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Human Physiology > Unit 1 > Flashcards

Unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is physiology?

A

Studies FUNCTIONS and SHAPE of the body.

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2
Q

What is the organization of the body in increasing complexity?

A
  1. Atoms
  2. Chemicals
  3. Macromolecules
  4. Organelles
  5. Cells
  6. Tissues
  7. Organs Systems

[ACMOCTOS]

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3
Q

What are the four types of tissues?

A
  1. Neurons
  2. Connective
  3. Epithelial
  4. Muscle
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4
Q

What percentage of water are we?

A

50-60%

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5
Q

Intracellular fluid (ICF) makes up how much of our total body water?

A

Two-thirds (2/3)

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6
Q

Intracellular fluid means ____ (inside/outside) cell.

A

Inside cell.

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7
Q

Extracellular fluid means ____ (inside/outside) cell.

A

Outside cell.

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8
Q

Extracellular fluid (ECF) makes up how much of our total body water?

A

One-third. (1/3)

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9
Q

ICF contains ___, ___, and ___.

A
  1. Potassium ions
  2. Phosphates
  3. Proteins.

[Triple P’s]

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10
Q

ECF contains ___, ___, and ___.

A
  1. Sodium ions
  2. Chloride ions
  3. Carbonate

[SCC]

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11
Q

Extracellular fluid’s two sub-compartments and their respective percentages are:

A
  1. Plasma (20%)
  2. Interstitial fluid (80%).
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12
Q

The subcomponent of ECF, plasma, is located ___.

A

in the blood.

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13
Q

The subcomponent of ECF, interstitial fluid, is located ___.

A

outside the blood.

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14
Q

Both compartments of ECF mix rapidly every ___.

A

10-30 minutes.

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15
Q

Six properties of water:

A
  1. Polar (likes to bond with other polar water molecules)
  2. Cohesive
  3. Adhesive
  4. Temperature stabilizing effects (protects organisms from rapid temperature changes.)
  5. Heat loss through evaporation of water
  6. Universal solvent
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16
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

The internal environment remains fairly constant and is maintained through regulatory mechanisms involving nerves, hormones, or localized chemicals.

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17
Q

What is negative feedback?

A

Maintains homeostasis by MINIMIZING deviations from the norm.

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18
Q

What elements are involved in negative feedback?

A
  1. Sensor
  2. Input
  3. Integrating center ⇔ 6. Set point
  4. Output
  5. Effector
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19
Q

What is positive feedback?

A

INCREASES deviations from the norm.

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20
Q

What are normal blood glucose levels?

A

Between 70-110mg/dl or mg%.

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21
Q

What is diabetes mellitus?

A

Disease of pancreas where a lack of insulin or insulin does not work on the effectors, so sugar levels go up and body can’t maintain homeostasis.

Blood glucose levels are high, w/ the cells having a lack of glucose. The cells will try to compensate by burning more fats in the liver to ketones (acetoacetic acid and hydroxybutyric acid). This is called ketosis.

The higher blood glucose levels cause glucose to be secreted into the urine along with water to balance the increase in solute concentration. Dehydration can be a problem associated with diabetes. (Sugar being pulled into urine takes water with it.)

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22
Q

What is hyperglycemia?

A

A rise in blood sugars.

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23
Q

How much of the U.S. population is affected by diabetes mellitus?

A

8% of the population.

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24
Q

What are homeotherms?

A

Organisms that can maintain constant body temperature.

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25
Q

What are endotherms?

A

Organisms that produce heat internally. Heat loss and gain is in steady state and equal.

Ex: humans

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26
Q

What are ectotherms?

A

Organisms that get heat from environment.

Ex: lizards

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27
Q

What are 2 EXTERNAL sources for heat GAIN?

A
  1. Radiation (hovering around fireplace)
  2. Conduction (touching warm object)
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28
Q

What are 4 sources for heat LOSS?

A
  1. Radiation (heat coming off of skin)
  2. Conduction (jumping into pool)
  3. Evaporation (sweating)
  4. Convection (wind)
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29
Q

What are 2 INTERNAL sources for heat GAIN?

A
  1. Metabolic processes (through aerobic processes like converting food into energy)
  2. Muscle activity (shivering)
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30
Q

What three physiological changes do effectors do to COOL THE BODY?

A
  1. Sweat glands (increase gland activity, increase evaporation of water, increase heat loss)
  2. Cutaneous blood vessels (vasodilate, increase blood flow, increase heat loss through radiation and condution)
  3. Skeletal muscles (decrease muscle activity or muscle tone, decrease heat production)
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31
Q

What is hyperthermia?

A

Elevated body temperature due to failed thermoregulation.

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32
Q

What two types of hyperthermia are there?

A
  1. Heat exhaustion
  2. Heat stroke
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33
Q

What is heat exhaustion?

