Unit 6 - Response to Stimuli Flashcards

1
Q

what changes in their environment do organisms respond to & what is the effect?

A

organisms detect & respond to internal & external stimuli

–> increases survival chances & increases chances of reproduction so passes on beneficial alleles

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2
Q

why is there always a strong selection pressure?

A

to avoid danger/predation
to detect prey
to avoid toxic build up e.g. CO2
to ensure effective O2 delivery by altering heart rate

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3
Q

what is the purpose of taxis & kinesis?

A

they are simple movements that can maintain a mobile organism in a favourable environment

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4
Q

describe kinesis

A

simple, non-directional movement of mobile organism
in response to unfavourable stimulus
changes the speed at which the organism moves & the rate at which it changes direction depending on conditions
in response to non-directional stimulus e.g. temperature

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5
Q

in kinesis, what happens if an organism is in favourable conditions (or has just moved from favourable to unfavourable conditions)?

A

rate of changing direction increases to increase chances of returning to favourable conditions quickly

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6
Q

in kinesis, what happens if an organism is in unfavourable conditions?

A

rate of changing direction decreases so organism moves in straighter line to increase chances of finding a location with favourable conditions (surrounded by +ve stimuli)

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7
Q

describe taxis

A

more advanced than kinesis
directional movement of mobile organism towards favourable conditions & away from unfavourable conditions
+ve taxis = towards stimulus
-ve taxis = away from stimulus
in response to directional stimulus e.g. light, chemicals, gravity etc.

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8
Q

describe tropism & example

A

plant growth response (or part of a plant)
in response to directional stimulus
enable favourable conditions for max. growth

e.g. shoots show +ve phototropism & -ve gravitropism
roots show -ve phototropism & +ve gravitropism & +ve hydrotropism

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9
Q

what causes tropism in plants?

A

uneven distribution of IAA auxin, which causes uneven cell elongation & growth

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10
Q

what do plants produce to control growth & responses to light & gravity?

A

hormones

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11
Q

what is the benefit of phototropism?

A

to aid photosynthesis

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12
Q

what is the benefit of gravitropism?

A

to obtain water, mineral ions & better anchorage

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13
Q

what does IAA stand for?

A

indolacetic acid

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14
Q

describe the response of shoots to light from directly above? (phototropism)

A

IAA diffuses evenly to both sides of the shoot
so even cell elongation & growth on both sides
so shoot grows straight up

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15
Q

describe the response of shoots to light from one direction? (phototropism)

A

IAA diffuses to shaded side of the shoot
so cells on shaded side elongate more & grow faster than cells on sunny side
so shoot grows towards light

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16
Q

what is the effect of the force of gravity on IAA?

A

the force of gravity causes IAA to accumulate on the underside of roots & shoots

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17
Q

describe gravitropism (response to gravity) in roots

A
  1. cells in root tip produce IAA
  2. IAA diffuses & accumulates on underside of root due to the force of gravity
  3. IAA inhibits cell growth & elongation on underside of root
  4. so cells on upperside grow faster & elongate more than underside cells
    –> so roots grow downwards in the direction of gravity
    +vely gravitropic
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18
Q

describe gravitropism (response to gravity) in shoots

A
  1. cells in shoot tip produce IAA
  2. IAA diffuses & accumulates on underside of shoot due to force of gravity
  3. IAA stimulates cell growth & elongation on underside of shoot
  4. so underside cells grow faster & elongate more than upperside cells
    –> shoot grows upwards against gravity
    -vely gravitropic
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19
Q

describe the organisation of the nervous system

A

CNS: brain, spinal cord

peripheral nervous system (PNS):
sensory pathways (S neurones from receptor to CNS)

motor pathways:
somatic/voluntary NS - conscious control e.g. movement
autonomic/involuntary NS - subconscious control e.g. heart rate: sympathetic - stimulate effectors & speed up
parasympathetic - inhibits effectors & slows down

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20
Q

what is a reflex & e.g.?

A

a rapid, short-lived, localised & involuntary response to a dangerous/harmful stimulus

e.g. removing hand from hot object

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21
Q

what makes a reflex rapid?

A

very few synapses (chemical message is slower than electrical impulse)
short neurone pathway
does not go to conscious part of brain

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22
Q

why are reflexes important? classic exam Q

A

to decrease or avoid damage - give e.g. related to Q
to escape from predators
to maintain balance/posture
role in homeostasis

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23
Q

describe the reflex arc (in exam, relate to Q)

A
  1. stimulus e.g. sharp pin
  2. receptor - pressure/mechanoreceptors in skin detect stimulus & generate potential in sensory neurone
  3. sensory neurone transmits action potential to spinal cord in CNS
  4. relay/intermediate neurone links sensory neurone to motor neurone
  5. motor neurone transmits action potential from spinal cord (CNS) to effector = muscle or gland e.g. muscles on finger/arm
  6. effector - muscle contracts/gland secretes e.g. finger/arm muscle contracts
  7. response e.g. pull finger/hand away from sharp object
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24
Q

from Seneca: function of dendrites, axon & cell body

A

dendrites carry impulse towards cell body
axon - away
cell body - where nucleus is located

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25
Q

what is the structure of a myelinated motor neurone?

A

one long axon

many dendrites - large SA for receiving action potentials (APs) from relay neurone

cell body - contains organelles, lots of RER & mitochondria for protein synthesis (channel proteins) & neurotransmitters

Schwann cells - wrap around axon, provide protection & electrical insulation & contains myelin sheath

nodes of Ranvier - gaps b/w Schwann cells where there is no myelin sheath

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26
Q

what are 3 functions of Schwann cells?

