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Human Physiology > Unit 5 > Flashcards

Unit 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the main function of the digestive system?

A

To acquire nutrients.

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2
Q

What are the seven GI tract organs from beginning to end?

A
  1. Oral cavity
  2. Oropharynx
  3. Esophagus
  4. Stomach
  5. Small intestine
  6. Large intestine
  7. Anus
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3
Q

What are the four accessory organs (outside the GI tract)?

A
  1. Salivary glands
  2. Pancreas
  3. Liver
  4. Gallbladder
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4
Q

What are the three GI tract layers from inner to outer layer?

A
  1. Mucosa
  2. Submucosa: submucosal plexus
  3. Muscularis externa: smooth muscle, myenteric plexus
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5
Q

What are the seven main digestive processes?

A
  1. Ingestion
  2. Motility
  3. Secretion
  4. Digestion
  5. Absorption
  6. Compaction
  7. Defecation
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6
Q

Explain ingestion.

A

Consumption. Eating.

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7
Q

Explain motility.

A

Movement of food through the GI tract.

Muscle contractions:

  1. Peristalsis: wavelike contractions
  2. Segmentation: various parts contract at the same time (net movement is distally)
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8
Q

Explain secretion.

A

Fluid and chemicals are entering the lumen of the GI tract:

  • Mucus
  • HCl from stomach
  • Bicarbonate from pancrease
  • Enzymes
  • Hormones (not secreted in lumen, secreted in bloodstream)
  • Bile
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9
Q

Explain digestion.

A

Chemical breakdown of large polymer molecules into small monomer molecules.

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10
Q

In digestion, carbohydrates (starch and sugars) are broken down by these six enzymes:

A
  1. Salivary amylase
  2. Pancreatic amylase
  3. Dextrinase
  4. Sucrase: located on microvilli
  5. Maltase: located on microvilli
  6. Lactase: located on microvilli
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11
Q

In digestion, proteins are broken down by these four peptidases enzymes:

A

Peptidases:

  1. Pepsin: stomach
  2. Trypsin: pancrease
  3. Chymotrypsin: pancrease
  4. Other peptidases located on microvilli of small intestine
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12
Q

In digestion, lipids are broken down by:

A

Bile and lipid emulsification

Breaking large fat globules into smaller fat droplets

Function of bile salts makes it easier to breakdown

Three enzymes that help breakdown lipids:

  1. Salivary lipase
  2. Gastric lipase
  3. Pancreatic lipase
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13
Q

In digestion, nucleic acids are broken down by this enzyme:

A

Nucleases

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14
Q

Explain absorption.

A

The movement of molecules and ions from the lumen into the body fluids.

Three types:

  1. Sublingual absorption of medicines (oral): nitroglycerin
  2. Gastric absorption (stomach): aspirin, alcohol
  3. Small intestine absorption: glucose, amino acids, vitamins and minerals are absorbed into CAPILLARIES; fatty acids absorbed into LACTEALS

Travel in bloodstream attached to lipoproteins: high-density lipoproteins and low-density lipoproteins

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15
Q

Explain compaction.

A

Dehydration of the chyme into fecal material by the absorption of water.

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16
Q

Explain defecation.

A

Pooping!

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17
Q

What are three sensors in stomach and intestines used for GI regulation?

A
  1. Mechanoreceptors: actiated by distension of the digestive walls by food (bolus or chyme)
  2. Chemoreceptors: activated by H+, proteins, and lipids in chyme
  3. Osmoreceptors: activated by amino acids and glucose
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18
Q

What are three sensory regulatory phases (based off of location) for GI regulation?

A
  1. Cephalic phase (activation in head): smell, taste, or thought of food stimulates CNS (brain) involvement… which stimulates digestive processes
  2. Gastric phase (activation in stomach): stimuli arising in stomach influences short and long pathways
  3. Intestinal phase (activation in small intestine): stimuli arising in small intestine influences short and long pathways and hormones
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19
Q

What are three integration and outputs (ways to influence effectors) for GI regulation?