A

Moderate increased temperature (101-102 degrees F)

Signs: pale, dizzy, nausea, sweating, fatigue

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34
Q

What is heat stroke?

A

Very high increased temperature (105 degrees F and plus). Homeostasis failure… means you’re NOT sweating.

Signs: warm, flushed dry skin, vomit, headache May be confused, delirious, unconscious, have seizures.

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35
Q

What three physiological changes do effectors do to WARM THE BODY?

A
  1. Sweat glands (decrease gland activity, evaporation and heat loss)
  2. Cutaneous blood vessels (vasoconstrict, decreasing blood flow. Decrease heat loss through radiation and conduction)
  3. Skeletal muscle (increase muscle activity or shiver, increase heat production)
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36
Q

What is hypothermia?

A

Decreased body temperature due to failed thermoregulation.

Shivering, pale color, poor judgment, confused, apathetic.

Frostbite.

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37
Q

What are chills aka cold?

A

Body is cold because the set point has been RAISED by hypothalamus (you get cold easier).

Body tries to increase heat production and reduce heat loss.

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38
Q

What is a fever?

A

Set point is reset for a lower temperature (you get hot easier).

Body tries to decrease heat production and enhance heat loss.

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39
Q

What are covalent bonds?

A

SHARING of electrons (polar or nonpolar)

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40
Q

What are non-polar molecules?

A

EQUAL sharing of the electrons around the nuclei of the two atoms.

Ex: O2 and CO2

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41
Q

What are polar molecules?

A

UNEQUAL sharing of the electrons around the nuclei of the two atoms.

Ex: H2O, sugar, and most amino acids

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42
Q

What are ionic bonds?

A

TRANSFER of electrons from one atom to another (positive or negative).

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43
Q

What are cations?

A

POSITIVE ions.

Ex: Na+

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44
Q

What are anions?

A

NEGATIVE ions.

Ex: Cl-

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45
Q

What is considered acidic on the pH scale?

A

1 pH (gives hydrogen ions)

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46
Q

What is considered basic on the pH scale?

A

14 pH (takes hydrogen ions)

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47
Q

What is the pH level of blood?

A

7.4 pH

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48
Q

What are buffers?

A

A system that stabilizes the pH of the fluid or blood by either adding or removing hydrogen ions (H+).

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49
Q

What are the four biomolecules?

A
  1. Carbohydrates
  2. Lipids
  3. Nucleic acids
  4. Proteins
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50
Q

What are monomers?

A

The basic units that can be attached together to form dimers, and eventually polymers that can contain many single units.

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51
Q

What is condensation?

A

Joining of two monomers and the removal of water. Monomers → Polymers

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52
Q

What is hydrolysis?

A

Splitting of the bond by inserting water and breaking apart the polymer. Aka digestion.

Polymers → Monomers

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53
Q

What are monosaccharides?

A

Basic unit or monomer. Simple sugars.

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54
Q

What are disaccharides?

A

Simple sugars (2 units through covalent bonding)

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55
Q

What are polysaccharides?

A

Complex sugars (2+ units through covalent bonding)

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56
Q

What are triglycerides or neutral fats?

A

Consists of three fatty acids and a glycerol molecule

Nonpolar.

Functions: thermal and physical protection; energy molecule and energy storage

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57
Q

What are phospholipids?

A

Polar heads (hydrophilic or lipophobic).

Non-polar tails (hydrophobic or lipophilic).

Located in cell membranes.

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58
Q

What are eicosanoids?

A

Used for intercellular communication.

Polar.

Ex: prostaglandins

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59
Q

What are steroids?

A

Cholesterol is most common steroid. Some act as hormones.

Ex: sex hormones and cortisol

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60
Q

What are nucleotides?

A

Function in the transfer of energy within cells and form the genetic material of the cells.

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61
Q

What are amino acids?

A

Basic units of proteins 20 different types of amino acids (essential 8 amino acids must be eaten and our liver can convert them into the other 12 amino acids).

Polar, charged, and non-polar amino acids.

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62
Q

What is protein synthesis?

A

DNA sequence transcribes the messenger RNA sequence and then translates into an amino acid sequence in the protein.

DNA → RNA → protein

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63
Q

What is a primary structure of a protein?

A

Cord stretched out straight into a sequence of amino acids.

Point mutations in DNA may cause a change in the sequence of amino acids in a protein.

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64
Q

What is sickle cell anemia?

A

Glutamic acid replaced by valine in the beta chain of hemoglobin (an example of point mutations in DNA that changes sequence of amino acids in protein)

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65
Q

What is a secondary structure of a protein?

A

Intramolecular hydrogen bond creates a coiling of the protein chain.

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66
Q

What is a tertiary structure of a protein?