A

electrical insulation
phagocytosis
nerve regeneration

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27
Q

how does an AP travel along a neurone? (general structure)

A

by saltatory conduction
from one node of Ranvier to the adjacent node

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28
Q

what makes neurones excitable?

A

have resting potential & 3 protein transporters:
1. sodium-potassium pump
works all the time
all over the neurone

  1. open Na+ & K+ channels all over the neurone
    there are more K+ channels than Na+ channels - membrane is more permeable to K+
  2. voltage-gated channels
    sensitive to charge around them
    all over axon
    lots on axon hillock (mainly VgNa+)
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29
Q

describe the neurone when it has no membrane potential (theoretical)

A
  1. equal conc. K+ & Na+ inside & outside of axon
    no membrane potential: 0mV
    no diffusion of K+ & Na+
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30
Q

describe the neurone when decreasing membrane potential

A

sodium-potassium pump uses active transport to move 3 Na+ out & 2K+ into axon
–> increase conc. K+ & decrease conc. Na+ in axon
no K+ & Na+ diffusion

so overall decrease in # of positively charged ions in membrane –> decrease in membrane potential: -10mV

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31
Q

describe the neurone when creating & maintaining a resting membrane potential

A

sodium-potassium pump uses active transport to move 3 Na+ out & 2K+ into axon

K+ diffuses out of axon by fac. dif. via open channel proteins down electrochemical gradient

Na+ diffuses into axon by fac. dif. down electrochemical gradient

axon membrane is more permeable to K+ than Na+ so conc. of positive ions inside axon decreases to -65mV = resting potential

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32
Q

what are the essential factors for creating & maintaining resting potential?

A
  1. sodium-potassium pump actively transports 3Na+ out & 2K+ into axon using ATP
  2. axon membrane is more permeable to K+ (bc it has more K+ channel proteins) so more K+ diffuses out of axon than Na+ diffuses in
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33
Q

how is resting potential established (2 marker)?

A
  1. membrane is more permeable to K+ than Na+ bc it has more K+ channels
  2. sodium-potassium pump actively transports 3Na+ out & 2K+ into axon
    establishes electrochemical gradient
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34
Q

what is a generator potential?

A

a small depolarisation of the neurone’s membrane potential, causing a deviation from the resting potential at -65mV

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35
Q

define depolarisation

A

the neurone’s membrane becomes less negative due to an influx of Na+ ions

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36
Q

where do generator potentials occur?

A

at receptor cells or sensory nerve endings e.g. in Pacinian corpuscle

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37
Q

what causes generator potentials?

A

energy transduction, where a receptor detects a stimulus in an energy form (as a result of an energy change)
this energy is used to open VgNa+

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38
Q

how is an AP caused (linked to generator potentials)?

A

if generator potential causes a large enough depolarisation of membrane (above -50mV) due to sufficient diffusion of Na+ into axon, AP triggered

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39
Q

what is the all or nothing law?

A

any stimulus that causes the membrane potential to reach/exceed the threshold value triggers an AP

all APs have the same magnitude

generator potentials below the threshold value of -50mV will not trigger an AP

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40
Q

describe the movement of Na+ ions when the stimulus is sub-threshold

A
  1. receptor detects a small energy change/stimulus
  2. some Vg Na+ channels open –> some Na+ diffuses into axon, down electrochemical gradient by fac. dif. –> membrane potential slightly less negative but does not reach threshold value of -50mV
  3. other VgNa+ channels do NOT open so no AP triggered
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41
Q

describe the movement of Na+ ions when the stimulus is above threshold

A
  1. receptor detects large energy change/stimulus
  2. many VgNa+ channels open –> lots of Na+ ions diffuse into axon down EC gradient –> large depolarisation of membrane
  3. this causes positive feedback = more VgNa+ channels to open –> greater influx of Na+ –> this reaches/exceeds the threshold value of -50mV so AP is triggered
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42
Q

all APs are the same amplitude no matter how large the initiating stimulus

A
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43
Q

what are the stages of the action potential?

A

resting potential
depolarisation
repolarisation
hyperpolarisation
restoring resting potential

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44
Q

what happens during resting potential?

A

-65 mV
sodium-potassium pump moving 3Na+ ions out & 2K+ ions into axon
VgNa+ & VgK+ channels closed

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45
Q

what happens during depolarisation?

A

generator potential up to -50mV
fac. diff. Na+ ions into cell down electrochemical gradient
membrane potential becomes more positive
at -50mV threshold, Vg Na+ channels open, causing influx of Na+
this causes positive feedback so more Na+ channels open
membrane potential increases to +40mV

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46
Q

what happens at +40mV?

A

Na+ equilibrium is reached at +40mV
VgNa+ channels close & VgK+ channels open

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47
Q

what happens during repolarisation?

A

VgNa+ channels close & VgK+ channels open
fac. diff. of K+ ions out of axon down electrochemical gradient
membrane potential becomes more -ve

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48
Q

what happens during hyperpolarisation?

A

when K+ ions diffuse out, membrane potential becomes more -ve than resting potential (as VgK+ channels are slow to close)
VgNa+ & VgK+ channels close
K+ equilibrium is reached at-90mV

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49
Q

what is the importance of the refractory period?