A

1. Autonomic nervous system (parasympathetic and sympathetic):

  • Long pathway

2. Enteric nervous system:

  • Separate nervous system located within the GI wall
  • Short pathway
  • Submucosal and myenteric plexuses.
  • Influenced by autonomic system.

3. Gastrointestinal hormones:

  • Gastrin (stomach): releases HCl and pepsinogen, activates gastric motility, induces gall bladder and pancreatic secretions
  • Cholecystokinin (CCK) (duodenum): contraction of gall bladder, stimulates pancreatic enzyme release, slows gastric motility
  • Secretin (duodenum): stimulates bicarbonate release from pancreas and duodenal glands, inhibits gastrin production
  • Glucose dependent insulinotropic peptide (GIP): stimulates insulin release, fatty acid metabolism

ANS → ENS → endocrine cells → hormones → blood → effectors

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20
Q

What are two neural pathways for GI regulation?

A
  1. Short pathway (stays w/in digestive system): receptor to intrinsic enteric plexuses out to effector (muscles and glands)
  2. Long pathway: receptor to CNS to autonomic to effector (muscles and glands)
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21
Q

What are two effectors for GI regulation?

A
  1. Secretory cells within digestive organs for production of HCl, bicarbonate, enzymes, and hormones.
  2. Smooth muscles within digestive organs used for motility.
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22
Q

Explain muscle activity or motility.

A

Self-generating graded potentials or slow waves… can produce action potentials.

STRENGTH of motility is influenced, not the RATE of contractions.

Autonomic nerves and hormones.

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23
Q

What are the four functions of the oral cavity and salivary glands?

A
  1. Mastication
  2. Taste
  3. Digestion of carbohydrates: salivary amylase digests starch and glycogen
  4. Cephalic phase and chemoreceptors (taste buds and olfactory) activate salivary secretion through parasympathetic stimulation
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24
Q

Describe the esophagus.

A

Muscular tube.

Upper esophageal sphincter.

Lower esophageal (cardiac) sphincter.

Acid reflux (heartburn) occurs here. Stomach acid leaks back into esophagus.

H2 antagonists (Zantac) slows down acid production. They’re histamine receptors.

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25
Q

Describe the seven steps for swallowing reflex.

A
  1. Mechanoreceptors in oropharynx start the reflex.
  2. Bolus presses on epiglottis closing off airways and preventing inspiration.
  3. Upper esophageal sphincter opens.
  4. Peristaltic contractions move bolus downward.
  5. Lower esophageal sphincter opens.
  6. Bolus enters stomach.
  7. Bolus mixes w/ secretion and becomes chyme.
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26
Q

Describe the anatomy of the stomach.

A

Pyloric sphincter connects stomach to duodenum.

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27
Q

What are the seven functions of the stomach?

A
  1. Secretion:
  • Mucus — lubrication
  • Pepsinogen (inactive) — pepsin (active)
  • Gastrin — hormone
  • Intrinsic factor binds w/ Vitamin B12
  • HCl
  1. Mixes chyme — chyme
  2. Storage of chyme
  3. Food separation — HCl
  4. Digestion of proteins — pepsin
  5. Absorption of alcohol and aspirin
  6. Delivers chyme to duodenum
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28
Q

What are ways the three regulatory phases influence SECRETION for gastric regulation?

A
  1. Cephalic phase (taste, smell, sight): stimulates HCl, pepsinogen, and gastrin secretion… this stimulates digestive ativity even before eating!
  2. Gastric phase: proteins and peptides (and caffeine) in stomach activate chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors. This stimulates secretion of HCl, pepsin, and gastrin release. (Alcohol relaxes you and helps digest).
  3. Intestinal phase (a break on what’s happening in stomach. Slows it down): chyme, lipids, and H+ in duodenum activate mechanoreceptors, chemoreceptors, and osmoreceptors. Inhibits pepsinogen and acid secretion. Activates liver, gall bladder, and pancreas (accessory organs).
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29
Q

What are ways the three regulatory phases influence MOTILITY for gastric regulation?