A

Interaction between R-groups fold the chain into a complex shape of loops and bends in the coiled cord.

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67
Q

What is a quaternary structure of a protein?

A

Interaction between protein chains forming multi-chain proteins.

Ex: hemoglobin (2 alpha and 2 beta chains)

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68
Q

What is denaturation?

A

The changing of the protein’s 3D shape from a functional protein to a non-functional protein.

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69
Q

What are the four characteristics of a protein’s binding site? Name examples.

A
  1. Specificity: lock and key; specific ligand for a specific protein.

Ex: oxygen is a ligand for hemoglobin; lactase breaks down lactose

  1. Competition: similar ligands can compete for same site

Ex: Oxygen and carbon monoxide compete for hemoglobin; acetylcholine and nicotine compete for same receptor; LSD and serotonin compete for same receptor

  1. Affinity: attraction or binding strength between ligand and protein binding site.

Ex: carbon monoxide has affinity 200 > oxygen for hemoglobin; Beta-endophin has affinity 50 > morphine for mu receptors

  1. Saturation: a condition when all the binding sites are occupied by ligands.

Ex: oxygen saturation on hemoglobin; glucose saturation w/ diabetics

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70
Q

What are six protein functions?

A
  1. Communication: chemical messengers
  2. Receptors: interact w/ the messenger
  3. Transport: channels or carriers in the membrane
  4. Enzymes: regulate chemical reactions or metabolism
  5. Contractile: involved in muscle contraction (actin and myosin)
  6. Structural: collagen
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71
Q

What is cellular metabolism?

A

Sum of all chemical reactions within the body

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72
Q

What is a reaction?

A

Reactants (substrate) → Products

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73
Q

What is a unidirectional reaction?

A

One-way.

A → B

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74
Q

What is a bidirectional reaction?

A

Both ways.

A ⇔ B

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75
Q

What is a metabolic pathway?

A

It’s a chain of reactions where a different enzyme controls each step or reaction.

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76
Q

What is phosphorylation?

A

MAKING ATP.

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77
Q

What is dephosphorylation?

A

TAKING AWAY ATP.

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78
Q

What is potential energy?

A

Energy of position.

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79
Q

What is kinetic energy?

A

Energy of motion.

How temp influences energy: more temp means more energy.

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80
Q

What is an exergonic reaction?

A

Energy releasing reaction.

A → B + Energy

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81
Q

What is an endergonic reaction?

A

Energy requiring reaction.

X + Energy → Y

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82
Q

What is a coupled reaction?

A

Two reactions that occur together. One reaction must occur for the other to occur.

A + X → B + Y

ATP + X → ADP and Pi + Y

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83
Q

What four factors influence reaction rates?

A
  1. Concentration of the reactant: more substrates means more products
  2. Temperature: increase temperature means increase energy
  3. Height of the activation energy
  4. Presence of enzymes (concentration and affinity)
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84
Q

What is cellular respiration?

A

The conversion of energy found in foods into usable chemical (ATP) energy.

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85
Q

What is aerobic respiration?

A

Requires oxygen.

Most body cells (skeletal muscles).

Amount of energy from sugar = 40% ATP + 60% heat

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86
Q

What is anaerobic respiration?

A

Does NOT require oxygen.

Few body cells (skeletal muscle, red blood cells).

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87
Q

What are the stages of aerobic respiration?

A
  1. Glycolysis Linking step
  2. Citric acid (Krebs) cycle)
  3. Oxidative phosphorylation (electron transport system)
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88
Q

What happens during glycolysis in aerobic respiration?

A

Function is to breakdown (conversion) of glucose to pyruvate.

Produces 2 ATP.

Produces 2 NADH to be used in oxidative phosphorylation.

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89
Q

What happens during the linking step in aerobic respiration?

A

Converts pyruvate to acetyl-coA.

Produces 2 CO2.

Produces 2 NADH to be used in oxidative phosphorylation.

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90
Q

What happens during the citric acid (Krebs) cycle in aerobic respiration?

A

Function is the oxidation of the carbon molecules and the formation (reduction) of many NADH and FADH2 (electron rich carriers).

Produces 4 CO2.

Produces 2 ATP.

Produces 6 NADH and 2 FADH2 to be used in oxidative phosphorylation.

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91
Q

What happens during oxidative phosphorylation (electron transport system) in aerobic respiration?

A

Function is the oxidation of NADH and FADH2 to form ATP.

Converts the energy rich electron carriers (NADH and FADH2), in the presence of oxygen gas, into 34 ATP and water.

Cytochrome system of proteins that shuttle electrons to cytochrome a3 (oxidase), which picks up oxygen, H+, and electrons to make H2O.

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92
Q

What is happening in anaerobic respiration?

A

Glucose → 2 Pyruvate + 2 ATP → Lactate

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93
Q

What is fermentation?