A

no AP can be generated in hyperpolarised parts of membrane
promotes separate impulses
ensures unidirectional impulse
creates a time delay b/w APs
limits frequency of AP

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50
Q

describe the passage of AP in an unmyelinated axon

A
  1. stimulus causes influx of Na+ ions so first section of membrane depolarises
  2. localised currents occur
  3. which causes VgNa+ channels further along membrane to open so neighbouring regions of membrane depolarise
  4. meanwhile, the previous region of membrane repolarises & is hyperpolarised then resting potential restored
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51
Q

describe the passage of AP in a myelinated axon

A

axon surrounded by myelin sheath produced by Schwann cells wrapping around axon
myelin is a mixture of lipids & acts as insulation
there are not VgNa+ or VgK+ channels in the axon membrane underneath the myelin
APs can only happen at Nodes of Ranvier, which are gaps b/w the myelin sheath
localised currents stretch b/w Nodes of Ranvier, speeding up the transmission of the impulse by 3 times
the impulse jumps b/w Nodes of Ranvier, which is saltatory conductance

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52
Q

what factors affect the speed of conductance of AP?

A

the myelin sheath
axon diameter
temperature

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53
Q

how does the myelin sheath affect the speed of conductance?

A

causes nerve impulses to jump from one Node of Ranvier to another, called saltatory conduction
this increases the speed of transmission

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54
Q

how does the diameter of the axon affect the speed of conductance?

A

the greater the diameter, the faster the speed of impulse
bc less leakage of ions from larger axons
so easier to maintain membrane potential

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55
Q

how does temperature affect the speed of conductance?

A

the higher the temperature, the faster the speed of impulse up to a point
increased temp. = increased rate of diffusion of Na+ & K+ ions bc increased KE
increased temp. = increased rate respiration so increased atp production for sodium-potassium pump

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56
Q

greater strength of stimulus

A

= greater frequency of APs

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57
Q

what is the function of a synapse?

A

electrical impulse cannot travel over junction b/w neurones
neurotransmitters send impulses b/w neurones & to effectors
new impulses can be initiated in several different neurones for simultaneous responses

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58
Q

define synapse

A

the gap b/w 2 neurones
the point where one neurone communicates with another neurone or w an effector

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59
Q

describe the structure of a cholinergic synapse

A

presynaptic neurone:
presynaptic knob:
lots of mitochondria
SER
VgCa2+ ion channels
synaptic vesicles containing neurotransmitter/acetylecholine (ACh)

synaptic cleft:
gap b/w neurones

postsynaptic neurone:
receptors complementary to neurotransmitter/ACh
ligand-gated Na+ channels

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60
Q

describe how an impulse travels across a cholinergic synapse

A
  1. When AP arrives, Na+ enters through VgNa+ channel. depolarisation of membrane causes VgCa2+ channels to open.
  2. Ca2+ ions enter via fac. dif., causing vesicles containing ACh to move towards presynaptic membrane (requires ATP)
  3. vesicles fuse with presynaptic membrane & release ACh into synaptic cleft (exocytosis)
  4. ACh diffuses across synaptic cleft towards post-synaptic membrane
  5. ACh binds to complementary receptors on ligand-gated Na+ channels on post-synaptic membrane. ligand-gated Na+ channels open so Na+ diffuses in
  6. this causes depolarisation of post-synaptic membrane so VgNa+ channels open so Na+ diffuses into axon so new AP initiated
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61
Q

how does a synapse ensure unidirectionality of impulse?

A

1- neurotransmitter only produced in presynaptic neurone

2- ligand-gated Na+ channels are only in post-synaptic membrane

so impulse always goes from presynaptic to postsynaptic neurone

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62
Q

what happens when ACh binds to ligand-gated Na+ channels?

A

ACh binds to receptor site
which causes conformational change in protein (3 structure changes)
so Na+ enters

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63
Q

why is ACh recycled?

A

too slow & energy costly to produce new ACh every time

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64
Q

describe how neurotransmitter/ACh is recycled

A
  1. enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE) binds to ACh & hydrolyses ACh into acetyl + choline so it is released from receptors & ligand-gated Na+ channels close

prevents overstimulation of skeletal muscle cells

  1. choline is reabsorbed into presynaptic knob & recombined with acetyl in SER (requires ATP)
  2. ACh is packaged into vesicles for future use
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65
Q

define summation & name the 2 types

A

neurotransmitter from several sub-threshold impulses accumulate to generate an AP

temporal summation
spatial summation

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66
Q

define & describe the process of spatial summation

A

several simultaneous APs from different presynaptic neurones cause neurotransmitter release & converge onto one postsynaptic neurone

sub-threshold: if AP from only one presynaptic neurone, insufficient neurotransmitter is released

above threshold: if AP from more than one presynaptic neurone, sufficient neurotransmitter is released so AP triggered in postsynaptic neurone

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67
Q

define & describe the process of temporal summation

A

one presynaptic neurone has a high frequency of APs so releases neurotransmitter several times quickly

sub-threshold: no AP in postsynaptic neurone bc insufficient neurotransmitter released

above threshold: AP produced in postsynaptic neurone bc sufficient neurotransmitter released

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68
Q

what type of synapse is a cholinergic synapse?

A

excitatory

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69
Q

describe excitatory synapse

A

AP in presynaptic neurone increases chance of AP occurring in postsynaptic neurone

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70
Q

describe the process of transmission across an inhibitory synapse

A

AP in presynaptic neurone decreases the chance of AP occurring in postsynaptic neurone
1. neurotransmitter binds to & opens Cl- channels in postsynaptic membrane & K+ channels open
2. Cl- moves in & K+ moves out by fac. dif.
3. membrane potential becomes more -ve = hyperpolarised
4. reaching -50mV threshold for AP is less likely bc more excitatory neurotransmitter is needed

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71
Q

by what mechanisms do drugs increase & decrease synaptic transmission?

