Unit 5: Chapter 20 (Karch 7th Ed) - Anxiolytic and Hypnotic Agents Flashcards
- The nurse is caring for a patient in a state of hypnosis, which means the patient is in what state?
A) A state of extreme sedation in which the person no longer senses or reacts to incoming stimuli.
B) A state of tranquility in which the person can be made to do whatever is suggested by others.
C) A feeling of tension, nervousness, apprehension, or fear with high levels of awareness.
D) A state in which the brain is no longer sending out signals to the body.
Ans: A
Feedback:
Hypnosis is an extreme state of sedation in which the person no longer senses or reacts to incoming
stimuli. A state of tranquility is produced through minor tranquilizers by decreasing anxiety. Anxiety is
a feeling of tension, nervousness, apprehension, or fear. Sedation is the loss of awareness and reaction
to environmental stimuli, which may lead to drowsiness. The state of suggestibility often seen in
television programs is not an appropriate definition of hypnosis. If the brain stopped sending signals,
the patient would stop breathing and death would follow.
2. A nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child who is receiving a barbiturate. What common adverse effect would the nurse assess for? A) Decrease in respirations B) Vomiting C) Excitability D) Dry mucous membranes
Ans: C
Feedback:
The barbiturates, being older drugs, have established pediatric dosages. These drugs must be used with
caution because of the often unexpected responses. Children must be monitored very closely for central
nervous system (CNS) depression and excitability. The most common adverse effects are related to
general CNS depression. Other CNS effects may include drowsiness, somnolence, lethargy, ataxia,
vertigo, a feeling of a hangover, thinking abnormalities, paradoxical excitement, anxiety, and
hallucinations. Alteration in respirations and dried mucous membranes are adverse effects of antihistamines, which can be given to calm children or induce sleep. Vomiting could occur with the use
of paraldehyde due to the unpleasant taste and odor of the drug.
- A nurse is caring for a 9-year-old patient and has received an order for diazepam (Valium) 10 mg given
orally q.i.d. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Perform hand hygiene and prepare the drug.
B) Send the order to the hospital pharmacy.
C) Determine when to administer the first dose.
D) Call the physician and question the order.
Ans: D
Feedback:
The first action of the nurse would be to call the physician and question the order. The normal oral
dosage for a pediatric patient is 1 to 2.5 mg t.i.d. or q.i.d. The ordered dose would be unsafe for this
patient. If the dosage was changed and the correct amount administered, the nurse would order the
medication from the pharmacy if necessary and determine what time to start the medication. She would
then wash her hands in preparation for administering the medication, but not until obtaining an
appropriate dosage of medication.
- A nurse is discussing the use of alprazolam (Xanax) with a 68-year-old patient. What statement
indicates that the patient has an understanding of the drug?
A) When I stop having panic attacks, I can stop taking the drug.
B) This drug will calm me down in about 30 minutes after I take it.
C) One dose will keep me calm for about 24 hours.
D) I am taking an increased dose because of my age.
Ans: B
Feedback:
The onset of alprazolam is about 30 minutes. The drug must be tapered after long-term use and the
duration is approximately 4 to 6 hours. Elderly patients usually have a reduced dosage.
- A nurse is about to administer a parenteral benzodiazepine to a female patient in the hospital before the
performance of a procedure. What is the priority nursing action before administration of the drug?
A) Make sure that the side rails are up and the bed is in the lowest position.
B) Close the blinds and ensure appropriate room temperature for the patient.
C) Help the patient out of bed to the bathroom and encourage her to void.
D) Ask all visitors to leave the room and remain in the waiting area.
Ans: C
Feedback:
The priority action would be to help the patient up to void. After the medication is administered the
patient should not get out of bed because of possibly injury due to drowsiness. Safety should always be
the priority concern. After administration of the drug the nurse would ask visitors to leave before
beginning the procedure, make the room conducive to rest and sleep, and make sure that both side rails
are up and the bed is in the lowest position.
- The nurse is caring for a 36-year-old man who experienced a seizure 30 minutes before coming into the
emergency room, where he begins to have another. What barbiturate has the fastest onset and would be
most appropriate to give to the patient to quickly stop the seizure?
A) Amobarbital (Amytal Sodium)
B) Mephobarbital (Mebaral)
C) Phenobarbital (Luminal)
D) Secobarbital (Seconal)
Ans: C
Feedback:
Phenobarbital’s onset is between 10 and 60 minutes, depending on the route administered, and most
likely this would be given to the patient. Amobarbital is given for convulsions and the onset is between
15 and 60 minutes. Mephobarbital’s onset is between 30 and 60 minutes. Secobarbital is given for
convulsive seizures of tetanus and has an onset of 1 to 4 hours.
- What anxiolytic drugs would be given to a premenopausal patient who is a registered nurse planning to
return to work at the hospital after anxiety is controlled?
A) Alprazolam (Xanax)
B) Buspirone (BuSpar)
C) Diazepam (Valium)
D) Clorazepate (Tranxene)
Ans: B
Feedback:
Buspirone is a newer anxiolytic drug that does not cause sedation or muscle relaxation. It is preferred
when the patient needs to be alert such as when driving or working. Alprazolam, diazepam, and
clorazepate are benzodiazepines, which cause drowsiness, sedation, depression, lethargy, confusion,
and decreased mental alertness. It would be unsafe for a nurse to function in her role while taking one
of these drugs.