A

An anaerobic metabolism that occurs in microorganisms (yeast, bacteria).

Glucose → 2 Pyruvate + 2 ATP → 2 Ethanol + 2 CO2 (ethyl alcohol)

Red wine: yeast converts sugar to 12-13% alcohol content.

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94
Q

How do we get ATP from glycogen metabolism and monosaccharides?

A
  1. Glycogenesis: glucose stored as glycogen
  2. Glycogenolysis: during fast glucose depletion, glycogen breaks down
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95
Q

How do we get ATP from lipid metabolism?

A

Triglycerides are made up of glycerol and three fatty acids:

  1. Lipolysis (fat breakdown): separates fatty acids from the glycerol molecule
  2. Glycerol → glycolysis → Krebs cycle → oxidative phosphorylation
96
Q

How do we get ATP from protein metabolism?

A

Amino acids enter various pathways in aerobic respiration:

  1. Proteolysis: amino acids broken down
  2. Deamination: amino acids removed
  3. Leftovers are keto acid such as pyruvate, acetyl CoA, Krebs cycle
  4. Energy
97
Q

What are the relationships between glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids in molecular conversions?

A

All biomolecules are interchangeable, EXCEPT fatty acids can’t form glucose or sugars (which is why you get fat b/c glycogen turns into fat).

When you’re low on glucose, your cells can use fats and proteins into ATP. But brain can’t use fat and protein for ATP, so we have gluconeogenesis.

98
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

Formation of sugar from proteins (amino acids), glycerol and lactate (this gives us a happy brain during fasting!)

99
Q

What is the peripheral membrane protein on a membrane structure?

A

Proteins that sit on the membrane surface.

100
Q

What is the integral membrane protein on a membrane structure?

A

Protein that sticks INTO the phospholipid layer.

101
Q

What is a transmembrane protein of a membrane structure?

A

It’s a type of integral membrane protein that extends through the membrane from peripheral to integral (goes all the way through).

Protein mediated transport proteins.

102
Q

What are two types of protein mediated transport proteins?

A
  1. Channel proteins
  2. Transport or carrier proteins
103
Q

What is a channel protein?

A

A type of protein mediated transport protein that opens so IONS can move in/out. Has a gate that can open/close.

Channels have water filled passages that link the ECF w/ ICF.

Chemicals, electrical events, or mechanical processes can control the opening of the channel gates.

104
Q

What is a transporter or carrier protein?

A

A type of protein mediated transport protein that transports proteins active/passively. Can be done with chemical force (concentration diffs) or electrical force (charge diffs). The chemical physically binds to the protein’s binding sites. No continuous passage way w/ carriers, thus no gates.

105
Q

What are two types of membrane transports?

A
  1. Passive transport
  2. Active transport
106
Q

What is passive transport?

A

Does not require ATP Occurs spontaneously.

107
Q

What is active transport?

A

Requires ATP Mediated by transport proteins called pumps.

108
Q

What are two types of driving forces?

A
  1. Chemical driving force
  2. Electrical driving force
109
Q

What is diffusion?

A

A passive transport process that uses kinetic energy of molecular motion.

110
Q

What are factors affecting the rate of diffusion?

A
  1. Magnitude of driving force/concentration gradient: direct
  2. Molecular size: inverse
  3. Temperature: direct
  4. Distance: inverse
  5. Tissue membrane thickness: inverse
  6. Surface area: direct
  7. Membrane permeability: lipophilic molecules have high permeability and lipophobic molecules have low permeability
111
Q

What is facilitated diffusion?

A

A transporter or carrier protein that undergoes conformational changes. Has four characteristics of a protein’s binding site (specificity, affinity, competition, saturation).

It’s passive and goes from high to low concentration gradient.

112
Q

What is active transport?

A

Utilizes ATP to move chemicals across the membrane.

Uses transmembrane carrier proteins.

113
Q

What does facilitated diffusion transport?

A

Sugars and amino acids.

114
Q

What does active transport transport?

A

Ions, sugars, and amino acids.

115
Q

What is primary active transport?

A

Transports IONS.

Requires ATP.

Moves: Na+/K+ pump, H+/K+ pump, CA 2+ pump, H+ pump

Think of it as the person pushing the revolving door.

116
Q

What is secondary active transport?

A

Transports GLUCOSE.

Uses potential energy stored in concentration gradient to move another molecule across the membrane.

Can be done via:

  • Cotransport (person goes in, another goes in).

Ex: sodium gradient moves glucose inward

  • Countertransport (person goes in, another goes out).

Ex: sodium gradient moves hydrogen ions outward Think of it as the person along for the free ride in revolving door.

117
Q

What is cystic fibrosis?

A

Single abnormal gene that interferes w/ chloride ion transport.