A

increase: inhibit AChE
mimic shape of neurotransmitter & bind to receptor site on ligand-gated Na+ channel so it opens

decrease: inhibit release of NT
decrease permeability of postsynaptic neurone to ions
hyperpolarise postsynpatic membrane

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72
Q

what is the function of receptors?

A

cells that detect stimuli (changes in the internal & external environment)

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73
Q

each receptor responds to…
thermo-
photo-
mechano-
chemo-

A

a different & specific type of stimulus
thermo- detect heat energy only
photo- detect light energy only
mechano- detect pressure only
chemo- detect chemicals only

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74
Q

define sensory reception & sensory perception

A

sensory reception: the function of receptors (receiving info.)
sensory perception: making sense of info. from receptors (interpretation) (largely the function of the brain)

75
Q

describe 2 important features of receptors e.g. Pacinian corpuscle

A
  1. specific to a single type of stimulus: e.g. mechanical pressure only
  2. produces a generator potential by acting as a transducer
    all stimuli involve change in energy
    transducer/receptor converts this energy change into electrical nerve impulse/generator potential –> AP
    e.g. PC transduces mechanical energy of stimulus into generator potential –> AP
76
Q

where are PCs located?

A

deep in skin
lots in fingers & soles of feet
joints, ligaments & tendons where they allow organism to know which joints are changing direction (proprioperception)

77
Q

what is the structure of PC?

A

see diagram
lamellae
capsule
blood capillary
sensory neurone ending
axon of sensory neurone
stretch-mediated Na+ channels
direction of AP

78
Q

what are the lamellae of a PC?

A

layers of connective tissue with gel b/w them

79
Q

how does the PC transduce mechanical energy into GP?

A

sensory neurone ending at centre of PC has stretch-mediated Na+ channels in CSM
when PC is deformed, the channels’ permeability to Na+ increases

80
Q

describe the PC at resting state

A

the stretch-mediated Na+ channels are too narrow to allow Na+ to diffuse into the axon
PC has resting potential at -65mV

81
Q

describe the process by which the PC causes an AP

A

when pressure is applied to the PC
lamellae are deformed & membrane around sensory neurone is stretched
this widens the stretch-mediated Na+ channels & Na+ diffuses into the axon of the sensory neurone
membrane depolarises & produces a GP
GP turns into AP if threshold value (-50mV) reached, which travels to CNS

82
Q

what is the function of:
retina
fovea
blind spot
optic nerve?

A

retina: contains photoreceptors (rods & cones) & transmits APs to optic nerve
fovea: only cones, area of highest visual acuity
blind spot: no photoreceptors so light that falls on this spot is not perceived - exit of ganglion neurones of the optic nerve
optic nerve: transmits impulses generated in retina to cerebral cortex

83
Q

what are the visual pigments of rods & cones?

A

rods: rhodopsin
cones: there are 3 different type of cone cells each with a different variant of iodopsin

84
Q

what is the colour perception of rods & cones?

A

rods: monochromatic (black & white)
cones: trichromatic (blue, green & red bc of different iodopsin variants)

85
Q

how many rods & cones are there in each eye?

A

120 million rods
6 million cones

86
Q

what is the distribution of rods & cones?

A

rods: all over retina but not in fovea
exclusively rod cells in periphery of retina

cones: all over retina but greatest density at fovea
no cones at periphery

87
Q

define visual acuity

A

clarity - ability to distinguish b/w 2 points close together

88
Q

describe the visual acuity of rods

A

lower visual acuity
many rod cells converge onto one bipolar neurone = spatial summation = retinal convergence
2 points of light falling on retina are seen as one point bc only one AP sent

89
Q

describe the visual acuity of cones

A

higher visual acuity
one cone cell joins to one bipolar neurone
2 points of light perceived as 2 distinct points

90
Q

rod/cone –> bipolar neurone –>

A

ganglion neurone

91
Q

describe rod cells’ sensitivity to light

A

more sensitive to light
bc rhodopsin breaks down more easily –> AP

also spatial summation effect of retinal convergence
/sufficient neurotransmitter released
= more likely to reach threshold value & trigger AP

92
Q

describe cone cells’ sensitivity to light

A

less sensitive to light
as iodopsin breaks down less easily
to require higher light intensity to cause AP
also no retinal convergence

93
Q

benefit to mammals of having different photoreceptor cells?

A

good all-round vision day & night

94
Q

what is the autonomic nervous system & what 2 parts does it consist of?

A

part of the peripheral nervous system that controls involuntary processes

  1. parasympathetic nervous system - inhibits effectors –> slows down processes inc. decreases heart rate
  2. sympathetic nervous system - stimulates effectors –> speeds up processes inc. increases heart rate
95
Q

describe cardiac muscle

A

makes up heart walls
myogenic - contraction is initiated from within itself (SAN) rather than from external impulses (like with skeletal muscles)

96
Q

label diagram of the heart

A

see booklet

97
Q

what is the cardiac cycle initiated by?

A

small area of cardiac muscle called the SAN/pacemaker which sets the rhythm for all other cardiac muscle ~65bpm resting hr

98
Q

describe the sequence of events that control basic heart rate

A
  1. SAN send excitation wave of electrical activity over the atrial walls
  2. both atria contract
  3. the atrioventricular septum is non-conductive tissue that causes a delay b/w atrial & ventricular contraction
    –> this allows atria to empty/ventricles to fill with blood fully
  4. wave is conducted through the AVN
  5. AVN causes short delay before passing on the wave to Purkyne fibres that make up the Bundle of His
  6. the wave of electrical activity is transmitted to the apex the spreads upwards
  7. both ventricles contract from the apex upwards, pumping blood out the heart
99
Q

what stimuli cause an increase in heart rate?

A

exercise (increased CO2)
stress/fear
low blood pressure

100
Q

what are the functions chemo- & baro- receptors & where are they located?

A

chemoreceptors detect changes in pH
increased CO2 = decreased pH

baroreceptors detect stretch/pressure in blood vessels

both found in lining of blood vessels e.g. aorta & carotid arteries

101
Q

what stimuli cause a decrease in heart rate?

A

recovery (decreased CO2)
rest
high blood pressure

102
Q

how is heart rate increased?

A
  1. stimulus (specific to Q) is detected by receptors (specific to Q - chemo- detect increase in CO2 = decrease in pH or baro- detect stretch/pressure in blood vessels) in lining of blood vessels
  2. receptors send impulses to cardiac acceleratory centre in medulla
  3. more impulses are sent via sympathetic neurones e.g. cardiac nerve
  4. to the SAN
  5. then noradrenaline is released at an excitatory synapse
  6. this increases frequency of impulses to AVN

rate & force of contraction increases
cardiac output increases
blood pressure increases

103
Q

what is the effect of increased cardiac output?

A

CO = HR X stroke volume (volume of blood pumped out the heart per beat)

more CO2 removed & more O2 delivered from muscles

104
Q

how is heart rate decreased?

A
  1. stimulus (specific to Q) is detected by receptors (specific to Q - chemo- detect decrease in CO2 = increase in pH or baro- detect stretch/pressure in blood vessels) in lining of blood vessels
  2. receptors send impulses to cardiac inhibitory centre in medulla
  3. more impulses are sent via parasympathetic neurones e.g. vagus nerve
  4. to the SAN
  5. then acetylcholine is released at an inhibitory synapse –> K+ channels open, causing hyperpolarisation of post-synaptic membrane
  6. this decreases frequency of impulses to AVN

rate & force of contraction decreases
cardiac output decreases
blood pressure decreases

105
Q

describe how muscles act in antagonistic pairs

A

muscles are usually found in antagonistic pairs
muscles are joined to the skeleton by tendons
muscles can only contract or relax - not push
contraction causes muscles to shorten & thicken
returning to long, thin state requires contraction of the antagonistic muscle

106
Q

agonist vs antagonist

A

agonist = muscle that contracts
antagonist = muscle that relaxes

107
Q

define voluntary muscle

A

controlled by nervous system
can be triggered voluntarily

108
Q

describe the gross structure of skeletal muscle (see booklet for diagram)

A

tendon
connective tissue
muscle tissue is made up of thousands of muscle fibres
alternating light & dark bands
muscle fibres contain many myofibrils

109
Q

define muscle fibre

A

many fused cells that form one continuous tubular cell with many nuclei (multinucleated)

110
Q

define myofibril

A

individual contractile unit of a muscle made of actin & myosin

111
Q

label & define parts of a single muscle fibre

A

sarcolemma - cell surface membrane
sarcoplasm - cytoplasm
sarcoplasmic reticulum - specialised form of SER. stores Ca2+ which is released to initiate muscle contraction
T(transverse)-tubules - in-folding of sarcolemma, which transmits action potentials into the fibre & close to each myofibril
many mitochondria - release ATP for muscle contraction (by sliding filament model) & active transport (of Ca2+)

112
Q

define I band & how does it change when muscle contracts?

A

light band
only actin filament
narrower during contraction

113
Q

define Z line & how does it change when muscle contracts?

A

thin, dark line in centre of I band where actin filament originate (think Zac)
move closer together during contraction

114
Q

define A band & how does it change when muscle contracts?

A

dark band
myosin & actin overlap here
A band does not change size

115
Q

define M line

A

thin, dark line in centre of A band (& H band) where myosin filaments are joined tail to tail
originate

116
Q

define H band & how does it change when muscle contracts?

A

lighter section of the A band
only thick myosin filaments
decreases width as actin overlaps during contraction

117
Q

define sarcomere & how does it change when muscle contracts?

A

functional unit of a myofibril
distance b/w 2 adjacent Z lines
sarcomere decreases during contraction as Z lines move closer together

118
Q

what are the features of a contracted myofibril?

A

I band narrower - more overlap of actin & myosin
Z lines closer together - shorter sarcomere
H band narrower - more actin overlaps

NB A band stays same width as length of myosin filaments does not change

119
Q

see booklet for diagram & electron micrograph

120
Q

what is a neuromuscular junction?

A

where a motor neurone meets a muscle fibre
MN of somatic/voluntary nervous system

121
Q

why are there many NMJ along the length of a muscle fibre?

A

to ensure different sections of muscle fibre contract together & powerfully, rather than weakly & as a wave of contraction

122
Q

describe the process of transmission across a NMJ to cause a contraction of muscle fibre

A

1- AP arrives at presynaptic membrane
2- which causes Ca2+ ions enter neurone by facilitated diffusion
3- this causes ACh vesicles to fuse with presynaptic membrane & release ACh by exocytosis
4- ACh diffuses across the synaptic cleft & binds to ACh receptors on ligand-gated Na+ channels on the sarcolemma
5- ligand-gated Na+ channels open
6- Na+ enters & diffuses across sarcolemma & depolarises it
7- AP spreads along the muscle fibre membrane down T-tubules
this leads to contraction of the muscle fibre via sliding filament model

123
Q

what are the similarities b/w a cholinergic synapse & NMJ?

A

similarities:
both have ACh neurotransmitter that is transported by diffusion
both have receptors that cause influx of Na+ when NT binds
both use a sodium-potassium pump to repolarise axon
both use enzymes to break down NT - AChE breaks down ACh

124
Q

what are the differences b/w a cholinergic synapse & NMJ?

