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Microbiology 2125 > Unit 4- Bacterial Genetics+Epidemiology > Flashcards

Unit 4- Bacterial Genetics+Epidemiology Flashcards

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1
Q

Define Lariate

A

A ring of intron segments that have been spliced out of mRNA by enzymes

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2
Q

5’ Guanosine Cap Function

A

protects the nascent mRNA from degradation and assists ribosomes in binding during translation

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3
Q

Spliceosome (Function)

A

RNA-Protein complex that recognizes the exon-intron junctions and enzymatically cuts through them (RNA Splicing)

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4
Q

Poly-A Tail Function

A

@ the 3’ end, the Poly A Tail is added when elongation is complete. It protects mRNA from enzyme degradation

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5
Q

Role of Transcription factors and RNA Polymerase in transcription

A

A Family of proteins that function in a multi-subunit complex that can bind to the promoter on DNA or directly to RNA Polymerase. They can activate or repress transcription

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6
Q

Sense Strand of a gene

A

The strand that holds the coding sequence for a particular gene

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7
Q

The antisense strand of a gene

A

the strand that holds the complement of the coding sequence for a gene

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8
Q

Define Codon

A

A Sequence of 3 nucleotides that together form a unit of genetic code in a DNA or RNA molecule

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9
Q

Define Anticodon

A

a sequence of 3 nucleotides forming a unit of genetic code in a tRNA molecule corresponding to a complementary codon in mRNA

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10
Q

Structure of ribosomes

A

Made of rRNA (Ribosomal RNA), site of translation, form ribosome-protein complex

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11
Q

A Site on the Ribosome

A

Aminoacyl site, which adds the amino acid to the polypeptide chain

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12
Q

P Site on the Ribosome

A

Where the Peptidyl tRNA is formed in the ribosome

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13
Q

E Site on the Ribosome

A

Exit site for the polypeptide chain

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14
Q

How are Amino Acids linked togehter by the ribosome?

A

Translation: Amino Acids opposite the codon (tRNA) will align at the A, P, and E Site to create a polypeptide chain out of amino acids.

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15
Q

Wobble in the Genetic Code

A

The Genetic Code’s third codon is usually coding for the same amino acid, relating to the degeneracy of the code

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16
Q

Point Mutation

A

Single-nucleotide switches/replacements

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17
Q

Silent Mutation

A

Codes for the same amino acid with a nucleotide switch

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18
Q

Missense Mutation

A

Cause another Amino Acid to be coded

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19
Q

Frameshift Mutation

A

Can cause a reading frame offset and cause a nonsense or missense mutation

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20
Q

Nonsense Mutation

A

Causes a stop codon to be generated

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21
Q

Back Mutation

A

Reverses a mutation from its abberant state back to its normal state

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22
Q

Ames Test

A

A test to determine the mutagenic activity of chemicals by observing whether they cause mutations in simple bacteria

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23
Q

Define Operon

A

A section of DNA that contains one or more structural genes along with a corresponding operator gene that controls transcription

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24
Q

Regulator in an operon

A

Turns the operon on/off in response to lactose and glucose levels

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25
Q

Repressor in an operon

A

Stops transcription and acts as a lactose sensor , will come off when the activator is present

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26
Q

Inducers

A

Triggers expression of a gene or operon

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27
Q

Semiconservative replication

A

The strand that serves as a template is an original parental DNA strand that is retained in the daughter molecule

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28
Q

DNA Template

A

The strand in a DNA Molecule that is used as a model to synthesize a complementaty strand of DNA or RNA during replication or transcription

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29
Q

Replication Fork

A

Y-Shaped point on a replicating DNA molecule where DNA polymerase is synthesizing new strands of DNA

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30
Q

Leading strand

A

Strand being replicated continuously

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31
Q

Lagging strand

A

strand replicated backwards in Okazaki fragments

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32
Q

Continuous strand

A

Replicated smoothly in one piece

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33
Q

Discontinuous strand

A

Replicated in Okazaki Fragments

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34
Q

How are Okazaki fragments put together

A

DNA Ligase

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35
Q

Okazaki Fragments

A

A Segment formed on the lagging strand where biosynthesis is conducted in a discontinuous manner as required by DNA polymerase’s orientation

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36
Q

DNA Polymerase I role in DNA Replication

A

Removes RNA Primers, replaces gaps in Okazaki fragments

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37
Q

DNA Polymerase II role in DNA Replication

A

Adds bases to new DNA Chain; Proofreads the chain for mistakes

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38
Q

DNA Ligase role in DNA Replication

A

Binds Okazaki fragments together

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39
Q

DNA Gyrase/topoisomerase role in DNA Replication

A

performs a double-stranded cut to prevent supercoiling when the Double-Helix is unwound for replication

