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PMT 4800 Exam > Unit 4.5-4.7 Knowledge Check > Flashcards

Unit 4.5-4.7 Knowledge Check Flashcards

1
Q

A software-costing model that bases cost estimates upon statistical data such as source lines of
code is an example of a costing model.

  • Parametric
  • Top-down
  • Bottom-up
  • Delphi
A

Parametric

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2
Q

As a general rule of thumb, what percent of the total ownership costs of a mass-produced system occur late in the life cycle, due to costs associated with operations and support?

  • 75-90%
  • 65-80%
  • 35-50%
  • 55-65%
A

65-80%

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3
Q

All of the following are true of Below Threshold Reprogramming (BTR) actions, EXCEPT ______.

  • Allows the transfer of BA among programs, but is subject to certain rules and limitations
  • Does not require Congressional involvement
  • Changes to the appropriation category
  • Is controlled and approved by local or service/defense agency comptrollers
A

Changes to the appropriation category

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4
Q

Which of the following Federal Government regulations govern DoD acquisition activities?

  • Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)
  • Defense Acquisition System (DAS)
  • Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution (PPBE)
  • Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) and Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS)
A

Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) and Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS)

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5
Q

Total ownership cost, which includes the costs associated with research, development, test and
evaluation, procurement, military construction, military personnel, operations and maintenance, and
disposal of a system, is also known as:

  • Flyaway Cost
  • Life Cycle Cost
  • Program Acquisition Cost
  • Weapon System Cost
A

Life Cycle Cost

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6
Q

Both the Army and Marine Corps have a capability need to procure additional helicopters beyond the number specified in the current contract; the helicopter program is currently in production. What cost estimating technique would the services most likely use as a basis for requesting the funding to pay for the additional aircraft?

  • Parametric
  • Engineering
  • Analogy
  • Actual Cost
A

Actual Cost

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7
Q

Affordability is most concerned with:

  • Use of commercial design practices to save development and production costs.
  • Making tradeoffs that will provide the best possible system in the least amount of time.
  • Making tradeoffs in performance and schedule to achieve cost objectives within affordability constraints.
  • Use of state-of-the-art design and materials to accomplish the mission documented in the Initial
    Capabilities Document (ICD) and Capability Development Document (CDD).
A

Making tradeoffs in performance and schedule to achieve cost objectives within affordability constraints.

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8
Q

What type of appropriation should be used to pay for the development and testing of a system modification with the primary purpose of improving performance?

  • Operations and Maintenance (O&M)
  • Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E)
  • Procurement
  • Shipbuilding and Conversion Navy (SCN)
A

Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E)

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9
Q

Escalation allows us to make predictions about future costs based on:

  • Expected inflation and outlay rates
  • Expected outlay rates and affordability trade-offs
  • Expected cost/performance trade-offs and affordability analyses
  • Expected inflation rates and affordability analyses
A

Expected inflation and outlay rates

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10
Q

Each Component (Services/Agencies) uses the guidance provided by the Planning phase of the
Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution (PPBE) process to prepare its proposal for all
available resources, including funding, force structure and personnel end strength, over a five
year period. This prioritized proposal, submitted to the Secretary of Defense, is known as the:

  • President’s Budget (PB)
  • Budget Estimate Submission (BES)
  • Defense Planning Guidance (DPG)
  • Program Objectives Memorandum (POM)
A

Program Objectives Memorandum (POM)

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11
Q

In what type contract, does the contractor bear virtually all the financial risk?

  • Firm Fixed Price (FFP)
  • Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)
  • Sole Source
  • Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF)
A

Firm Fixed Price (FFP)

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12
Q

In a contract, the Government bears the most financial risk?

  • Firm Fixed Incentive Fee (FFIF)
  • Firm Fixed Price (FFP)
  • Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
  • Time and Materials
A

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

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13
Q

When both government and private funds are used in development efforts, the contractor may be entitled to offer rights that allow the government to release data only as part of the
competition and not for commercial purposes are called _____ rights?

  • Government Purpose
  • Unlimited
  • Limited
  • Restricted
A

Government Purpose

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14
Q

With respect to product improvements, if a modification will not cause an increase in system performance, does not require extensive independent testing, and the system is currently in production, its development and test as well as modification kits should be funded with _____ dollars.

  • Procurement
  • Military Personnel (MILPERS)
  • Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E)
  • Operations & Maintenance (O&M)
A

Procurement

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15
Q

Which of the following provides essential project data including objective performance status,
cost impact of known problems, identification of emerging problems, possible sources of problems, and schedule deviations from the contract plan?

  • Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
  • Cost/Benefit Analysis
  • Integrated Program Management Data and Analysis Report (IPMDAR)
  • Integrated Master Schedule (IMS)
A

Integrated Program Management Data and Analysis Report (IPMDAR)

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16
Q

During source selection, you are evaluating a proposal and you have some questions for th
offeror. What should you do?

  • Send your questions to the offeror in an e-mail
  • Telephone the offeror and ask your questions
  • Convey your questions to the program manager to send to the offeror
  • Convey your questions to the contracting officer to send to the offeror
A

Convey your questions to the contracting officer to send to the offeror

17
Q

Forward Pricing Rates Agreements (FPRA) provide negotiated rates that represent reasonable
projections for such things as _____.