A
  1. Cephalic phase: STIMULATES gastric motility peristalsis
  2. Gastric phase: mechanoreceptors and chemoreceptors STIMULATE gastric motility. Gastrin STIMULATES gastric motility.
  3. Intestinal phase: mechanoreceptors and chemoreceptors in duodenum INHIBIT gastric motility. CCK, secretion, and GIP INHIBIT gastric motility and STIMULATE intestinal motility.
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30
Q

Describe the anatomy of the small intestine.

A

Contains villi and microvilli.

Has capillaries and lacteal.

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31
Q

What are the four functions of the small intestine?

A
  1. Final digestion of food: pancreatic enzymes and intestinal mucosal enzymes
  2. Absorption of nutrients: amino acids, monosaccharides, fatty acids
  3. Secretion of hormones: CCK, GIP, and secretion
  4. Entrance area (duodenum) for pancreas, liver, and gall bladder secretions
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32
Q

What are the two functions of the pancreas?

A
  1. Production of bicarbonate (neutralizes hydrogen ions) helps buffer acids from stomach
  2. Production of digestive enzymes: peptidases, trypsin and chymotrypsin, lipase, pancreatic amylase, nucleases
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33
Q

What is the function of liver?

A

Bile production and secretion processes absorbed molecules.

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34
Q

What is the function of the gall bladder?

A

Bile storage, concentration, and release (NOT production). Bile salts emulsify fats and lipids in small intestine.

Biliary system (ducts and gall bladder) carry bile.

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35
Q

What are the ten metabolic functions of liver?

A
  1. Synthesis and secretion of bile
  2. Synthesis of cholesterol
  3. Processes amino acids and sugars
  4. Inactivates toxins (lactic acid, ammonia to urea and alcohol)
  5. Storage of glycogen
  6. Storage of minerals (iron and copper)
  7. Storage of vitamins (A, B12, D, E, and K)
  8. Synthesis of plasma proteins
  9. Synthesis of clotting proteins
  10. Phagocytosis of old RBC and bacteria
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36
Q

Describe the motility of small intestine.

A

Short periods of peristalsis. Long periods of segmentation.

Distension of intestine triggers motility strength. Gastrin (made in stomach) promotes motility in ileum (end of small intestine).

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37
Q

Describe the three functions of the large intestine or colon.

A
  1. Absorption of minerals
  2. Absorption of water and compaction of chyme into feces
  3. Defecation
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38
Q

Describe the motility of large intestine.

A

Segmentation 2-3 times per hour.

Mass movement: strong peristaltic contractions 3-4 times per day. Swift movement of chyme

Gastrocolic reflex: eat food, go bathroom

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39
Q

Describe peptic ulcers.

A

Erosion in lining of GI tract caused by helicobacter pylori.

Symptoms: bleeding ulcer, perforating ulcer (untreated ulcercan burn through the wall of the stomach).

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40
Q

What is the major function of the reproductive system?

A

The continuance of the human species and maintaining genetic variation.

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41
Q

What five ways is reproduction accomplished?

A
  1. Developing and preparing the body for sex cell (gamete) production.
    - Testes → spermatogenesis = formation of sperm in males
    - Ovaries → oogenesis = formation of eggs (ova) in females
    - Meiosis, or gamete formation, is a reduction division that reduces the normal 46 chromosomes to 23 chromosomes in gametes. This process also increases genetic variations by reshuffling the chromosome arrangement in each cell.
  2. Sexual intercourse
    - Pheromones: chemical release by one individual that influences behavior of another
    - Visual stimuli
    - Physical stimuli
    - Love
    - Mating behavior
  3. Fertilization: the union of the egg and sperm to produce a fertilized egg called a zygote
  4. Embryonic and fetal development
  5. Nursing of the infant
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42
Q

What are four ways for reproductive control?

