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Dental Nursing > Unit 313: Assessment of Oral Health and Treatment Planning > Flashcards

Unit 313: Assessment of Oral Health and Treatment Planning Flashcards

LO1: Understand the organisational and legal requirements which apply to the assessment of oral health and treatment planning LO2: Understand methods of oral heath assessment LO3: Know the structure and function of oral and dental anatomy in relation to patient assessment LO4: Understand how medical conditions and oral diseases inform treatment planning LO5: Know the classifications of drugs referred to in treatment planning LO6: Know how to respond to medical emergencies

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1
Q

Which type of dental probe is specifically used to detect interproximal caries?

A

Briault probe

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2
Q

What is the FDI notation of the lower left first deciduous molar?

A

74

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3
Q

Which radiograph is particularly useful when a posterior tooth is suspected to have recurrent caries?

A

Horizontal bitewing

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4
Q

Where in the mouth is squamous cell carcinoma most likely to be seen on?

A

Floor of the mouth

Underside and sides of the tongue

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5
Q

What term is used to describe tooth tissue loss caused by tooth grinding?

A

Attrition

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6
Q

What does a BPE score of 1 indicate?

A

Bleeding on probing

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7
Q

What assessment methods can be used to detect periodontal pockets?

A

Use of a BPE probe (WHO probe)

Use of a Williams probe

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8
Q

What material is used in a vitality test to stimulate a tooth to react to cold?

A

Ethyl chloride

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9
Q

Can tooth vitality be diagnosed by the use of dental radiographs?

A

No. This is diagnosed by tooth’s response to sensation, not it’s appearance on a radiograph.`

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10
Q

What does ‘grade III mobile’ indicate?

A

Vertical tooth movement

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11
Q

What does ‘grade I mobile’ indicate?

A

Side-to-side movement less than 2mm

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12
Q

What does a BPE score of 2 indicate?

A

Plaque retention factors present e.g. calculus or overhangs

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13
Q

What does a * on a BPE chart indicate?

A

Furcation involvement

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14
Q

What does a BPE score of 3 indicate?

A

Pocket depth up to 5.5mm

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15
Q

If pocket depth exceeds 5.5mm, what BPE score would be used?

A

Score 4

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16
Q

What material is used to take impressions for study models?

A

Alginate

Made of calcium and alginate salts mixed with water

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17
Q

Which tooth is charted as 42 in the FDI charting system?

A

Lower right permanent lateral incisor

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18
Q

What is the main disadvantage to patients during vitality testing?

A

All tests involve a painful stimulus

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19
Q

Which term describes the type of tooth tissue loss caused by an excessive intake of dietary acids?

A

Erosion

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20
Q

Patient records for a child who has left the practice need to be kept for how long legally?

A

Until they are 25 years of age or for 11 years (whichever is longer)

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21
Q

What is the term used to describe the quality assurance process in place to standardise NHS record-keeping and confidentiality issues?

A

Information governance

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22
Q

Name three requirements for valid consent

A

Informed
Voluntary
From a person deemed capable

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23
Q

Does consent always need to be agreed in writing?

A

No. Verbal consent may be given for minimal treatment such as an oral health assessment or a scale and polish.

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24
Q

Give a valid reason to disclose patient information to a third party without the patient’s consent

A

Unpaid dental charges (details given to debt collector)

Requested by court order (police and criminal evidence act)

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25
Q

How long does a dental practice have to respond to a complaint from a patient?

A

Acknowledge within 3 days

Report back within 10 days

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26
Q

What requirements must be met before a patient is given access to their health records?

A

Written request

Released by record holder (usually dentist)

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27
Q

What term describes the horizontal distance between the upper and lower incisors?

A

Overjet

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28
Q

What term describes the vertical overlap between the upper and lower incisors?

A

Overbite

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29
Q

A teenage patient requires orthodontic treatment for severe crowding in both arches. Which radiograph is required before treatment begins?

A

DPT/OPG

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30
Q

What does Angle’s class II division I indicate?

A

Increased overjet, likely due to proclined upper incisors

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31
Q

What type of orthodontic device specifically uses the oral musculature to allow controlled movement of the mandible?

A

Functional appliance

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32
Q

Angle’s class I is referred to as ideal occlusion. What are the overjet and overbite measurements?

A

Overjet 2-4mm

Overbite 50%

33
Q

When a patient has been accepted for orthodontic treatment, what preoperative advice must be given to ALL patients?

A

Need for impression

Need pre- and post-treatment study models for all orthodontic treatments as a record of treatment result

34
Q

What is the most severe form of malocclusion?

IOTN 3a, 3d, 5a or 5d

A

5a
Higher number is more severe
Closer to ‘a’ is more severe

35
Q

Which is often the most difficult tooth movement to achieve which usually requires a fixed appliance?

A

Tooth derotation

36
Q

What is a common retention factor of removable appliances?

A

Adams crib

37
Q

Which oral health product should be recommended to a patient who has had a fixed orthodontic appliance fitted to assist with cleaning beneath the archwire?

A

Interdental brushes

38
Q

Which are the most likely teeth to be crowded out of the upper arch?

A

Canines
Usually last to erupt (except 2nd and 3rd molars)
On the ‘corners’ of the arch

39
Q

What does class III malocclusion indicate?

