen therapy. What finding would be most indicative of a life-threatening complication of oxygen therapy?

A) Increased somnolence

B) Eupneic respirations

C) SaO2 100%

D) Skin irritation under mask

A

A

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15
Q

The nurse is assisting with endotracheal intubation. In what circumstance would the nurse question the use of nasotracheal intubation?

A) Confused patient

B) Fractured mandible

C) Acute sinusitis

D) Possible cervical spine fracture

A

C

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16
Q

After pulmonary surgery, the patient returns to the critical care unit with a left pleural chest tube in place connected to a disposable three-chamber unit that is connected to suction at negative 20 cm H2O. What must the nurse ensure so that the goal for chest tube placement is met?

A) The water-seal chamber has the amount of water defined by the manufacturer.

B) The suction control chamber has vigorous bubbling at all times.

C) The drainage unit is prepared using sterile water only.

D) Suction is applied between negative 10 and 20 cm H2O.

A

A

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17
Q

A critically ill patient has an intravenous line inserted into the left subclavian vein. After the procedure, what nursing intervention is used to detect the most serious complication of this procedure?

A) Connection of ordered intravenous fluids

B) Compatibility evaluation for fluids infused

C) Use of a semipermeable plastic site dressing

D) Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds

A

D

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18
Q

The patient is to undergo chest tube placement. What is the best nursing intervention to prevent a complication of this procedure?

A) Facilitate chest tube removal on day 3.

B) Use the supine position during chest tube removal.

C) Premedicate with an intravenous opioid.

D) Keep drainage tubing off the bed.

A

C

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19
Q

A patient with asthma is receiving a bronchodilator medication. If this therapy is helpful to the patient, the nurse would expect to find which of the following?

A) Increased productiveness of cough

B) More intense wheezing

C) Persistent tachycardia

D) Reduced peak expiratory flow rate

A

A

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20
Q

A patient being supported with endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation is increasingly agitated. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

A) Administer neuromuscular blockade medication.

B) Administer a benzodiazepine.

C) Obtain arterial blood gas measurement.

D) Ask a family member to stay with the patient.

A

C

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21
Q

A patient in severe congestive heart failure is at risk for the development of acute respiratory failure and is receiving supplemental oxygen therapy. What nursing assessment parameter is most indicative of acute respiratory failure?

A) Dependent pitting edema that is worsening

B) New onset of systolic gallop

C) Conversion to atrial fibrillation

D) Arterial PaO2 45 mm Hg

A

D

22
Q

The patient is being well supported with a positive-pressure mechanical ventilator. Because of the mechanism of action of this type of ventilator, what common complication does the nurse watch for?

A) Diminished cardiac output

B) Increased somnolence

C) Deep venous thrombosis

D) Reduced patient control

A

A

23
Q

The patient is being supported with a positive-pressure mechanical ventilator. The machine in use is a volume-cycled ventilator. Relative to the functioning of this ventilator, what nursing assessment is most important?

A) Continuous pulse oximetry

B) Vital signs per unit protocol

C) Respiratory rate

D) Peak inspiratory pressure

A

D

24
Q

The patient is being supported with a positive-pressure mechanical ventilator set to a synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) rate of 8 breaths per minute. What situation, if found by the nurse, would indicate a ventilator malfunction?

A) SIMV rate 8, patient rate 30, total rate 38 breaths per minute

B) SIMV rate 6, patient rate 2, total rate 8 breaths per minute

C) SIMV rate 8, patient rate 0, total rate 8 breaths per minute

D) SIMV rate 8, patient rate 8, total rate 16 breaths per minute

A

B

25
Q

The patient is being supported with mechanical ventilation and is requiring very high levels of inspired oxygen to maintain his arterial blood gases at acceptable levels. In an attempt to reduce the amount of oxygen required, positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) at 5 cm H2O is added to the ventilator settings. What is the most important effect of PEEP?

A) Increases number of open alveoli

B) Increases patient comfort

C) Assists in ventilator weaning

D) Compensates for tubing resistance

A

A

26
Q

The patient is being supported by mechanical ventilation and is not maintaining adequate oxygenation on current settings. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) has just been increased from 10 to 12 cm H2O. What nursing assessment finding best indicates that the patient is not tolerating this change?

A) Increased cardiac output

B) Increased blood pressure

C) Significant hypotension

D) Increased pulmonary compliance

A

C

27
Q

A patient with multiple trauma and several other comorbidities is being supported with endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation and is scheduled for a tracheostomy. The family questions the appropriateness of this procedure. In explaining the rationale for the procedure to the family, what is the most important nursing point?

