Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIOL 600 > Unit 4 > Flashcards

Unit 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Glycerol released during lipolysis is absorbed by the liver for use in which pathways

A

Glycolysis and Gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Fats stored in adipose tissue is used by the liver and other tissues for what?

A

making ketone bodies and conversion to acetyl CoA for the CAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Fatty acids are linked to glycerol with _________ linkages.

A

ester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Complete oxidation of palmitate yields _____ molecules of ATP

A

106

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Enzymes that digest the triacylglycerols into free fatty acids and monoacylglycerol are called what?

A

lipases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Acetyl CoA carboxylase is globally regulated by what?

A

phosphorylation and dephosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Intermediates from which pathways are utilized for fatty acid synthesis?

A

glycolysis, citric acid cycle, and pentose phosphate pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Activation of acetyl CoA results in the production of _________.

A

malonyl CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which two fatty acids were learned in class?

A

linolenate and linoleate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The carrier of an acyl chain through the synthetic protein complex is what?

A

ACP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Triacylglycerols are stored in _______ cells in animals

A

adipose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The hormones __________ stimulate lipolysis when energy reserves are low.

A

epinephrine and glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The brain uses __________ instead of glucose for its source of ATP production during long-term fasting.

A

ketone bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In diabetes, untreated, chronic ketone body production will _______ blood pH levels.

A

decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

β oxidation of odd-numbered fatty acids produces acetyl CoA and ________.

A

propionyl CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Fatty acid synthesis primarily takes place in the cellular location _________.

A

cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

_________ is the product of the committed step in fatty acid synthesis.

A

malonyl coA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Citrate serves as a signal for a high-energy state as it stimulates _________.

A

carboxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Double bonds are introduced into fatty acids in the __________ compartment of the cell.

A

endoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

NADPH-reducing equivalents important for the biosynthesis of fatty acids come from two sources. Explain.

A

The pentose phosphate pathway produces most NADPH but some NADPH is formed by the oxidation of oxaloacetate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In the urea cycle, the second nitrogen of urea enters the cycle in the form of which of the following metabolites?

A

aspartate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the urea cycle do?

A

removes excess NH4+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which amino acids can be directly deaminated to produce NH4+?

A

serine and threonine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In the urea cycle, free NH4+ is coupled with carboxyphosphate to form ________________.

A

carbamic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Ketogenic amino acids are degraded to which of the following metabolites?

A

acetyl CoA and acetoacetyl CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Organisms capable of carrying out reduction of atmospheric nitrogen include ____________.

A

some bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The carbon skeletons for amino acids are intermediates found in what?

A

Glycolysis, citric acid cycle, PPP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

nonessential amino acids

A

amino acids synthesized by humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

essential amino acids

A

amino acids that must be obtained from the diet because the body does not synthesize them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Transaminases use what as a coenzyme?

A

pyridoxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

3-Phosphoglycerate is the precursor for what?

A

Serine, Glycine, and Cysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Excess NH4+ is converted into urea by the _________

A

urea cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The hydrolysis of arginine by arginase produces ornithine and _________.

A

urea

34
Q

The urea cycle is linked to gluconeogenesis via formation of _________, a precursor of glucose synthesis.

A

fumarate

35
Q

Succinyl CoA is a point of entry into the citric acid cycle of __________.

A

nonpolar amino acids (isoleucine, methionine, and valine)

36
Q

___________ transfer amino groups from an amino acid to alpha-ketogluatarate.

A

Aminotransferases

37
Q

An amino acid that serves as a nitrogen source in the synthesis of amino acids from alpha-ketoacids is ___________.

A

glutamate

38
Q

The process of converting N2 to NH3 is called __________.

A

nitrogen fixation

39
Q

The final product pathway, which inhibits an enzyme that catalyzes its production typically, takes place at the ____________ step.

A

committed

40
Q

Glutamine synthetase is an example of ___________ inhibition

A

cumulative feedback

41
Q

___________ is a versatile nitrogen donor in the synthesis of a wide range of compounds

A

Glutamine

42
Q
  1. In bacteria the ______________ sequence is a purine rich region that is approximately 10 base pairs upstream of the start site and directs the protein synthesis machinery to the start site.
A

Shine-Dalgarno

43
Q

_________ is the initial amino acid in a bacterial protein

A

fmet

44
Q

___________ include IF1, IF2, and IF3 in prokaryotes and are required for the initiation of protein synthesis.

A

initiation factors

45
Q

G or translocase use the energy of ______ hydrolysis to move the mRNA by one codon in protein synthesis.