Chloride ion doesn’t move, water doesn’t move, sodium doesn’t move.

Thick mucus air passages.

118
Q

What is the relationship between a solute and water in a solution?

A

An increase in solute concentration lowers the concentration of water in the solution. Thus a 10% salt solution contains less water than a 5% salt solution.

119
Q

What is osmosis?

A

The movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane in response to an electrochemical gradient across the membrane (usually from high to low water concentration).

120
Q

What is percent?

A

grams/100 mLor 1 dL of water.

121
Q

What is molarity?

A

moles/1 L solution Always same volume.

122
Q

What is molality?

A

moles/1 kg solvent.

Total volume might exceed one liter.

123
Q

What is osmolarity?

A

osmoles/1 L solution

Sum of the molarity of all the solutes in a solution (concerned w/ number of solutes in solution).

124
Q

What is osmotic pressure?

A

Osmotic pressure increases as the solute concentration gradient increases. Used instead of osmolarity.

125
Q

What does iso-osmotic mean?

A

A solution with a solute concentrate equal to the cell.

126
Q

What does hypo-osmotic mean?

A

A solution that contains less solute relative to the cell.

127
Q

What does hyperosmotic mean?

A

A solution that contains a greater solute concentration relative to the cell.

128
Q

What is tonicity?

A

Concerned with what happens to the volume of the cell when it is placed in a different osmotic solution.

129
Q

What does isotonic mean?

A

No cell volume change.

130
Q

What is a hypertonic solution?

A

The cell will shrink due to water loss.

131
Q

What is a hypotonic solution?

A

Water will move into the cell causing the cell to swell.

132
Q

What two reasons do we use intravenous (IV) fluid therapy for?

A
  1. Rehydrate cells using hypotonic fluid to expand fluid in cell
  2. Replace ECF or blood loss using isotonic fluid to give more volume in ECF (doesn’t change cell volume though)
133
Q

What is vesicular transport?

A

Involves major changes in the membrane for the transportation of material across the cell.

134
Q

What is endocytosis?

A

Materials ENter cell.

135
Q

What is exocytosis?

A

Materials EXit cell.

136
Q

What are two examples for exocytosis?

A
  1. Mucin from mucous cells.
  2. Neurotransmitters from neurons.
137
Q

What is intercellular communication?

A

One cell influences the chemistry or communicates with another cell or group of cells.

138
Q

What is direct communication?

A

Cells are physically connected by gap junctions that allow for ions and currents to travel from one cell to another.

139
Q

What is indirect communication?

A

Communication via chemical messengers that go to receptors on target cells.

140
Q

What are the three chemical messengers?

A
  1. Paracrines
  2. Neurotransmitters
  3. Hormones
141
Q

What are paracrines?

A

Chemicals that communicate with neighboring cells (locally) within the interstitial fluid by simple diffusion.

142
Q

What are examples of paracrines?

A

Prostaglandins, cytokines, and histamine (PCH)

143
Q

What are neurotransmitters?

A

Released from one neuron and influence another neuron or muscle (long distance, but also local).

144
Q

What are examples of neurotransmitters?

A

Acetylcholine and dopamine.

145
Q

What are hormones?

A

Released from endocrine cells and enter the bloodstream (global). They influence a distant target on the surface or interior of the cell.

146
Q

What are examples of hormones?

A

Gonadotropin, insulin, and growth hormone.

147
Q

Most amino acid based messengers are ___ (lipophilic/lipophobic) molecules.

A

Lipophobic, so they can’t move through cell membrane. Receptors are located outside of cell.

148
Q

Name amino acids and are they lipophilic or lipophobic?

A

Glycine, GABA (Double G). Both lipophobic.

149
Q

Name amines and are they lipophilic or lipophobic?

A

Catecholamines: L-DOPA → dopamine → norepinephrine → epinephrine

Serotonin

Thyroxine

All lipophobic EXCEPT thyroxine.

150
Q

Name peptides and proteins and are they lipophilic or lipophobic?

A

Insulin, growth hormone, and prolactin.

All lipophobic.

151
Q

Name steroids and eicosanoids and are they lipophilic or lipophobic?

A

Estrogen, testosterone, prostaglandins.

All lipophilic.

152
Q

Lipid based messenger molecules are ___ (lipophilic/lipophobic).

A

Lipophilic. Receptors are located in the cytoplasm or nucleus, so materials can cross the membrane.

153
Q

What function is Histamine and H1 receptors involved in?

A

Cause an allergic reaction by constricting the smooth muscles in the bronchioles (making it harder to breathe) and dilating the blood vessels.

154
Q

What receptor does Benedryl affect and what does it do?

A

H1 receptors. Antagonist that decreases cold symptoms, but also inverse agonist that can cause drowsiness.