A) There is a physicians order for the procedure.

B) Unit protocol mandates tracheostomy after a patient has been intubated for 7 days.

C) A tracheostomy will greatly increase the patients comfort.

D) Tracheostomies at 3 to 7 days result in fewer ventilated days.

A

D

28
Q

As part of the care of a mechanically ventilated patient, the nurse provides oral and subglottic suctioning every 2 hours. What is the best rationale for this nursing action?

A) Stimulates cough and deep breathing

B) Reduces pulmonary microbial colonization

C) Maintains oral mucosal moisture

D) Part of Universal Precautions protocols

A

B

29
Q

The patient has been on a mechanical ventilator for 2 weeks. Weaning from mechanical ventilation is to start today. Based on the length of time that the patient has been ventilated, what information should the nurse emphasize to the patient and the family?

A) Extubation is expected later today, as the patient is relatively young.

B) Delays and setbacks are expected before independence is achieved.

C) The best method is continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).

D) Elevation of the head of the bed will provide for the most patient comfort.

A

B

30
Q

A patient with worsening tachypnea and dyspnea has a PaO2/FiO2 ratio of 190, bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray, pulmonary artery occlusive pressure (PAOP) of 15 mm Hg, and no indication of left atrial hypertension. Which of these findings indicates that the patient has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), as opposed to just acute lung injury (ALI)?

A) PaO2/FiO2 ratio of 190

B) Bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray

C) PAOP of 15 mm Hg

D) No indication of left atrial hypertension

A

A

31
Q

A patient in the ICU was admitted about 24 hours ago with symptoms of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). He now demonstrates shortness of breath and a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute. His heart rate is 115 beats per minute. The nurse notes a bluish tinge in his fingertips. His chest x-ray shows patchy alveolar infiltrate. His body temperature is normal. Which stage of ARDS is this patient most likely in?

A) Stage 1

B) Stage 2

C) Stage 3

D) Stage 4

A

B

32
Q

A patient in the ICU with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) complains of worsening dyspnea. Which of the following physiological changes associated with ARDS are most responsible for this patients impaired ventilation? Select all that apply.

A) Decreased lung compliance

B) Pulmonary hypertension

C) Vasoconstriction of the pulmonary vascular bed

D) Increased airway resistance

E) Cyanosis

F) Multisystem organ dysfunction

A

A D

33
Q

A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in the ICU is receiving high-frequency oscillation ventilation (HFOV). Which complication related to this intervention should the nurse be looking for?

A) Volutrauma

B) Pneumothorax

C) Cyanosis

D) Trapping of air in the alveoli

A

D

34
Q

Why must patients receiving high-frequency oscillation ventilation (HFOV) be sedated and paralyzed?

A) HFOV tends to cause muscle spasms.

B) HFOV is traumatic for many patients.

C) HFOV is painful.

D) With HFOV, oscillation will cease with any change in airway pressure

A

D

35
Q

A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in the ICU demonstrates diminished cardiac output, resulting in reduced oxygen delivery. Which of the following interventions will increase cardiac output in this patient by increasing contractility?

A) Administration of norepinephrine

B) Administration of dobutamine

C) Administration of diuretics

D) Hemoglobin transfusion

A

B

36
Q

A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) has shown no improvement after 8 hours of mechanical ventilation set to maximize fraction of inspired oxygen. The patient is developing pulmonary hypertension. Which intervention would be best for reducing the negative effects of the pulmonary hypertension in this patient via selective pulmonary vasodilation?

A) Nitric oxide

B) Prophylactic antibiotic therapy

C) Corticosteroids

D) Neuromuscular blocking agents

A

A

37
Q

A patient in the ICU with acute respiratory distress syndrome is at increased risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement for this patient? Select all that apply.

A) Elevate the head of the bed 30 to 45 degrees.

B) Weaning protocol

C) Antibiotic therapy

D) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis

E) Steroid administration

F) Peptic ulcer prophylaxis

A

A B D F

38
Q

An elderly patient in the ICU with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) has developed sepsis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to address the sepsis and its symptoms? Select all that apply.

A) Antibiotic therapy

B) Elevating head of the bed 30 to 45 degrees

C) Weaning protocol

D) Daily sedation withholding

E) Steroid administration

F) Activated protein C

A

A E F

39
Q

A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) demonstrates unmistakable signs of pneumothorax. What is the next intervention that the nurse should implement?

A) Increase the peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP).

B) Administer an inotropic agent.

C) Elevate the head of the bed to 35 degrees.

D) Assist with a chest tube insertion.