A

1- NMJ only excitatory vs CS can be excitatory or inhibitory
2- NMJ only involves motor neurones vs CS can involve motor, sensory & relay neurones
3- at NMJ ACh binds to receptors on sarcolemma vs at CS ACh binds to receptors on CSM on post-synaptic neurone
4- NMJ only links neurones to muscles vs CS links neurones to neurones or neurones to effector organs
5- AP ends at NMJ vs new AP might be produced along another neurone in CS

125
Q

if lots of motor units are triggered to contract,

A

a large force is produced

126
Q

describe the sliding filament model

A

1- AP/depol. of sarcolemma at motor end plate passes along sarcolemma down T-tubules

2- this causes Vg Ca2+ channels in sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane to open

3- Ca2+ is rapidly released from SR & Ca2+ ions diffuse into myofibril down conc. grad.
Ca2+ binds to spec. receptor (troponin), which causes tropomyosin to change shape, which exposes myosin binding site on the thin actin filament

4- myosin head attaches to actin binding site forming actin-myosin cross-bridge
ADP must be bound

5- detachment of ADP changes the angle of myosin head so actin filament is pulled along, which is the powerstroke generating force

6- ATP binds to myosin head causing detachment from actin binding site
hydrolysis of ATP resets myosin to original position

7- myosin can then bind to the next binding site on actin & continue to move the thin actin filament

127
Q

what is tropomyosin?

A

long protein strand wrapped around actin

128
Q

myosin is an ATPase

129
Q

diagram of sliding filament model

A

see booklet

130
Q

describe the process of muscle relaxation

A

when muscle is no longer stimulated by motor neurone:
1- Ca2+ is actively transported, using ATP, back into SR
2- low conc. of Ca2+ causes tropomyosin to change back to original shape & cover myosin binding site on actin filaments
3- myosin heads bind to & hydrolyse ATP, detaching from actin filaments & cannot re-bind
4- muscle can be stretched back, as actin filaments are pulled out of myosin filaments, to its original length by gravity or contraction of antagonistic muscle

131
Q

describe muscle contraction under anaerobic conditions

A

most ATP generated by aerobic respiration in mitochondria, but active muscle might not get sufficient O2 to maintain sufficient ATP production
so it is important muscle function can be maintained under anaerobic conditions
but, glycolysis can only continue alongside lactic acid fermentation, which affects proteins involved in muscle contraction, which decreases force generated

132
Q

describe the role of phosphocreatine in muscle contraction

A

PCr stored in muscles
PCr system provides an additional way of rapidly regenerating ATP under anaerobic conditions without lactic acid build up
provides phosphate to make ATP
ADP + PCr –> ATP + Cr

ATP –> PCr (store of P) at rest
short-term PCr store
PCr –> ATP during exercise

133
Q

draw & explain graph of energy sources used in muscle during exercise

A

see booklet

134
Q

define slow twitch muscle fibres

A

contract with less power & slower over a longer period of time

135
Q

how are slow twitch muscle fibres adapted for endurance?

A
  • contain many mitochondria for aerobic respiration
  • lots of myoglobin O2-binding protein
  • richer blood supply to provide O2 for aerobic respiration
  • found in lower legs & back muscles - to maintain posture
136
Q

define fast twitch muscle fibres

A

contract rapidly & powerfully over short period of time (but increased lactic acid = fatigue faster)

137
Q

how are fast twitch muscle fibres adapted for explosive strength?

A
  • more myosin filaments to generate greater contractile force per second
    adapted for anaerobic respiration:
  • large PCr store
  • large glycogen store to supply anaerobic respiration
    used for weightlifting & sprinting - found in biceps, triceps etc.
138
Q

define homeostasis

A

the maintenance of a constant internal environment within restricted limits, involving physiological control systems

139
Q

describe the role of hormones in homeostasis (general)

A

hormones are produced in glands & secreted into blood stream - carried in plasma
they act on target cells which have specific receptors (3y) on CSM complementary to the specific hormone
effective in low concentrations
widespread & long-lasting effects
sometimes secondary messenger model

140
Q

why is homeostasis important for enzymes?

A

change in temp causes change in 3y structure - H, ionic & disulfide bonds & change in function
change in pH causes “

141
Q

why is homeostasis important for the water potential of the blood?

A

more -ve water potential (hypertonic - high blood glucose conc.) causes water to move out of cells & into blood by osmosis - cells shrivel & die

more +ve water potential (hypotonic - low blood glucose conc.) causes water to move out of blood into cells by osmosis - cells burst

blood should be isotonic so no net osmosis

142
Q

outline the homeostatic control system

A
  1. receptor detects stimulus
  2. control centre coordinates information & response
  3. effector brings about response that returns conditions back to optimum = -ve feedback
    - muscles contract
    - glands secrete
143
Q

define positive feedback

A

deviation from the normal causes changes that result in an even greater deviation from the normal/optimum
e.g. influx of Na+ during AP

144
Q

define negative feedback

A

the change produced by the control system, to restore a variable back to the optimum, opposing the original deviation
e.g. blood glucose control, blood water potential control & thermoregulation

(most common)

145
Q

describe thermoregulation as an example of negative feedback - when too hot

A

vasodilation of arterioles
more blood flow into capillaries near skin surface
so more radiation of heat from body

sweat more
increased evaporation of water
causes heat loss from body

146
Q

describe thermoregulation as an example of negative feedback - when too cold

A

vasoconstriction of arterioles
less blood flow into capillaries near skin surface
so less radiation of heat from body

shivering = rapid muscle contraction
increased rate of respiration
exothermic reaction
produces heat

147
Q

why is control of blood glucose important?