A
  1. Brain
  2. Hypothalamus and GnRH (gonadotropin releasing hormone): pulses of hormone every 1-3 hours
  3. Anterior pituitary releases FSH and LH
  4. Gonads release steroid hormones and endocrine cells: androgens (in males) like testosterone and dihydrotestosterone; estrogens (in females) like estrone and estradiol; progestins like progesterone
  5. Negative feedback
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43
Q

Explain gender determination and differentiation.

A

Chromosomes: the presence of the Y chromosome contains a sex-determining region srY gene.

  • srY gene activates Testis determining factor (TDF) that influence the embryonic tissue to differentiate into male structures.
  • Mullerian inhibiting substance (MIS) promotes the degeneration of future female structures.
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44
Q

What is sperm?

A

Small human cells that consist of a head enclosing the DNA, an acrosomal vesicle, a collar, and a tail called the flagellum.

Spermatogenesis occurs in the testes from puberty to old age and takes two months for completion.

45
Q

What are testes?

A

Spermatogenesis occurs at 3-4 degrees F lower than body temperature. This lower temperature is achieved by the raising or lowering of the testes by cremaster muscle and by the cooling of the arterial blood sent to the testes by the returning pampiniform vein plexus.

Testicular anatomy consists of hundreds of feet of seminiferous tubules where sperm are produced. Sertoli cells are also present that are used for sperm formation, nourishment, and inhibin production.

Interstitial cells or Leydig cells occur between the seminiferous tubules and they produce testosterone.

46
Q

Describe hormonal control over spermatogenesis.

A
  1. Hypothalamus – ↑ GnRH secretion
  2. Anterior pituitary – ↑ FSH secretion and ↑ LH secretion
  3. Leydig cells – ↑ Testosterone secretion [Negative feedback to 1 and 2]
  4. Sertoli cells – ↑ Inhibin secretion [Negative feedback to 2, FSH only] and Spermatogenesis
47
Q

A way to control birth through hormonal control of spermatogenesis would be:

A

Cut down FSH to block spermatogenesis.

Do not cut down LH, because that will reduce testosterone.

48
Q

What are three androgen (testosterone) functions?

A
  1. Spermatogenesis
  2. Involved in the development and maturation of the reproductive organ in the fetus and during puberty.
  3. Secondary sex characteristics (physical changes, libido, and aggression)
49
Q

What are the two functions of the epididymis?

A
  1. Maturation of sperm: need to acquire motility and ability to fertalize egg; capacitation (sperm fertilizing egg) occurs in female tract
  2. Storage of sperm (2-3 months)
50
Q

Describe male ejaculation.

A

Rhythmic, smooth muscle, contraction of the epididymis, vas deferens, and glands causes sperm to be ejaculated from the epididymis along the vas deferens and out the urethra of the penis.

51
Q

Describe semen.

A

Sperm plus added fluids from the seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands.

Semen = Sperm (1%) + Accessory glands (99%)

Sperm number per ejaculate = 500 million

52
Q

What five secretions come from the accessory glands during male ejaculation?

A
  1. Mucus: lubricates
  2. Buffers: neutralizes vaginal acids
  3. Nutrients (fructose, Vitamin C): nourishes sperm
  4. Prostaglandins: sperm transport
  5. Enzymes: semen clotting in vagina
53
Q

What is a vasectomy?

A

Tie or cut the vas deferens.

54
Q

What is castration?

A

Cut testes.

55
Q

Describe oogenesis.

A

Oogenesis starts during embryogenesis and finishes after penetration of the sperm.

Division of the egg stops at Prophase I of the first meiotic division (primary oocyte)

At ovulation, division continues until Metaphase II of the second division (secondary oocyte)

Fertilization completes oogenesis (ovum)

56
Q

Describe ova throughout a female’s lifetime.

A

400,000 ova are present at puberty, 400 of these are released during her reproductive lifetime, from menarche to menopause, during the monthly menstrual cycle. The remaining ova degenerate into scar tissue throughout her life.