155
Q

What receptor does Claratin affect and what does it do?

A

H1 receptors. Antagonist that decreases cold symptoms, but is not permeable to the brain thus does not cause drowsiness.

156
Q

What function is Histamine and H2 receptors involved in?

A

Aids in acid secretion in stomach.

157
Q

What receptor does Zantac affect and what does it do?

A

H2 receptors. Antagonist that reduces acid secretion.

158
Q

What function is Histamine and H3 receptors involved in?

A

Influences release of neurotransmitters and decreases alertness.

159
Q

What receptor does Ciproxifan affect and what does it do?

A

H3 receptors. Inverse agonist that enhances alertness in animal models.

160
Q

What are agonists?

A

Normal messengers or chemicals that mimic the messenger.

161
Q

What receptor does benzodiazepines affect and what does it do?

A

GABA receptors. Agonist used as anti-anxiety, hypnotic, sedatives, muscle relaxants, and anticonvulsants.

162
Q

What are antagonists?

A

Chemicals that decrease or block (inhibit) the biological response.

163
Q

What are inverse agonists?

A

Chemicals that do the opposite of the agonists.

164
Q

What receptor does Ro15-4513 affect and what does it do?

A

GABA receptors. Inverse agonist that causes anxiety.

165
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

When you lose receptors, muscles weaken as a result.

166
Q

What is Type 2 diabetes?

A

Insulin loses its effectiveness or affinity to its receptors.

167
Q

What is Type 1 diabetes?

A

No insulin to breakdown glucose. Damage to beta cells (so can’t make insulin).

168
Q

What molecules activate protein synthesis? (Lipophobic/lipophilic molecules)

A

Lipophilic molecules.

DNA → mRNA → proteins

169
Q

Lipophobic molecules have what three cell membrane bound receptors?

A
  1. Channel linked receptors (direct influence)
  2. G-protein linked receptors (stimulates other proteins which then opens up channel)
  3. Enzyme linked receptors (combine receptor, activate 2nd messenger, influence metabolic changes in cell)
170
Q

Name two bacterial toxins.

A
  1. Cholera
  2. Pertussis.
171
Q

What is cholera?

A

Caused by vibrio cholerae and interferes w/ G-protein. It causes electrolyte problems and diarrhea.

172
Q

What is pertussis?

A

Bordetella pertussis blocks inhibition of adenylate cyclase. Characterized as whooping cough.

173
Q

What is signal amplification?

A

Chemical activates 10 chemicals which activate 100 chemicals which activate 1000, and so on!

174
Q

What does the pineal gland secrete?

A

Melatonin.

175
Q

What does melatonin do?

A

Regulates biorhythms.

176
Q

What are biorhythms?

A

Your circadian rhythm. A cyclic pattern of physical, emotional, or mental activity said to occur in the life of a person.

177
Q

Where is the posterior pituitary?

A

Directly linked with the nervous system via neurons that have their cell bodies in the hypothalamus and their axons running down into the posterior pituitary.

178
Q

Where is the anterior pituitary?

A

Not directly linked via nerves to the hypothalamus but is connected by a common blood supply called the hypothalamic pituitary portal vessels.

179
Q

What are two posterior pituitary hormones?

A
  1. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin
  2. Oxytocin
180
Q

What is is antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin involved in?

A

Posterior pituitary hormone that conserves body water and anteriolar constriction. It’s produced in the paraventricular nucleus.

181
Q

What is oxytocin involved in?

A

Posterior pituitary hormone that stimulates the smooth muscle of the uterus and the smooth muscle of the mammary glands, thus causing milk let down. It’s produced by the supraoptic nucleus.

182
Q

What are six anterior pituitary hormones?

A
  1. Prolactin
  2. Growth hormone (GH) or somatotropin
  3. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) or thyrotropin
  4. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) or corticotropin

5-6. Gonadotropins [luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)]

183
Q

What are tropins or tropic hormones?

A

Hormones that influence the release of target hormones from other target endocrine glands.

184
Q

Which of the six anterior pituitary hormones is not a tropin?

A

Prolactin.

185
Q

What does growth hormone do?

A

Anterior pituitary hormone that produces somatomedin or insulin like growth factor from liver. Somatomedin enhances amino acid absorption and protein synthesis. Influences growth in bone and muscles.

186
Q

What does prolactin do?

A

Anterior pituitary hormone thats involved in the production and maintenance of milk after childbirth.

187
Q

What does thyroid stimulating hormong (TSH) or thyrotropin do?

A

Anterior pituitary hormone that stimulates the release of thyroxine from the thyroid gland.

188
Q

What does adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) or corticotropin do?

A

Anterior pituitary hormone that stimulates the release of hormones (cortisol) from the adrenal cortex.

189
Q

What does gonadotropins (LSH and FSH) do?