A

glucose is needed for respiration to produce ATP
in blood, glucose lowers water potential causing water to move out of cells by osmosis

148
Q

describe the hormones that are involved in the control of blood glucose conc.

A

glucagon is produced by alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas
insulin is produced by beta cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas

149
Q

glucagon & insulin work antagonstically

A

only 1 acts at a time
have opposite effects

150
Q

what is the role of the liver (the 3 main functions)?

A
  1. glycogenesis - the conversion of glucose to glycogen by the liver when blood glucose conc. is too high
    caused by insulin
  2. glycogenolysis - the breakdown of glycogen into glucose by the liver when blood glucose conc. is too low
    caused by glucagon & adrenaline
  3. gluconeogenesis - the production of glucose from glycerol & AAs (non-carb sources) when blood glucose conc. is too low
    caused by glucagon
151
Q

the liver is a target organ

A

it is where insulin & glucagon have the biggest effect

152
Q

describe the process of the secondary messenger model - how glucagon & adrenaline work to increase blood glucose conc.

A
  1. adrenaline binds to receptor protein in the liver cell’s CSM
  2. binding of adrenaline causes protein on inside of CSM to change shape (3y)
  3. this activates adenylate cyclase enzyme, which converts ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP)
  4. cAMP binds to protein kinase, which changes its shape & activates it
  5. activated protein kinase enzyme catalyses the conversion of glycogen to glucose (glycogenolysis)

glucose moves out of liver cell into bloodstream by facilitated diffusion

153
Q

what is the purpose of insulin?

A

to decrease blood glucose conc.

154
Q

what happens when insulin binds to glycoprotein receptor on the CSM of liver & muscle cells (target organs)?

A
  1. insulin binds to receptor on CSM causing a change in 3y structure of glucose channel proteins in membrane so they open
    glucose moves in by fac. dif. from bloodstream
  2. insulin causes vesicle with glucose channel proteins in membrane to fuse with CSM
    more glucose channel proteins in CSM increases permeability of cell to glucose so increased uptake of glucose by fac. dif.
  3. insulin activates enzymes that convert glucose to glycogen within cell = glycogenesis
155
Q

how does the action of insulin reduce blood glucose conc.?

A

increases glucose absorption into liver & muscle cells
increases rate of glycogenesis
increases rate of respiration - uses up more glucose, which increases uptake into cells (maintains conc. grad.)
increases rate of conversion of glucose to fat

156
Q

what happens, in terms of insulin, when blood glucose conc. has decreased?

A

beta cells stop producing insulin
-ve feedback

157
Q

describe the role of glucagon

A

purpose: to increase blood glucose conc.
works by:
attaching to specific receptor proteins on CSM of liver cells (target organ)
activates enzymes that convert glycogen into glucose = glycogenolysis
activating enzymes that are involved in converting AAs & glycerol into glucose = gluconeogenesis
same mechanism as adrenaline
glucose released into bloodstream by fac. dif. & alpha cells stop producing glucagon -ve feedback

158
Q

describe type 1 diabetes & its treatment

A

insulin dependent
disorder in which the body cannot produce insulin (due to beta cell damage & often autoimmune)
uncontrolled high blood glucose conc. & treated with insulin injections & managing carb. intake & exercise

159
Q

describe type 2 diabetes & its treatment

A

insulin independent
obesity is a risk factor
body stops responding to insulin
due to glycoprotein receptors on CSM of body cells being lost or unresponsive
treated with carb. controlled diet & exercise regime

160
Q

describe the structure of the kidney (gross)

A

renal cortex:
lighter-coloured outer layer of the kidney
contains Bowman’s capsule, PCT & DCT & blood vessels

medulla:
darker-coloured inner layer of the kidney
contains loop of Henle, collecting ducts & blood vessels

fibrous capsule - protects the kidneys

ureter - tube that carries urine to the bladder

renal vein - returns blood to the heart via the vena cava

renal artery - supplies blood to the kidneys from aorta

161
Q

describe the structure of the Bowman’s capsule

A

at the start of the nephron
surrounds a bundle of glomerular capillaries called the glomerulus

162
Q

what happens at the glomerular capillary?

A

filtrate is forced out of capillaries through pores due to hydrostatic pressure

163
Q

what are the functions of the afferent arteriole & the efferent arteriole?

A

afferent: supplies the nephron with blood from renal artery
large diameter

efferent: carries blood away from Bowman’s capsule
small diameter

164
Q

describe the structure & function of the proximal convoluted tubule

A

series of loops of tubule surrounded by capillaries
site of reabsorption of glucose & AAs

165
Q

describe the structure of the loop of Henle

A

long hairpin shaped tubule that extends from cortex into medulla & surrounded by capillaries
descending limb - highly permeable to water
ascending limb - impermeable to water

166
Q

describe the structure & function of the distal convoluted tubule

A

series of loops of tubule surrounded by capillaries
site of reabsorption of ions & some water

167
Q

describe the structure & function of the collecting duct

A

DCT (from multiple nephrons) empties filtrate into collecting duct
ADH affects the permeability of the collecting duct, which has a vital role in osmoregulation
filtrate in collecting duct is now urine & is taken to bladder via ureter

168
Q

describe the formation of glomerular filtrate by ultrafiltration

A
  1. blood enters Bowman’s capsule in afferent arteriole, passes through capillaries that form the glomerulus & exit via the efferent arteriole
  2. the diameter of the afferent arteriole is greater than that of the efferent arteriole which causes high hydrostatic pressure in capillaries
  3. small molecules e.g. water, glucose, AAs, ions & urea pass through pores in capillaries’ endothelial cells, the basement membrane & spaces b/w podocytes
  4. proteins & blood cells are too large so cannot pass through/stay in capillaries
169
Q

describe the process of selective reabsorption of glucose, AAs & water by the PCT

A
  1. Na+ ions are actively transported out of epithelial cells by Na+-K+ pump, which reduces their conc. & establishes a conc. grad. of Na+ ions in epithelial cells
  2. Na+ ions move down conc. grad. by fac. dif. from lumen of PCT through co-transport proteins which carries other molecules e.g. glucose/AAs with it
  3. glucose/AAs move by fac. dif. into blood through channel proteins in basal membrane

NB waste products are not reabsorbed

170
Q

how is the PCT adapted to its function?