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40
Q

RNA Primase role in DNA Replication

A

Synthesizes an RNA Primer

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41
Q

DNA Helicase role in DNA Replication

A

Unzips DNA double-Helix for replication

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42
Q

SSBP-Single-Stranded binding proteins’ role in DNA Replication

A

Binds to single-stranded DNA and prevents annealing of single-stranded DNA into double-stranded DNA, also prevents single-stranded DNA from degredation

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43
Q

Plasmids

A

Small, circular pieces of DNA, can bear genes that code for adaptive traits

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44
Q

Resistance Plasmids

A

Bear genes for resisting antibiotics

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45
Q

Virulence Plasmids

A

Increase Virulence (adherence), turn the bacteria into pathogens

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46
Q

Fertility Plasmids

A

Directs the synthesis of a sex pilus

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47
Q

Restriction Enzymes

A

Cleaves DNA molecules at or near a sequence of bases usually create overhangs

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48
Q

Restriction Site

A

Sites where restriction enzymes will cut the DNA (Double-Stranded cut)

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49
Q

Degenerative Disease

A

Common non-infectious diseases whose incidences increase with age.

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50
Q

Genetic Disease

A

An inherited medical condition caused by a DNA abnormality.

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51
Q

Infectious Disease

A

A disease caused by a pathogen and can be transmitted in many ways

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52
Q

Direct Mode of Transmission of a disease

A

Direct contact or Droplet spread

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53
Q

Indirect Mode of Transmission of a disease

A

Airborne, Vehicle Borne, or vector-borne(mechanical or Biological)

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54
Q

Mechanical Vector

A

a vector that does not require the host to complete its life cycle (Flies)

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55
Q

Biological Vector

A

a vector that requires the host to complete its life cycle (Mosquitoes, Ticks)

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56
Q

Source of Resivoir

A

The habitat in which the infectious agent normally lives, grows, and multiplies/ Can include humans, animals, and the environment

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57
Q

Communicable Disease

A

Can be transmitted by direct contact or indirect contact (Infectious agent)

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58
Q

Non-Communicable Disease

A

A medical condition whose disease is not caused by an infectious agent. can be chronic diseases which last a long time and progress slowly

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59
Q

Type I Survivorship curve

A

High probability of surviving through early and middle life, but die later

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60
Q

Type II Survivorship curve

A

Consistent mortality throughout life. Chances of dying are independent of age.

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61
Q

Type III Survivorship curve

A

Few individuals live to adulthood and die as they get older. Most death is early

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62
Q

Factors responsible for increased survivorship (Type II to Type I) in the U.S. in the 20th Century

A

Cleaner Water Cleaner sanitation/ Septic systems Cleaner personal Hygeine

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63
Q

Describe the role of the CDC in tracking and limiting the spread of infectious diseases

A

All cases of transmitted diseases are reported by physcians and practitioners by law, and they’re documented in a weekly report

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64
Q

MMWR by the CDC

A

Morbidity and Mortality weekly report- Weekly epidemiological digest for the U.S. published by the CDC. It contains notifiable diseases and mortality table

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65
Q

Prevalence of a disease

A

accumulated total of existing cases with respect to the entire population (# of cases/person)*100

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66
Q

Incidence of disease

A

of new cases over a certain time period, as compared with the general healthy population ( New Cases/# Susceptible)

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67
Q

Endemic

A

Exhibits a steady and predictable frequency over a long time and is contained in a geographic locale

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68
Q

Epidemic

A

Region or nationwide spread of disease

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69
Q

Sporadic

A

occasional cases and irregular intervals in widely dispersed locations

70
Q

pandemic

A

worldwide spread of disease

71
Q

ICeberg Effect of disease

A

All cases of a disease are not reported because of a lack of access to care or people not going to the doctor with symptoms

72
Q

Morbidity

A

Number of people afflicted with infectious diseases

73
Q

Mortality

A

Number of deaths in a population due to a certain disease

74
Q

Epidemiology

A

The effects of diseases on the community

75
Q

Disease Etiology

A

Cause, set of causes, or manner of causation of a disease or condition

76
Q

Fomites

A

An inanimate object that harbors and transmits pathogens

77
Q

Oral-Fecal Route of disease transmission

A

Contaminated feces from an infected person are somehow ingested by another person

78
Q

Food route of disease transmission

A

Food Poisoning, foodborne pathogens, recreational drinking water, animals, or their environment, and person to person spread

79
Q

Air Droplet Nuclei route of disease transmission

A

Spread when droplets of pathogens are expelled into the air from coughing, sneezing, or talking

80
Q

Nosocomial infection

A

Hospital-Acquired Infection (HAI)

81
Q

PPE (Personal Protective Equipment)

A

Gloves, masks, gowns, etc. to help prevent the spead of disease from patient to Healthcare provider and vice versa

82
Q

Physical control of microbial growth

A

heating, refrigeration, freezing, high pressure, autoclave

83
Q

Chemical control of micribial growth

A

antiseptic, antibiotics, disinfectants

84
Q

How to clean an inanimate object

A

Disinfectant

85
Q

How to clean live tissue

A

Antiseptics

86
Q

Antibiotics are used where and how?