A

Anterior pituitary hormone that activates the male and female gonads.

190
Q

Explain the release of anterior pituitary hormones.

A

Hormones from the hypothalamus inhibit or activate the release of the anterior pituitary hormones.

Inhibiting and releasing hormones move through the hypothalamic pituitary portal system to the anterior pituitary where they act.

191
Q

What does the thyroid gland secrete?

A

Thyroxine (T4) and T3.

192
Q

What do thyroxine and T3 do?

A

These hormones in the blood stream are protein bound to thyroid binding globulin. They influence the body’s metabolic rate in terms of calories required per day.

193
Q

Explain the release of thyroid hormones.

A
  1. TRH from hypothalamus stimulates TSH from anterior pituitary.
  2. TSH stimulates the release of T4 and T3.
  3. T4 and T3 inhibit the release of TRH and TSH.
194
Q

What is a goiter?

A

An enlarged thyroid gland and may be associated with hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism.

195
Q

What is hypothyroidism?

A

Low secretion of thyroid hormones, so metabolic rate slows.

Causes weight gain, sluggish mental activity, tiredness.

196
Q

What is hyperthyroidism?

A

Too much thyroxine hormones.

Causes irritability, weight loss, and loss of sleep.

197
Q

What is an endemic goiter?

A

Due to lack of iodine in the diet. Hypothyroidism (low T4 and T3). Hormone levels will be low, which says give me more iodine, which makes the gland bigger. There’s no inhibition of hypothalamus/anterior pituitary.

198
Q

What is an exophthalamic goiter (Graves disease)?

A

Hyperthyroidism (high T4 and T3). Freewheeling thyroid. Does not respond to TSH, so no negative feedback loop.

199
Q

What hormones are secreted by the adrenal medulla?

A

Epinephrine and norepinephrine.

200
Q

What does epinephrine and norepinephrine do?

A

Gives us fight or flight response.

Responds to acute stress.

201
Q

What hormones are secreted by adrenal cortex?

A

Three steroid hormones collectively called corticosteroids.

202
Q

What three classes of steroid hormones is corticosteroids made up of?

A
  1. Mineralocorticoids
  2. Androgens
  3. Glucocorticoids
203
Q

What do mineralocorticoids do?

A

Aldosterone is the major hormone and regulates potassium and sodium ion levels.

204
Q

What do androgens do?

A

Testosterone is the major androgen…

205
Q

What do glucocorticoids do?

A

Cortisol is the major hormone and influences glucose metabolism especially during the fasting state by increasing gluconeogenesis.

Anti-inflammatory.

Responds to chronic stress.

206
Q

What makes up the endocrine portion of the pancreas?

A
  1. Pancreatic islets (isles of Langerhans)
  2. Alpha cells
  3. Beta cells
  4. D cells
  5. PP or F cells
207
Q

What do alpha cells secrete?

A

The hormone glucagon (29 amino acids).

208
Q

What do beta cells secrete?

A

Insulin (51 amino acids).

209
Q

What do D cells secrete?

A

Somatostatin (inhibits GH).

210
Q

What do PP or F cells secrete?

A

Pancreatin peptide.

211
Q

What happens during the absorptive state (fed state) of glucose homeostasis?

A

An increase in blood glucose levels activate the pancreas (sensor and integrating unit) to release insulin into the bloodstream (efferent pathway).

  1. Target or Effector: most cells of the body except brain, kidney, and liver cells activated by insulin

Response: increases glucose permeability and glucose transport into the cells

  1. Target or Effector: liver and skeletal muscle (both store glycogen)

Response: favors the cellular utilization and storage of glucose. Increases glycogenesis (formation of glucose into glycogen).

  1. Target or Effector: liver and adipose tissue

Response: increases the conversion of glucose into fats (lipogenesis)… this is b/c you can only store so much glycogen.

  1. Target or Effector: liver

Response: decreases gluconeogenesis (the formation of glucose from proteins, lactic acid, and glycerol).

Results of negative feedback is to LOWER blood sugar levels.

212
Q

What happens during the post-absorbtive state (fasting state) of glucose homeostasis?

A

A decrease in blood glucose levels activates the pancreas (sensor and integrating unit) to release glucagon from the alpha cells into the bloodstream (efferent pathway).

  1. Target or Effector: liver

Response: increase conversion of glycogen to glucose from liver (glycogenolysis); increase gluconeogenesis by activating the enzymes that convert amino acids into sugars for aerobic respiration.

  1. Target or Effector: liver and adipose

Response: ATP production shifts from glucose metabolism to fat metabolism (lipolysis). Stores fatty acids and not sugar.

Results of negative feedback is to RAISE blood sugar levels.

213
Q

What are four microcirculation problems that occur in diabetes where small blood vessels begin to break down?