57
Q

Describe estrus.

A

Females in heat because of elevated hormones

Ready to mate and ovulation

Females advertise they are sexually available

58
Q

Describe menstrual cycle.

A

Ovulation hidden

Females don’t advertise when they’re sexually available.

Mean length is 28-30 days.

59
Q

Describe four phases of the ovarian cycle in the menstrual cycle.

A

Changes in ovary.

  1. Follicular development: takes around 200 days
    - Primordial follicle → Pre-antral (primary) follicle → Early antral (secondary) follicle → Mature (preovulatory) follicle
  2. Follicular phase (Days 1-14): a late antral or mature follicle w/ egg inside is selected and matured
  3. Ovulation (Day 14): follicle and ovary rupture and release the egg and its surrounding corona radiata into the body cavity
  4. Luteal phase (Day 14-28): remaining follicle cells differentiate into corpus luteum. It lasts until day 28 and turns into scar tissue (corpus albicans) unless pregnancy occurs.
60
Q

Describe the three phases of the uterine cycle in the menstrual cycle.

A

Uterine cycle involves a series of changes in the lining of the uterus called the endometrium.

  1. Menses (Day 1-5): endometrium and blood vessels degenerate
  2. Proliferative phase (Day 5-14): proliferation (growth) of endometrium causes it to thicken
  3. Secretory phase (Day 14-28): more glands and vessels are present with glycogen deposits and fatty acid deposits
61
Q

What six hormones influence menstrual cycle?

A
  1. GnRH
  2. LH
  3. FSH
  4. Estrogens
  5. Progestins
  6. Inhibin
62
Q

Describe six steps of the Early to Mid-Follicular Phase of the ovarian cycle.

A
  1. Menses in the uterus
  2. FSH stimulates granulosa cells that activate follicular recruitment and maturation + the production of inhibin.
  3. Slight rise in LH levels stimulates theco/granulosa cells to produce androgens that make estrogen
  4. Inhibin inhibits FSH
  5. Moderate estrogen levels inhibit GnRH and LH and FSH
  6. Estrogen causes endometrium to grow and proliferate
63
Q

Describe four steps of the Late Follicular Phase.

A
  1. High estrogen levels stimulate GnRH and cause a LH and FSH surge (positive feedback)
  2. This LH surge causes ovulation and transforms follicle into corpus luteum
  3. LH also maintains the corpus luteum
  4. Endometrium continues to grow because the estrogen
64
Q

Describe the four/three steps of the Luteal Phase.

A
  1. Corpus luteum produces inhibin that inhibits FSH
  2. Corpus luteum produces progesterone that inhibits GnRH and FSH and LH
  3. Progesterone also stimulates the secretory phase
  4. Corpus luteum also secretes estrogen that promotes endometrial development

Thus,

  1. If there is no LH then corpus luteum can’t be maintained
  2. No corpus luteum, no progesterone, estrogen, and inhibin secretion. Thus, no inhibition on the cycle and it starts over with FSH production
  3. Endometrium sloughs off (period)
65
Q

Describe birth control pills for females.

A

Has estradiol and progestin.

Estradiol: decreases FSH and LH to prevent ovulation. Support endometrium to prevent breakthrough bleeding mid-cycle.

Progestin: decrease LH to prevent egg release. Thicken mucus on endometrium.

66
Q

Where does fertilization usually take place in?

A

Fallopian (uterine) tube.

67
Q

Describe ovulation.

A

Egg and corona radiata are ejected from the follicle (ovulated).

Egg remains viable for 12-24 hours after ovulation.

Sperm motility is enhanced by prostaglandins.

Cervical mucus is also thinner, which aids sperm in their migration.

Acrosomal enzymes of sperm digest corona radiata to get to egg.

Fertilized egg or zygote starts to undergo cell division as it journeys towards the uterus. After 7 days, the embryo will implaint in the uterine lining and start to grow and develop.

Then you get pregnant.

68
Q

What is tubal ligation?

A

Removal of Fallopian tubes, or getting them tied.

69
Q

Describe endometrial maintenance.

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) is produced by the embryo and is used to maintain the corpus luteum (you have HCG if you’re pregnant). HCG levels plummet when corpus luteum is no longer needed.

Corpus luteum produces estrogen and progesterone for the first 2-3 months of pregnancy.

Placenta produces estrogen and progesterone for the last 6 months of pregnancy.

70
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

A

A pregnancy that occurs outside the uterus, usualy in uterine tube (1% of pregnancies).

Treatment: methotrexate, surgery

71
Q

What are six functions of estrogen and progesterone?

A
  1. Development and maturation of female reproductive organs
  2. Control of egg development and menstrual cycle
  3. Help develop the mammary glands during pregnancy
  4. Maintains the endometrium and increase the size of the myometrium
  5. Inhibit uterine motility and milk production by prolactin during pregnancy
  6. Secondary sex characteristics
72
Q

What three things happen to hormone levels during parturition?

A
  1. Increasing estrogen/progestin ratio
  2. Increasing prostaglandins
  3. Increasing oxytocin levels
73
Q

Describe the four steps for how an increase in oxytocin levels influence a positive feedback cycle.

A
  1. The fetus drops and stretches the cervix of the uterus
  2. This activates stretch receptors that stimulates the hypothalamus to produce oxytocin
  3. Oxytocin increases uterine contraction
  4. Pushes the fetus against the cervix and activates the stretch receptors more (which means more oxytocin, more stretch, etc)

Birth of baby stops positive feedback.

74
Q

Describe milk production.

A

The drop in estrogens and progestins release the inhibition on prolactin, thus starting milk production.

Infant suckling also sitmulates the production of prolactin.

75
Q

Describe milk release.

A

Infant suckling stimulates stretch receptors in the nipple that sends input to the hypothalamus to release oxytocin. This causes the smooth muscles of the mammary glands to contract and release milk.

Higher centers can also release milk. Such as exposure to a particular external stimuli.

76
Q

What are the four responses of human sexual excitement?

A
  1. Excitement–arousal
  2. Plateau
  3. Orgasm
  4. Resolution

There’s more variation in females in terms of their response.

77
Q

Describe erectile tissue (penile/clitoral).

A
  1. Stimulates of mechanoreceptors in the external genitalia and erogenous zones, and neural activity from the brain
  2. Spinal cord
  3. Inhibit sympthetic and stimulate parasympathetic systems to smooth muscle in blood vessels. Relaxes and causes more blood flow which engorges tissues.
  4. Parasympathetic releases nitric oxide that dilates vessels going to erectile tissue. ED med (Viagra) keep nitric oxide around.

More blood enters than leaves

78
Q

Define tidal volume.

A

The amount of air inspired or expired during normal breathing.

79
Q

Define respiratory frequency.

A

The number of breaths taken in one minute.

80
Q

Define minute ventilation.

A

The amount of air inspired in one minute.

81
Q

Define expiratory reserve volume.

A

The maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after a normal expiration.

82
Q

Define inspiratory reserve volume.

A

The maximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal inspiration.

83
Q

Define inspiratory capacity.

A

The maximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal expiration.

84
Q

Define vital capacity.

A

The maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inspiration.

85
Q

Define residual volume.

A

The amount of air left in the lungs after a maximum expiration. This volume is usually 20% of the total lung capacity in young adults and increases w/ age and disease.

86
Q

Define functional residual capacity.

A

The volume of air in the lungs after a normal expiration.

87
Q

Define total lung capacity.

A

The maximum amount of air the lungs can hold after a maximum inspiration.

88
Q

Define forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV-1).

A

Volume of air expired in one second and in healthy individuals is above 75% of the FVC.

89
Q

What factors determine a healthy person’s vital capacity?

A

Age, height, and physical conditioning.