A

inside the body

87
Q

Antiseptics are used where and how?

A

Outside the Body

88
Q

Koch’s 1st postulate

A

The microorganism must be found in abundance in all organisms suffering from the disease, but not be found in healthy organisms.

89
Q

Koch’s 2nd Postulate

A

The microorganism must be isolated from a diseased organism and grown in a pure culture.

90
Q

Koch’s 3rd postulate

A

The cultured microorganism should cause disease when introduced into a healthy organism.

91
Q

Koch’s 4th postulate

A

The microorganism must be reisolated from the inoculated, diseased host and identified as being identical to the original microbe.

92
Q

Skin/Mucosa as an entry portal for a microbes

A

Broken skin, eyes, mouth, ears, nose

93
Q

Urogenital Mucosa as an entry portal for microbes

A

Urination, sexual transmission (fluid), sexual contact

94
Q

Gastrointestinal Mucosa as an entry portal for microbes

A

Food, Water

95
Q

Placenta as an entry portal for microbes

A

Certain diseases can pass from the mother through the placenta to the child (Rubella, Mumps, Syphilis, Malaria, CMV, and Herpes.

96
Q

Respiratory Tract/Mucosa as an entry portal for microbes

A

Breathing in the pathogen to the respiratory tract

97
Q

Stages of the infection process

A

Exposure Invasion Symptoms Adherence Multiplication Exit

98
Q

Exposure in the infection process

A

First encoutner with the pathogen at an entry site (Portal of entry_

99
Q

Invasion in the infection process

A

Dissemination of a pathogen throughout local tissues or the body pathoens may produce exotoxins/exoenzymes, which increase virulence

100
Q

Symptoms in the infection process

A

Coughing, sneezing, runny eyes, vomiting, etc. as documented and reported by the patient

101
Q

Adherence in the infection process

A

Pathogen adheres to the portal of entry. Capability of microbes to attach using adhesion (Fimbriae, Biofilm, slime layer)

102
Q

Multiplication in the infection process

A

Local, focal, or systemic infection

103
Q

Exit in the infection process

A

Pathogen exits the host and is transmitted to a new host

104
Q

Latent infections

A

Asymptomatic infection capable of manifesting symptoms under circumstances or if activated

105
Q

Asymptomatic Infections

A

The patient is a carrier for a disease, but no symptoms are present

106
Q

Subclinical infection

A

No recognizable clinical findings

107
Q

Source of infection

A

The Pathogen

108
Q

Reservoir of infection

A

environment the pathogen lives in normally and reproduces

109
Q

Carrier of infection

A

Infected but asymptomatic/ Can be the vector

110
Q

Vector

A

Caused by a parasite

111
Q

Primary vs Secondary infection

A

Primary infection is present and reduces immune response. Secondary infection can be more deadly due to weakened immune system (Pneumonia secondary to HIV was cause of death)

112
Q

Communicable dieases

A

Infectious agent caused the disease

113
Q

non-communicable diease

A

genetic or chronic disease with no infectious agent

114
Q

Localized infection

A

An infection that affects only one body part or organ is called a localized infection

115
Q

Systemic Infection

A

An infection that is in the bloodstream or organ system

116
Q

Direct transmission of disease

A

Direct contact required

117
Q

Indirect transmission of disease

A

Airborne or Droplet

118
Q

Acute infection

A

new onset symptoms

119
Q

Chronic infection

A

Long-Developing condition

120
Q

Sign of an infection/disease

A

observable by others

121
Q

Symptom of an infection/disease

A

only subjective evidence of a disease, noted by the affected individual

122
Q

Living Reservoir of a pathogen

A

Humans, Animals, Plants

123
Q

Nonliving reservoir of a pathogen

A

Water, soil, food

124
Q

What is the importance of mosquitos, ticks, and fleas in the transmission of disease

A

Parasites which can transmit pathogens during their life cycles

125
Q

Minimun infectious dose

A

As the dose increases, the severity of the pathological effects increases (Dose- # of bacteria) = Concentration (# of bacteria/gram) x Mass (grams)

126
Q

Structures used by pathogens in the process of adherence

A

Flagellae, fimbriae, glycocalyx, slime layer, capsule, hooks, suckers

127
Q

Hooks and suckers are only present in what type of cells?