  • Rates for exact costs and prices
  • Rates for training the contractor workforce
  • Rates for labor and indirect costs
  • Program burn rate
A

Rates for labor and indirect costs

18
Q

Who controls the budget and the release of funds, and reports directly to the Secretary of Defense?

  • Under Secretary of Defense Acquisition & Sustainment (USD(A&S))
  • Under Secretary of Defense for Policy (OUSD(P))
  • Under Secretary of Defense Comptroller (OUSD(C))
  • Director, Operational Test & Evaluation (D, OT&E)
A

Under Secretary of Defense Comptroller (OUSD(C))

19
Q

The primary unit of data in the Future Years Defense Program (FYDP) and normally the smallest
aggregation of resources controlled by the office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) is the _____.

  • Program Element
  • Appropriation Line Item
  • Defense Appropriation Item
  • Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) Cost Center
A

Program Element

20
Q

Which process of DoD Resource Allocation, does Congress appoint various budget, authorization,
and appropriation committees to set the budget ceiling and ends when the President signs the National Defense Authorization Act (NOAA)?

  • Distribution
  • Execution
  • Apportionment
  • Enactment
A

Enactment

21
Q

What is the obligation period (the length of time the Government has to obligate the funds) for
the Defense
Appropriation Category of Procurement funds?

  • 3 Years
  • 1 Years
  • 2 Years
  • 5 Years
A

3 Years

22
Q

Which enactment process activity provides permission for a Federal program or activity to begin or continue from year to year, but does not provide Budget Authority to fund the program or
activity?

  • Budget Resolution
  • National Military Strategy
  • Authorization Bill
  • Appropriations Bill
A

Authorization Bill

23
Q

After Congress passes the DoD Appropriations Bill and the President signs it, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) distributes the Budget Authority to the DoD. What is this distribution
called?

  • Apportionment
  • Authorization
  • Acknowledgement
  • Aggregation
A

Apportionment

24
Q

If a contractor is producing missiles for the Navy, on a non-commercial contract, and the contractor fails to deliver them on time, the Navy has the right to:

  • Terminate the contract for convenience
  • Terminate the contract for default
  • Terminate the contract for cause
  • All of the answers are correct
A

Terminate the contract for default

25
Q

What method is generally preferred to resolve contract disputes because it saves time, money,
and preserves relationships between the parties?

  • Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)
  • Termination of the contract for default
  • Termination of the contract for convenience
  • Litigation (settling the dispute in court)
A

Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)

26
Q

With regard to exceptions to the full funding policy, the action to procure long lead items for a
system with the intent to provide program continuity is known as _____.

  • Incremental Funding
  • Low Rate Initial Production (LRIP)
  • Multi-year Procurement
  • Advance Procurement
A

Advance Procurement

27
Q

Which of the following is not an appropriate method of communicating with industry prior to
releasing a Request for Proposal (RFP)?

  • Market Research
  • Draft Request for Proposal
  • Requesting input on design concepts from a select group of offerors
  • Request for Information (RFI)
A

Requesting input on design concepts from a select group of offerors

28
Q

If your procurement budget request did not provide for buying a whole number of useable end items, this would be a violation of which funding policy?

  • Incremental Funding
  • Annual Funding
  • Full Funding
  • Deficit Funding
A

Full Funding

29
Q

To minimize current and future funding risks, Program Management Offices use ______ to project and track obligations and expenditures.

  • Spending Plans
  • Acquisition Plans
  • Fielding Plans
  • Life Cycle Sustainment Plans
A

Spending Plans

30
Q

The largest percentage of software life cycle costs is associated with what?

  • Design and Development
  • Research and Development
  • Test and Evaluation
  • Upgrades and Maintenance
A

Upgrades and Maintenance

31
Q

With regard to exceptions to the full funding policy, when the Government makes a commitmen
to the contractor to procure a specific quantity of products of serval years is known as _____.

  • Low Rate Initial Production (LRIP)
  • Advance Procurement
  • Multiyear Procurement
  • Incremental Funding
A

Multiyear Procurement

32
Q

A contracting officer that signs a new contract in advance of the appropriation that provide funding for a contract, are in violation of the _____.

  • Bona Fide Need Rule
  • Anti-Deficiency Act
  • Unauthorized Commitment
  • Misappropriation Act
A

Anti-Deficiency Act

33
Q

A Program Manager uses excess RDT&Emoney in a particular program to purchase items for that
same program to be deployed in the field for purposes of training and operational use, are in
violation of the _____.

  • Anti-Deficiency Act
  • Unauthorized Commitment
  • Bona Fide Need Rule
  • Misappropriation Act
A

Misappropriation Act

34
Q

Which of the following apply to the Bona Fide Need Rule?

  • Funds may only be expended for the purposes for which they were appropriated
  • Funds may only be used to obtain goods and services for which a need arises during the period of the appropriation availability for obligation
  • Funds cannot be obligated/expended in excess of the amount available through appropriation
  • Funds cannot be used to purchase long lead time items
A

Funds may only be used to obtain goods and services for which a need arises during the period of the appropriation availability for obligation

35
Q

When a vendor cashes the government check and money flows from the Treasury to the vendor it is called an _____.

  • Commitment
  • Obligation
  • Outlay
  • Expenditure
A

Outlay

PMT 4800 Exam (6 decks)

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