90
Q

What prevents a person from measuring or determining the residual volume using the flow head apparatus in the lab exercise?

A

The flow head apparatus only measures air leaving mouth and does not measure the air left in the lungs (residual volume). It is also not possible to blow out all of the air in the lungs.

91
Q

What could cause the differences, if any, between your actual measured values and your predicted values?

A

The predicted values are created based off of a formula determined by a person’s sex, age, and height. It is used to estimate vales for a general population. However, each person’s actual measured values will vary due to the individual differences (physical conditioning, age, height, disease, etc).

92
Q

What is the physiological significance of the FEV1/FVC ratio?

A

It can be used to help diagnose respiratory obstructive disorders that affect the airway lumen w/ excessive mucus production, inflammation, and/or bronchiolar constriction. Such conditions may exist w/ asthma, bronchitis, or other chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases (COPD).

93
Q

What would happen to the FEV1/FVC percentage if a person had an obstructive respiratory disorder?

A

The percentage would decrease.

94
Q

How would the use of asthmatic inhaler, that relaxes bronchiolar muscles, influence the pulmonary function tests?

A

Use of asthmatic inhaler would improve respiration by bringing expiration to closer to normal levels.

95
Q

How come red blood cells are normally asbent in urine?

A

Red blood cells are hindered from leaving the bloodstream due to their large size. They can’t be filtered.

96
Q

What health problems might cause blood to appear in the urine of an individual?

A

Hematuria–cystitis, prostatitis, and kidney diseases can cause the presence of red blood cells in urine. It can also be caused by problems w/ blood clotting.

97
Q

What process in the kidney normally prevents glucose for showing up in the urine?

A

Glucose and amino acids are 100% reabsorbed in the PCT, where the use co-transport carriers w/ sodium ions.

98
Q

What is the reason a diabetic might have glucose in his/her urine?

A

The amount of glucose filtered is above transport maximum, thus the excess amount of glucose is excreted.

99
Q

What might cause a diabetic to produce a greater volume of dilute urine?

A

The higher blood glucose levels cause glucose to be secreted into the urine along w/ water to balance the increase in solute concentration.

100
Q

How are ketones metabolically formed in the body?

A

Ketones are formed when there is not enough sugar or glucose to supply the body’s fuel needs.

101
Q

How could a diabetic have ketones in his/her urine?

A

Blood glucose levels are high, w/ the cells having a lack of glucose. The cells will try to compensate by burning more fats in the liver to ketones. Ketones then spill over into the urine.

102
Q

What structure in the body produces antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

A

Hypothalamus/posterior pituitary

103
Q

What is the function of ADH regarding the urinary system?

A

ADH influences water reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct.

104
Q

What effect would an increase in sodium reabsorption have on water reabsorption if the kidney membranes were permeable to water?

A

Water reabsorption would increase.

105
Q

What effect would the pharmaceutical drug Lasix have on urine output if it decreases the reabsorption of sodium ions in the proximal convoluted tubule?

What causes the change in urine output?

A

There would be more urine output.

A decrease in sodium reabsorption is followed by a decrease in water reabsorption. This means more water is being filtered out and excreted.

106
Q

Discuss how volume per minute changes with time between the non-drinkers and deionized water drinkers?

A

Volume/minute streadily increases for both drinkers and non-drinkers until 30 minute mark. After 30 minute mark, it dramatically increases for drinkers and slowly decreases for non-drinkers.

107
Q

Discuss how specific gravity changes with time between the non-drinkers and deionized water drinkers?

A

Specific gravity slowly increases, then streadily decreases for non-drinkers. For drinkers, it quickly decreases, then becomes steady.

108
Q

Which of the two fluid conditions is conserving water?

A

Non-drinkers.

109
Q

Is more ADH being produced in the deionized water drinkers or the non-drinkers? Why?

A

Non-drinkers.

A decrease in body water volume increases ADH production and release. ADH increases water reabsorption and water retention.

Human Physiology (5 decks)

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