- A patient arrives at the emergency room after attempting suicide by taking an entire bottle of diazepam.
What antidote will the nurse most likely administer?
A) Phenobarbital (Luminal)
B) Dexmedetomidine (Precedex)
C) Flumazenil (Romazicon)
D) Ramelteon (Rozerem)
Ans: C
Feedback:
Flumazenil is an antidote to benzodiazepine overdose and is administered to reverse the effects of
benzodiazepines when used for anesthesia. Phenobarbital, a barbiturate, would further depress the body
functions of this patient. Dexmedetomidine is a new hypnotic drug used in the intensive care unit for
mechanically ventilated patients. Ramelteon is also new; it is used as a hypnotic. Adverse effects of this
drug include depression and suicidal ideation
- The nurse is caring for a resident in a long-term care facility who is African American with a history of
an anxiety disorder. The patient is receiving oral lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg t.i.d. When developing this
patient’s plan of care, what priority assessment will the nurse include?
A) Depression
B) Extreme sedation
C) Phlebitis
D) Nightmares
Ans: B
Feedback:
Special care should be taken when anxiolytic or hypnotic drugs are given to African Americans. About
15% to 20% of African Americans are genetically predisposed to delayed metabolism of
benzodiazepines. As a result, they may develop high serum levels of these drugs, with increased
sedation and an increased incidence of adverse effects. Depression is not a common adverse effect.
Phlebitis can occur at injection sites but this patient is taking the medication orally. Nightmares occur
during drug withdrawal.
- An elderly patient has been taking zolpidem (Ambien) as a sleep aid for the past 2 months. On
admission to the assisted-living facility, it is determined that the drug is no longer needed. What is an
important nursing consideration concerning this drug?
A) Hallucinations are common.
B) The drug needs to be withdrawn gradually.
C) Another anxiolytic will need to be substituted.
D) Sundowning is common with withdrawal from this drug.
Ans: B
Feedback:
It is important for the nurse to understand that zolpidem must be withdrawn gradually over a 2-week
period after prolonged use. If chloral hydrate is stopped suddenly, it will result in serious adverse
effects. Hallucinations and sundowning are not common with withdrawal of the drug. The prescriber
and the patient would determine the need for chloral hydrate to be substituted for another anxiolytic.
- Why would the nurse expect the patient with liver disease to receive a smaller dose of
benzodiazepines?
A) Excretion of the drug relies on liver function.
B) The drugs are metabolized extensively in the liver.
C) They are lipid soluble and well distributed throughout the body.
D) The drugs are well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract.
Ans: B
Feedback:
The benzodiazepines are metabolized extensively in the liver. Patients with liver disease must receive a
smaller dose and be monitored closely. Excretion is primarily through the urine. All of the answer
options are true, but only the fact that the benzodiazepines are metabolized in the liver explains why a
patient with liver disease would require smaller dosages.
- When compared with benzodiazepines, buspirone (BuSpar) stands out as unique among antianxiety
drugs because of what factor?
A) Increases the central nervous system (CNS) depression of alcohol and other drugs.
B) Lacks muscle relaxant and anticonvulsant effects.
C) Causes significant physical and psychological dependence.
D) Rapidly absorbed from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and metabolized in the liver.
Ans: B
Feedback:
Buspirone, a newer antianxiety agent, has no sedative, anticonvulsant, or muscle-relaxant properties,
and its mechanism of action is unknown. However, it reduces the signs and symptoms of anxiety
without many of the central nervous system effects and severe adverse effects associated with other
anxiolytic drugs. Most of the antianxiety drugs are rapidly absorbed from the GI tract, metabolized in
the liver, have a significant drug drug interaction with alcohol and other drugs, and can result in
psychological dependence.
- What would the nurse assess for when benzodiazepines are abruptly stopped?
A) Urinary retention and change in sexual functioning
B) Dry mouth, constipation, nausea, and vomiting
C) Nausea, headache, vertigo, malaise, and nightmares
D) In most cases nothing significant
Ans: C
Feedback:
Abrupt cessation of these drugs may lead to a withdrawal syndrome characterized by nausea, headache,
vertigo, malaise, and nightmares. When benzodiazepines are stopped abruptly the likelihood of
withdrawal symptoms increases with the length of time the patient took the medication. Urinary retention, change in sexual functioning, dry mouth, constipation, nausea, and vomiting are all common
adverse effects of the medications classified as benzodiazepines.
- The nurse is caring for a patient in intensive care unit receiving IV lorazepam (Ativan) to reduce
anxiety related to mechanical ventilation. While injecting the medication the nurse notes a decrease in
blood pressure and bradycardia. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Discontinue drug administration.
B) Give the IV drug more slowly.
C) Notify the patient’s health care provider.
D) Document the reaction to the drug.
Ans: B
Feedback:
The nurse’s priority action is to slow the rate of injection because rapid injection of benzodiazepines
can result in hypotension and bradycardia and can lead to cardiac arrest.
15. For what purpose would the nurse choose to administer a hypnotic instead of another classification of antianxiety drug? A) Treating insomnia B) Treating seizure disorder C) Treating panic attach D) Treating confusion and agitation
Ans: D
Feedback:
Hypnotics are used to help people fall asleep by causing sedation. Drugs that are effective hypnotics act
on the reticular activating system (RAS) and block the brain’s response to incoming stimuli. Hypnotics
would not be the most effective drugs to treat seizure disorders, panic attack, or confusion with
agitation.