A

Reverse overjet (underbite)

40
Q

Which oral health product should be recommended to fixed orthodontic patients specifically to reduce the likelihood of enamel decalcification during treatment?

A

Fluoride mouthwash

High fluoride toothpaste

41
Q

What classification is indicated when the mesiobuccal cusp of the upper first molar lies behind the buccal groove of the lower first molar?

A

Class III

42
Q

Which item is required to tighten a removable appliance?

A

Adams pliers

43
Q

What material is normally used to construct palatal finger springs that will be incorporated into a removable orthodontic appliance?

A

Stainless steel

44
Q

What type of microorganism is associated with periodontitis?

A

Bacteria

45
Q

Which disease of the oral mucosa is described as the presence of several small, shallow, painful ulcers that heal to leave no scarring?

A

Minor aphthous ulceration

46
Q

Which soft-tissue disease is most likely to occur after a patient has taken a long course of broad-spectrum antibiotics?

A

Oral candidiasis

Fungal infection takes advantage of reduced bacteria in the mouth

47
Q

A patient presenting with an inflamed tongue that appears smooth and red may have what deficiency?

A

Iron or vitamin B

Condition described is glossitis

48
Q

Which suffix indicates an inflammatory condition?

A

‘-itis’

49
Q

Which age group may experience decreased tooth sensitivity?

A

Older patients

Pulp chambers narrow with age

50
Q

Which term describes the dental specialism of managing the specific oral health care if elderly patients?

A

Gerodontics

51
Q

Which patients often experience poor wound healing due to their medical condition?

A

Type 2 diabetics

52
Q

Which one of the oral tissues is most likely to be affected by osteoporosis during old age?

A

Bone

53
Q

Which disease of the oral mucosa is described as an immovable white patch that has no obvious cause?

A

Leukoplakia

54
Q

Which oral condition may be seen in patients who suffer from gastric reflux?

A

Stomach acid causes enamel erosion overtime

55
Q

Which oral disease can be seen as a painless ulcer with no obvious cause which fails to fully heal within three weeks of dental intervention?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

56
Q

Which inflammatory disorder is often determined as being psychogenic in origin?

A

Burning mouth syndrome

57
Q

In which age groups are periapical abscesses more likely to occur?

A

Elderly and children

Most likely to have gross caries or undergo trauma

58
Q

Which oral lesion is not usually found in patients which suffer from coeliac disease?

A

Xerostomia

Do not experience dry mouth

59
Q

Which virus is responsible for ‘cold sore’ lesions?

A

Herpes labialis

60
Q

What type of tooth tissue loss is associated with bulimia?

A

Erosion

61
Q

What are the signs that a casualty is suffering an asthma attack?

A

Breathless, cyanosis, wheezing on expiration

62
Q

What is the current correct ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths that must be carried out during CPR?

A

30:2

63
Q

What are the signs a rescuer is likely to see if a faint has occurred?

A

Pale, clammy skin

Weak, thready pulse

64
Q

Name the signs which are likely to be seen if an adult casualty is choking

A

Gasping action
Inability to speak
Laboured breathing

65
Q

Which medical emergency drug would be administered to assist a casualty suffering an anaphylactic reaction?

A

Adrenaline e.g. EpiPen

IM (intramuscular) injection

66
Q

When should an AED be used?

A

When the heart is in ventricular or atrial fibrillation (beating in an uncoordinated rhythm)

67
Q

What does the acronym ‘ACVPU’ stand for?

A 
Alert
Confused
Verbal response
Pain response
Unconscious
68
Q

What is the difference between signs and symptoms?

A

Signs can be seen e.g. redness, swelling, paleness

Symptoms can be felt e.g. pain, nausea, dizziness

69
Q

What is the first action to take with a choking casualty?

A

Encourage them to cough

70
Q

Describe the actions to be taken if a choking casualty cannot cough up the blockage

A 
5 back slaps
5 abdominal thrusts
Repeat until blockage is dislodged
Call 999 after 3 repetitions
If the casualty collapses, perform basic life support (CPR)
71
Q

What are the signs of a cardiac arrest?

A

Grey pallor
No pulse
No chest movements

72
Q

Which medical emergency may require Midazolam to be administered?

A

Epileptic fit

73
Q

Under normal circumstances, what is the most likely cause of a cardiac arrest in a baby?

A

Airway obstruction

74
Q

Which blood vessel may become compressed in a heavily pregnant woman if resuscitation attempts are carried out with the casualty lying on her back, rather than tilted to the left?

A

Inferior vena cava

75
Q

What are the signs of severe hypoglycaemia?

A

Trembling, drowsy, slurred speech, sweating

76
Q

Which medical emergency drug should be administered as two sprays sublingually?

A

Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)

77
Q

What is the major difference between resuscitation attempts in a young child and an adult?

A

5 rescue breaths before starting compressions

78
Q

What action should be taken by a rescuer to aid a conscious casualty who is suffering a severe angina attack?

A

Sit the casualty upright (laying down will worsen the crushing the feeling in their chest)

79
Q

What are the signs of an anaphylactic reaction e.g. to latex?

A

Facial swelling, rash, gasping

Dental Nursing (4 decks)

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