A

Eukaryotic pathogens

128
Q

Extoxins are produced by what type of cells

A

Both Gram (+) and (-)

129
Q

Endotoxins are produced by what type of cells

A

Gram (-) Only

130
Q

Neurotoxins

A

Affect the Brain, Spinal Cord, and nerves

131
Q

Hepatotoxins

A

Affect the Liver

132
Q

Hemotoxins

A

Affect the blood

133
Q

Enterotoxins

A

Affect the GI Tract

134
Q

Nephrotoxins

A

Affect the Kidneys

135
Q

Myotoxins

A

Affect the muscles

136
Q

Exoenzyme

A

enzyme that acts outside the cell that produces it; begins the process of extracellular digestion. Digests molecules via hydrolysis

137
Q

Mucinase

A

Hydrolyzes Mucins

138
Q

Keratinase

A

Degrades insoluble Keratin Substances

139
Q

Collagenase

A

Breaks peptide bonds in collagen (Virulence factor), destroys the extracellular structures in pathogens

140
Q

Hyaluronidase

A

degrades hyaluronic acid

141
Q

Coagulase

A

Brings about coagulation of blood or plasma, caused by stapylococcus

142
Q

Steps in the progression of disease states

A

Incubation Prodrome Invasion Period Covalescent Period

143
Q

Incubation period of disease progression

A

After entry of the pathogen into the host, it multuplies

144
Q

Prodrome period of disease progression

A

The Pathogen continues to multiply, host experiences signs and symptoms of illness, immune responses

145
Q

Invasion period of disease progression

A

Signs and symptoms are most obvious and severe

146
Q

Convalescent period of disease progression

A

Patient returns to normal functions, though some diseases may inflict permanent damage the body cannot repair

147
Q

Define Sequelae

A

A condition that is the consequence of a previous diease or injury( Chronic condition resulting from an acute condition)

148
Q

Inflammation in the infection process

A

Indicates an immune response in the prodrome period of disease progression

149
Q

Identify the Lesion Type

A

Bullae

150
Q

Identify the Lesion Type

A

Carbuncle

151
Q

Identify the disease

A

Meningitis/Encephalitis

152
Q

Identify the Lesion Type

A

Furuncle

153
Q

Identify the Lesion Type

A

Hematoma

154
Q

Identify the Condition

A

Hepatitis

155
Q

Identify the Lesion Type

A

Macule

156
Q

Identify the Condition

A

Meningitis/Encephalitis

157
Q

Identify the Skin Lesion

A

Papule

158
Q

Identify the Lesion Type

A

Petichiae

159
Q

Identify the Lesion Type

A

Pustule

160
Q

Identify the Lesion Type

A

Ulcer

161
Q

Identify the Lesion Type

A

Urticaria (Hives)

162
Q

Identify the Lesion Type

A

Verruca (Warts)

163
Q

Ignaz Semmelweis

A

Hungarian Physician - Estabished a connection between the incidence of pueperal fever (Streptococcus) and mortality and suggested changes in hygiene that reduced the rate of the latter.

164
Q

Joseph Lister

A

Developed methods for reducing the incidence and severity of hospital-acquired infections through improvements in hygiene

and aseptic practices.

165
Q

Alexander Fleming

A

Discovered lysozyme and penicillin; awarded a Nobel Prize in 1945.

166
Q

Louis Pasteur

A

Demonstrated the chirality of molecules; verified the germ theory of disease; developed a method to prevent the spoilage of liquids through heating; played important roles in the development of anthrax and rabies vaccines.

167
Q

Robert Koch

A

Made advances in the isolation and culturing of micro-organisms; helped to identify the causative agents of anthrax, tuberculosis and cholera; played an important role in the development of epidemiology with his “postulates.

168
Q

Ferdinand Cohn

A

Created a system for classifying bacteria based on their morphology; demonstrated that a bacterium (Bacillus) can produce a very resistant cell (endospore) when subjected to stressful environmental conditions.

169
Q

Paul Ehrlich

A

Established the fields of immunology/hematology; developed an effective treatment for syphilis through careful screening of compounds; awarded a Nobel Prize in 1908.

170
Q

Martinus Beijernick

A

Established the field of virology (working with tobacco mosaic virus); discovered nitrogen fixation and (anaerobic) cell respiration in bacteria; made improvements in bacterial culture methods.

Microbiology 2125 (6 decks)

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