A
  1. Retinopathy (eyes)
  2. Nephropathy (kidneys)
  3. Neuropathy (neurons)
  4. Delayed wound healing
214
Q

What treatments can be used for Type 1 diabetes?

A

Regulate carbohydrate intake to keep blood sugar levels down.

Inject insulin to regulate sugar levels.

Nasal, rectal, encapsulated oral.

Gene therapy, new beta cells that can respond to sugar levels.

215
Q

What treatments can be used for Type 2 diabetes?

A

Regulate carbohydrate intake and diet.

Weight loss.

Exercise.

Oral hypoglycemics.

Insulin treatment.

Bariatric surgery (removing part of stomach to cut down caloric intake and also help with weight loss).

216
Q

What does calcium do?

A

Important signal molecule.

Cofactor in blood clotting.

Maintains the proper excitability of nerves and muscles by altering the membrane potentials of these cells.

Major component in bone.

217
Q

What is hypercalcemia?

A

Calcium levels too high so it decreases muscle activity and heart rate.

218
Q

What is hypocalcemia?

A

Calcium levels too low, so it causes an increase in sodium into the cells. This causes over-excitable nerves and tetany of skeletal muscle.

219
Q

What three hormones regulate calcium levels?

A
  1. Calcitonin
  2. Parathyroid hormone
  3. Vitamin D3
220
Q

What happens during elevated calcium levels?

A

An increase in ECF calcium levels stimulates the thyroid gland to increase the release of calcitonin.

  1. Calcitonin travels to its target area, bone, where it increases calcium storage, thus lowering ECF calcium.
  2. Calcitonin influences the kidney to decrease calcium reabsorption, thus increasing the excretion of calcium and phosphate from the body.
221
Q

What happens during low calcium levels?

A

A decrease in ECF calcium levels activates the release of parathyroid hormone (PTH).

  1. PTH increases the release (reabsorption) of calcium and phosphate from its reservoirs in bone by using the osteoclasts.
  2. PTH increases calcium reabsorption in the kidneys thus decreasing calcium excretion and conserving body calcium.
  3. PTH activates Calcitriol aka Vitamin D3 in the kidney.
  4. Calcitriol converse calcium by enhancing the absorption of dietary calcium in the small intestine (resorb from bone), thus increasing the ECF calcium levels.
  5. Calcitriol conserves calcium by increasing calcium reabsorption in the kidneys thus decreasing calcium excretion and conserving body calcium
222
Q

Name three monosaccharides.

A
  1. Galactose
  2. Fructose
  3. Glucose (immediate energy source for the body, liver converts galactose and fructose into glucose, sugar in bloodstream)
223
Q

Name three disaccharides.

A
  1. Sucrose
  2. Maltose
  3. Lactose

[lol small, medium, large]

224
Q

Name two polysaccharides.

A
  1. Glycogen (carbohydrate storage molecule found mostly in liver and skeletal muscles of animals. Can be converted into glucose)
  2. Starch (storage sugar in plants)
225
Q

How much ATP does aerobic respiration produce?

A

38 ATP.

226
Q

Where does glycolysis in aerobic respiration occur?

A

Cytoplasm.

227
Q

Where does the linking step in aerobic respiration occur?

A

Mitochondria.

228
Q

Where does citric acid (Krebs) cycle in aerobic respiration occur?

A

Mitochondrial matrix.

229
Q

Where does oxidative phosphorylation (electron transport system) in aerobic respiration occur?

A

Mitochondria on the cristae of the inner membrane.

230
Q

Where does anaerobic respiration occur?

A

Cytoplasm of skeletal muscle cells and red blood cells.

231
Q

What is the equivalent measure for 1 mL?

A

1 mL = 1 cm3 or 1 c

232
Q

What is the order of units in the metric system from largest to smallest?

A

mega (M): 1/1,000,000

kilo (k): 1/1000

unit: 1

deci (d): 10

centi (c): 100

milli (m): 1000

micro (mu or µ): 1,000,000

nano (n): 1,000,000,000

pico (p): 1,000,000,000,000

[My King Used Drugs Christmas Morning, My New Piano]

233
Q

What is the equivalent measure for 1 µL?

A

1 µL = 1 mm3

234
Q

What are the three equilibrium equations for phosphate?

A

Basic pair: HPO42- ⇔ PO43- + H+

Midrange pair: H2PO4- ⇔ HPO42- + H+

Acidic pair: H3PO4 ⇔ H2PO4- + H+

235
Q

What are the three equilibrium pairs for carbonate?

A

Basic pair: HCO3- ⇔ CO32- + H+

Midrange pair: H2CO3 ⇔ HCO3- + H+

Acidic pair: H3CO3+ ⇔ H2CO3 + H+

Human Physiology (5 decks)

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