A

D

40
Q

A patient is admitted after an acute lung injury from smoke inhalation. If the patient develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), what is the first symptom the nurse will find?

A) Patchy infiltrate on chest x-ray

B) Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure less than 18

C) Increasing tachypnea and air hunger

D) Low plasma brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)

A

C

41
Q

A patient has experienced an acute lung injury. What factors in the patients history will probably increase his risk for developing adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

A) Smokes two packs a day

B) Drinks one glass of wine on holidays

C) Has a sedentary lifestyle

D) Has no known chronic diseases

A

A

42
Q

A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) has severe hypoxia refractory to high levels of oxygen and mechanical ventilation. What is the underlying pathophysiology most responsible for the hypoxia?

A) Increased capillary permeability from mediator release

B) Increased patchy infiltrate visible on chest x-ray

C) Reduced pulmonary afterload effects

D) Reduced pulmonary preload effects

A

A

43
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who has developed acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) after smoke inhalation. Based on the pathologic changes in ARDS, the nurse expects what outcome during the first several hours?

A) Improvement in airway patency with bronchodilator therapy

B) Persistent and worsening hypoxia despite mechanical ventilation

C) Evidence of hypercarbic respiratory failure with compensation

D) General fluid volume deficit from capillary permeability increase

A

B

44
Q

A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) has these arterial blood gas results: pH 7.33, PaCO2 50, HCO3 26, PaO2 80, SaO2 80. The patient is mechanically ventilated with 60% oxygen and positive-end expiratory pressure (PEEP) at 5 cm H2O. These arterial blood gas results, when compared to the previous day, show no improvement in oxygenation and increased PaCO2. When the nurse is assessing these results, what is most significant in evaluating the patients progress?

A) Patient isnt responding to conventional ventilation therapy.

B) Development of metabolic alkalosis is compensatory.

C) Inhaled oxygen and PEEP should be increased.

D) Change in acidbase balance is ominous

A

D

45
Q

A patient has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and is mechanically ventilated. The patient has not responded to high levels of oxygen and low positive-end expiratory pressure (PEEP), and the ventilator settings are being adjusted. What patient response or ventilator setting limit should the nurse look for to prevent ventilator-associated lung injury (VALI)?

A) Positive end-expiratory pressure at least 30 cm H2O

B) Fraction inspired oxygen set at 1.0 (100%)

C) Measured airway plateau pressure below 30 cm H2O

D) Respiratory rate between 12 and 20 breaths per minute

A

C

46
Q

The patient has been diagnosed with acute lung injury after submersion in contaminated ground water and probable aspiration. The patient has developed tachycardia, fever, and increased white blood cell count. What does the nurse anticipate will be added to the plan of care?

A) Prophylactic antibiotics

B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

C) Obtaining blood, sputum, urine cultures

D) Intravenous controlled sedation

A

C

47
Q

A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is receiving an inhaled bronchodilator. What nursing assessment indicates the most important expected outcome of the bronchodilator for this patient?

A) Decreased audible wheezing

B) Slight tachycardia during treatment

C) Increase in mucus suctioned

D) Reduction of peak airway pressure

A

D

48
Q

Infection and sepsis are significant complications of ARDS. Which nursing action has the highest priority in preventing infection and sepsis?

A) Maintain plateau airway pressure below 30.

B) Infuse enteral nutrition with minimal interruptions.

C) Keep patient sedated to facilitate ventilation.

D) Place in prone position every 2 to 4 hours.

A

B

49
Q

A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is being cared for in a CCU. The nurse implements the ventilator bundle of care. Which of the following statements about this action is true?

A) Bundles of care strategies combine several strategies that have been shown to improve patient outcomes.

B) A ventilator bundle is a group of ventilator equipment ordered together from respiratory care.

C) Protocols for care are called bundles in critical care to differentiate them from routine care.

D) Each bundle is a defined set of ventilator settings to be used for particular disease processes

A

A

50
Q

A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is receiving mechanical ventilation. The patients high airway pressure alarm sounds, and the nurse finds asymmetrical chest expansion and absent breath sounds on the right. What is the probable cause of this situation?

A) Oversedation

B) Need for suctioning

C) Impending respiratory arrest

D) Acute pneumothorax

A

D

51
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who is being mechanically ventilated. What strategies have been shown to prevent ventilator-acquired pneumonia (VAP)? Select all that apply.

A) Routine prone positioning

B) Elevate head of bed 30 degrees if not contraindicated

C) Oral care with plaque removal every 2 to 4 hours

D) Balanced nutrition by gastric tube

E) Continuous subglottic suctioning of secretions

F) Frequent turning and chest physiotherapy
a

A

B C E F