A

GTP

46
Q

In the ribosome, A stands for ________ and P stands for __________.

A

aminoacyl; peptidyl

47
Q

Proteins are synthesized from the _____ direction

A

amino to carboxyl

48
Q

Sixty percent of human genes are regulated by ___________.

A

micorRNAs

49
Q

Eukaryotic mRNA is _____________.

A

circular

50
Q

Peptide bond formation is ______________ and catalyzed by ________.

A

exergonic; 23S RNA

51
Q

Signals that define the beginning and end of protein synthesis are contained in ________.

A

mRNA

52
Q

What factor(s) is (are) necessary for the correct placement of the mRNA and initiating tRNA on the ribosome?

A

IF1, IF2, IF3

53
Q

Eukaryotic and prokaryotic translation differs primarily in which step?

A

Initiation

54
Q

What is the order of the tRNA binding sites on the 70S ribosome with respect to the 5′ → 3′ direction of the mRNA ?

A

EPA

55
Q

Elongation factor G is also called what?

A

translocase

56
Q

___________: A group of genes under the control of a single promoter.

A

Operon

57
Q

__________ is a required cofactor for RNA polymerase

A

Divalent cation

58
Q

DNA sequences that direct RNA polymerase to the initiation site are called _________.

A

promoters

59
Q

Expression of B-galactosidase requires the induction of an operon by removal of a(n) __________.

A

repressor

60
Q

Promoter sites in E. coli are located ___ and _____ nucleotides upstream of the start site.

A

-10, -35

61
Q

The first step of transcription in eukaryotes depends on the _________ subunit of RNA polymerase.

A

sigma

62
Q

Cis-acting elements that have no promoter activity but can stimulate the effectiveness of promoters are called ___________.

A

enhancers

63
Q

The enzyme that removes the acetyl group for a lysine of a histone is called __________.

A

histone deacetylase

64
Q

In eukaryotes, transcription is initiated by the binding of a transcription factor to the _________ box, which is located -24 and -32 bp upstream of the initiation site.

A

TATA

65
Q

The nuclear membrane is important in gene expression because it separates the processes of __________ from that of ____________.

A

transcription, translation

66
Q

Noncoding regions of RNA are called

A

intron RNA

67
Q

RNA polymerase I is responsible for the transcription of

A

rRNA

68
Q

What modifications are made to eukaryotic tRNA transcripts?

A

base and ribose moieties, an intron is removed by endonuclease, cleavage of 5’ leader by RNase P, nucleotides CCA are added

69
Q

5’ cap of mRNA

A

contains GTP in a 5’-5’ linkage and protects the mRNA

70
Q

Polypyrimidine tract

A

found at the 5’ end of a junction/3’ end of an intron and contains a stretch of 10 pyrimidines

71
Q

Spliceosome

A

made of snRNP w/ snRNA

72
Q

Thallasemia can occur when there are mutations in pre-RNA or splicing factors of

A

hemoglobin beta

73
Q

Ribozymes are _________.

A

RNA

74
Q

The carboxy-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II:

A

Binds factors needed for pre-mRNA capping, splicing, and polyadenylation

75
Q

A mutation in an enzyme that catalyzes a transesterification reaction would inhibit which of the following events?

A

mRNA splicing

76
Q

Nearly all mRNA precursors in higher eukaryotes are modified by __________.

A

splicing

77
Q

_________ catalyzes the synthesis of precursors for tRNA.

A

polymerase III

78
Q

Recognition of the 5′ splice site by __ is the first step in splicing.

A

U1 snRNA

79
Q

Self-splicing by RNA requires a _________ cofactor

A

guanosine

80
Q

The immediate product of RNA polymerase II is referred to as __________.

A

pre-RNA

81
Q

The _________ is the elongated sequence added to the 3′ end of mRNA

A

poly A tail

BIOL 600 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions