Unit 6 Flashcards
1
Q
extracellular matrix of bone
A
plasma
2
Q
plasma protein responsible for maintaining the osmotic pressure of blood
A
albumin
3
Q
percentage of blood volume occupied by RBCs is known as the
A
hematocrit
4
Q
what percentage of blood volume is normally made up of leukocytes and platelets
A
1%
5
Q
purpose of biconcave shape of RBCs
A
large surface area: volume ratio
6
Q
component of the RBC cell membrane skeleton that stabilizes the interaction between spectrin and actin
A
protein 4.1
7
Q
average life span of RBC
A
120 days
8
Q
a peripheral reticulocyte count can be used as a rough indicator of the rate of ____ in your patient
A
erythropoeisis
9
Q
the relative frequency of lymphocytes in the peripheral blood is: (in percent)
A
20-30%
10
Q
the process by which leukocytes leave blood vessels
A
diadepedesis
11
Q
why are neutrophils sometimes called polys
A
single lobed nucleus
12
Q
in a mature neutrophil, which granules are the most numerous
A
azurophilic granules
13
Q
enzymes contained by the azurophilic granules of neutrophils
A
lysozyme, lactoferrin
14
Q
which granulocyte is characterized by having a bilobed nucleus
A
eosinophil
15
Q
which protein in an eosinophil granule is cytotoxic for the larvae of parasitic worms
A
major basic protein
16
Q
which granulocyte plays a role in airway remodeling during an asthmatic attack
A
eosinophil
17
Q
which granulocyte has heparin and histamine in its cytoplasmic granules
A
basophil
18
Q
which granulocyte plays a major role in the development of anaphylactic shock
A
basophil
19
Q
(T/B) cells differentiate into plasma cells upon antigenic challenge
A
B cells
20
Q
cell mediated immunity is characteristic of (B/T) cells
A
T cells
21
Q
the specific targets of HIV are (CD4/CD8) T cells
A
CD4
22
Q
which type of T cell suppresses the immune response to self molecules
A
suppressor/regulator T cells
23
Q
INF-gamma and cytokines are contained within the cytoplasmic granules of which type of cells
A
natural killer cells
24
Q
(osteoclasts/osteoblasts) are formed by the fusion of monocytes
A
osteoclasts (monocytes are tissue macrophages)
25
which of the formed elements of peripheral blood help maintain the integrity of blood vessel endothelium
thrombocytes (blood platelets)
26
in a typical "romanovsky" blood stain, methylene blue binds selectively to: (heterochromatin/RNA)
RNA
27
in a healthy adult, RBCs and granulocytes develop in the ______ organs
lymphoid
28
all blood cells can trace their origin back to a common
hematopoeitic pluripotential stem cell
29
in a typical blast the nucleocytoplasmic ratio is (large/small)
large
30
the cytoplasm of a blast stained with methylene blue is (pink/pale blue)
pale blue
31
what does the cytoplasm of a neutrophilic promyelocyte contain that is lacking in the cytoplasm of a blast
cytoplasmic granules
32
neutrophilic myelocytes can be observed in a slide of (peripheral blood/bone marrow)
bone marrow
33
bands and mature neutrophils can be observed in a slide of (peripheral blood/bone marrow)
peripheral blood
34
at what stage in the development of neutrophils does specific granule formation begin (neutrophilic promyelocyte/neutrophilic myelocyte)
neutrophilic myelocyte
35
neutrophilic (myelocytes/metamyelocytes) are no longer capable of cell division
metamyelocytes
36
the percentage of neutrophilic (metamyelocytes/bands) in peripheral blood can be used as an indicator of the rate of neutrophil production
bands
37
the process of granulopoeisis takes approximately _-_ days
9-14 days
38
an interactive structural unit that nurtures stem cells and facilitates their activity is known as a ___ ___ ___
stem cell niche
39
what feature of the cytoplasm of basophilic erythroblasts causes it to stain so intensely with methylene blue
increase in free ribosomes
40
which component of the cytoplasm of developing RBCs stains with eosin
hemoglobin
41
during which stage of erythropoeisis are the nuclei most heterochromatic
normoblast
42
(reticulocyte/reticular cell): stage of erythropoeisis
reticulocyte
43
(reticulocyte/reticular cell): RBCs cluster around it, trophic role in maturation of RBCs
reticular cell
44
you (should/should not) expect to see orthochromatic erythrocytes in the peripheral blood of a healthy patient
should not
45
hormone produced by kidney that stimulates the production of erythrocytes in the bone marrow
erythropoeitin
46
megakaryocytes are usually found in close association with the ____ in the bone marrow
sinusoids
47
monocyte nuclei are (lobed/shape shifting)
shape shifting
48
inspiration of air is (passive/active)
active
49
expiration of air is mostly (passive/active)
passive--elastic recoil of connective tissue
50
why is inspired air conditioned/warmed/humidified
to prevent damage to resp tract and infection
51
the resp tract is designed to (maximize/minimize) surface area and (maximize/minimize) diffusion distance
max surface area
| min diffusion distance
52
(brush cells/granule cells) extend from the basement membrane to the lumen and have microvilli that function as sensory receptors
brush cells
53
(brush cells/granule cells) fail to reach the lumen, sit on basement membrane, neuroendocrine, regulate secretions
granule cells
54
(brush/basal) cells are regenerative
basal
55
kartagener syndrome (absent dynein) has implications for respiration (frequent infections) due to the failure of what system
muco ciliary elevator
56
which is found deeper in the resp tract? cilia or goblet cells
cilia
57
vibrissae
nose hair--filter out particles
58
(conchae/meati) 3 projections of bone covered with CT and epithelium, contain swell bodies to warm air
conchae
59
(conchae/meati) passage for air flow, humidifies
meati
60
(inferior/middle/superior) meatus lined with olfactory epithelium
superior
61
(resp/olfactory) epithelium--lack of cilia, organization of nuclei, underlying nerve
olfactory
62
____ glands produce proteinaceous serous secretions to clear cilia and facilitate access of new odorants, found in superior meatus
Bowman's
63
paransal sinuses are lined with what kind of epithelium
resp epithelium with goblet cells and small glands
64
(false/true) vocal cords: resp epithelium
false
65
(false/true) vocal cords: stratified squamous epithelium
true
66
(false/true) vocal cords: serous glands in lamina propria
false (also known as vestibular folds)
67
(trachea/bronchi) cartilage is irregular rings or plates
bronchi
68
(trachea/bronchi) regular rings of hyaline cartilage
trachea
69
(trachea/bronchi) thick basement membrane
trachea
70
(larynx/bronchi): skeletal muscle articulates cartilage
larynx
71
(larynx/bronchi): smooth muscle in irregular bands
bronchi
72
(bronchi/bronchioles): no cartilage
bronchioles
73
smooth muscle is prominent in (larger/smaller) bronchioles
larger
74
in terminal bronchioles, goblet cells are replaced by ____ cells
Clara (secretory)
75
epithelium in alveolar ducts
simple squamous epithelium
76
epithelium in resp bronchioles
simple cuboidal
77
smooth muscle in knob-like projections of alveolar openings that allow for more regulation of ventilation
cusps
78
type (I/II) epithelium in alveolar septum: forms majority of lung lining, squamous
type I
79
type (I/II) epithelium in alveolar septum: cuboidal, source of surfactant, regenerative cell, found at septal junctions
type II
80
another name for alveolar macrophages
dust cells
81
acellular interstitium of alveolae: collagen type _, elastic fibers, and proteoglycans. allow stretch
type III
82
where do the visceral and parietal lung layers fuse
lung hilus
83
which immunglobulins (G, M, A, E) are found in the lungs
A and E
84
(mesenchymal/epithelial) reticular cells: phagocytic, manufacture reticular fibers, present antigens
mesenchymal
85
(mesenchymal/epithelial) reticular cells: secretory, barrier between blood and thymus, form cytoreticulum
epithelial
86
(loose/dense/nodular) lymphoid tissue: contains mostly reticular cells
loose
87
(loose/dense/nodular) lymphoid tissue: contains lymphocytes
dense (highly packed)
88
(loose/dense/nodular) lymphoid tissue: contains mostly B lymphocytes, compact and spherical
nodular
89
order of lymph flow: afferent lymph vessel> place in order: (peritrabecular/medullary/subcapsular) sinus>efferent lymph vessel
subcapsular > peritrabecular > medullary
90
afferent lymph vessels enter on the (concave/convex) surface of the lymph node
convex
91
post capillary venules in lymphocytes aka
HEV
92
(T/B) cells: medullary cords of lymph node
B cells
93
(T/B) cells: paracortex, deep cortex of lymph node
T cells
94
supporting framework of the thymus made by epithelial reticular cells
cytoreticulum
95
function of thymopoeitin
trophic for lymph
96
the spleen is mostly (red/white) pulp
red
97
splenic sinuses and splenic cords are the two major components of (red/white) pulp
red
98
periarterial lymphatic sheath and lymphatic nodules found in the (red/white) pulp
white
99
flow of blood through the spleen (order the options): splenic art > (central art/trabecular art/ sinuses/peninsular art/capillaries) > red pulp veins > trabecular veins > splenic veins
trabecular > central > peninsular > capillaries > sinuses
100
(close/open) splenic circulation: blood goes to cords first
open (closed: capillaries straight to sinuses)
101
where are old RBCs destroyed
spleen--also produces lymphocytes, responds to blood borne antigens, and stores blood
102
aggregates of lymphoid tissue lying beneath epithelium, has a capsule and deep crypt invagination, lymphatic nodules
tonsils
103
germinal centers (lightly staining region under antigenic stimulation): (primary/secondary) nodule
secondary
104
corpuscles unique to thymic medulla, concentrically arranged epithelial reticular cells, frequently calcify, decrease in number with age but increase in size
Hassall's corpuscles
105
efferent lymphatics leave at the (convex surface/hilus)
hilus
106
(primary/secondary) lymph nodules: not under antigenic stimulation
primary