A

epithelial cells have
1. microvilli, which gives a large SA for:
more channel proteins for fac. dif. & co-transport
more carrier proteins for AT
2. infoldings at base, which gives large SA for reabsorption into blood
3. lots of mitochondria to produce ATP for AT for Na+-K+ pump
4. lots of RER/ribosomes for high rate proteinsynthesis for lots of carrier & channel proteins

171
Q

what is the function of the loop of Henle?

A

where water is reabsorbed into surrounding blood capillaries from the collecting duct, which concentrates urine so it has a lower water potential than the blood

172
Q

what is the conc. of urine directly related to?

A

the length of the loop of Henle

the longer the loop of Henle, the more water can be reabsorbed by osmosis –> small vol. of v conc. urine
e.g. desert animals longer LOH than humans

173
Q

compare the structure & function of the descending limb & ascending limb of LOH

A

descending limb - narrow & thinner walls
highly permeable to water
water leaves filtrate & goes into blood

ascending limb - wider & thicker walls
impermeable to water
Na+ pumped out from filtrate

174
Q

counter-current multiplier

A

the LOH acts as a counter-current multiplier so maintains a water potential gradient for the whole length of the collecting duct

175
Q

describe the process of maintaining a gradient of Na+ ions in the medulla by the loop of Henle

A
  1. Na+ ions are actively transported out of the ascending limb of LOH, using ATP
  2. this generates a lower WP in the interstitial region. thick walls impermeable to water so little water escapes
  3. descending limb is highly permeable to water so water moves out of the filtrate into capillaries by osmosis (–> heart by renal vein)
  4. the filtrate progressively loses water, lowering the WP inside the descending limb & reaches the lowest WP at the hairpin
  5. at the base of the ascending limb, Na+ ions move out by diffusion & further up by AT so WP increases
  6. in interstitial tissue, there is a gradient of WP b/w the ascending limb & collecting duct with the highest WP in the cortex & increasingly lower WP further into the medulla
  7. collecting duct is permeable to water so as water moves through, it passes out by osmosis into capillaries (& –> by renal vein)
  8. as water passes out filtrate, WP decreases & WP of interstitial tissue decreases so water continues to move out by osmosis down the whole length of the collecting duct = the counter current multiplier effect
176
Q

describe the process of reabsorption of water by the DCT & collecting ducts

A

overall function of DCT: to make final adjustments to water & ions/salts that are reabsorbed into the blood & to control the pH of the blood by selectiving which ions are reabsorbed

first part of DCT = same function as LOH: reabsorption of ions into blood - final adjustment of blood ion conc.
2nd part of DCT = same function as collecting duct: water reabsorbed into blood

DCT & collecting duct have ADH receptors on CSM

177
Q

how is the DCT adapted to its function?

A

cells that form the walls of the DCT have microvilli & many mitochondria to allow reabsorption ions rapidly from filtrate by AT out of DCT - see PCT

178
Q

what are the causes of a decrease in water potential of the blood?

A
  1. too many ions or too little water being consumed
  2. overheating so lots of sweating
179
Q

what are the causes of an increase in water potential of the blood?

A
  1. large vol. of water being consumed
  2. salts used in metabolism & excreted but not replaced from food
180
Q

describe the process of osmoregulation in response to a decrease in water potential of the blood

A
  1. osmoreceptors in hypothalamus in brain detect decrease in WP
    –> H2O is lost from osmoreceptors into blood by osmosis
  2. hypothalamus sends more impulses to posterior pituitary gland, which is the effector
  3. pituitary gland releases more ADH into the blood & travels to kidneys
  4. ADH increases the permeability of the DCT & CD to water
  5. more water is reabsorbed into blood by osmosis, producing a smaller vol. of more conc. urine - conserves water
181
Q

describe the process of osmoregulation in response to an increase in water potential of the blood

A
  1. osmoreceptors in hypothalamus in brain detect increase in WP
    –> H2O enters osmoreceptors from blood by osmosis
  2. hypothalamus sends fewer impulses to posterior pituitary gland, which is the effector
  3. pituitary gland releases less ADH into the blood & travels to kidneys
  4. permeability of the DCT & CD to water & urea decreases
  5. less water is reabsorbed into blood by osmosis from CD, producing a larger vol. of more dilute urine - removes excess water
182
Q

describe how ADH increases the permeability of the collecting duct to water

A
  1. ADH binds to prot. receptors on CSM of DCT & CD, which activates phosphorylase
  2. phosphorylase causes vesicles containing aquaporins to fuse with CSM of DCT & CD
  3. more aquaporin channels increases the permeability to water so more water leaves CD & is reabsorbed by osmosis
    (4. ADH increases urea permeability so more urea moves into interstitial region from CD = lowers WP of ISR)
    –> smaller vol. of more conc. urine
183
Q

define aquaporin

A

specific channel protein for water