Unit 313: Assessment of Oral Health and Treatment Planning Flashcards
LO1: Understand the organisational and legal requirements which apply to the assessment of oral health and treatment planning LO2: Understand methods of oral heath assessment LO3: Know the structure and function of oral and dental anatomy in relation to patient assessment LO4: Understand how medical conditions and oral diseases inform treatment planning LO5: Know the classifications of drugs referred to in treatment planning LO6: Know how to respond to medical emergencies
Which type of dental probe is specifically used to detect interproximal caries?
Briault probe
What is the FDI notation of the lower left first deciduous molar?
74
Which radiograph is particularly useful when a posterior tooth is suspected to have recurrent caries?
Horizontal bitewing
Where in the mouth is squamous cell carcinoma most likely to be seen on?
Floor of the mouth
Underside and sides of the tongue
What term is used to describe tooth tissue loss caused by tooth grinding?
Attrition
What does a BPE score of 1 indicate?
Bleeding on probing
What assessment methods can be used to detect periodontal pockets?
Use of a BPE probe (WHO probe)
Use of a Williams probe
What material is used in a vitality test to stimulate a tooth to react to cold?
Ethyl chloride
Can tooth vitality be diagnosed by the use of dental radiographs?
No. This is diagnosed by tooth’s response to sensation, not it’s appearance on a radiograph.`
What does ‘grade III mobile’ indicate?
Vertical tooth movement
What does ‘grade I mobile’ indicate?
Side-to-side movement less than 2mm
What does a BPE score of 2 indicate?
Plaque retention factors present e.g. calculus or overhangs
What does a * on a BPE chart indicate?
Furcation involvement
What does a BPE score of 3 indicate?
Pocket depth up to 5.5mm
If pocket depth exceeds 5.5mm, what BPE score would be used?
Score 4
What material is used to take impressions for study models?
Alginate
Made of calcium and alginate salts mixed with water
Which tooth is charted as 42 in the FDI charting system?
Lower right permanent lateral incisor
What is the main disadvantage to patients during vitality testing?
All tests involve a painful stimulus
Which term describes the type of tooth tissue loss caused by an excessive intake of dietary acids?
Erosion
Patient records for a child who has left the practice need to be kept for how long legally?
Until they are 25 years of age or for 11 years (whichever is longer)
What is the term used to describe the quality assurance process in place to standardise NHS record-keeping and confidentiality issues?
Information governance
Name three requirements for valid consent
Informed
Voluntary
From a person deemed capable
Does consent always need to be agreed in writing?
No. Verbal consent may be given for minimal treatment such as an oral health assessment or a scale and polish.
Give a valid reason to disclose patient information to a third party without the patient’s consent
Unpaid dental charges (details given to debt collector)
Requested by court order (police and criminal evidence act)
How long does a dental practice have to respond to a complaint from a patient?
Acknowledge within 3 days
Report back within 10 days
What requirements must be met before a patient is given access to their health records?
Written request
Released by record holder (usually dentist)
What term describes the horizontal distance between the upper and lower incisors?
Overjet
What term describes the vertical overlap between the upper and lower incisors?
Overbite
A teenage patient requires orthodontic treatment for severe crowding in both arches. Which radiograph is required before treatment begins?
DPT/OPG
What does Angle’s class II division I indicate?
Increased overjet, likely due to proclined upper incisors
What type of orthodontic device specifically uses the oral musculature to allow controlled movement of the mandible?
Functional appliance
Angle’s class I is referred to as ideal occlusion. What are the overjet and overbite measurements?
Overjet 2-4mm
Overbite 50%
When a patient has been accepted for orthodontic treatment, what preoperative advice must be given to ALL patients?
Need for impression
Need pre- and post-treatment study models for all orthodontic treatments as a record of treatment result
What is the most severe form of malocclusion?
IOTN 3a, 3d, 5a or 5d
5a
Higher number is more severe
Closer to ‘a’ is more severe
Which is often the most difficult tooth movement to achieve which usually requires a fixed appliance?
Tooth derotation
What is a common retention factor of removable appliances?
Adams crib
Which oral health product should be recommended to a patient who has had a fixed orthodontic appliance fitted to assist with cleaning beneath the archwire?
Interdental brushes
Which are the most likely teeth to be crowded out of the upper arch?
Canines
Usually last to erupt (except 2nd and 3rd molars)
On the ‘corners’ of the arch
What does class III malocclusion indicate?
Reverse overjet (underbite)
Which oral health product should be recommended to fixed orthodontic patients specifically to reduce the likelihood of enamel decalcification during treatment?
Fluoride mouthwash
High fluoride toothpaste
What classification is indicated when the mesiobuccal cusp of the upper first molar lies behind the buccal groove of the lower first molar?
Class III
Which item is required to tighten a removable appliance?
Adams pliers
What material is normally used to construct palatal finger springs that will be incorporated into a removable orthodontic appliance?
Stainless steel
What type of microorganism is associated with periodontitis?
Bacteria
Which disease of the oral mucosa is described as the presence of several small, shallow, painful ulcers that heal to leave no scarring?
Minor aphthous ulceration
Which soft-tissue disease is most likely to occur after a patient has taken a long course of broad-spectrum antibiotics?
Oral candidiasis
Fungal infection takes advantage of reduced bacteria in the mouth
A patient presenting with an inflamed tongue that appears smooth and red may have what deficiency?
Iron or vitamin B
Condition described is glossitis
Which suffix indicates an inflammatory condition?
‘-itis’
Which age group may experience decreased tooth sensitivity?
Older patients
Pulp chambers narrow with age
Which term describes the dental specialism of managing the specific oral health care if elderly patients?
Gerodontics
Which patients often experience poor wound healing due to their medical condition?
Type 2 diabetics
Which one of the oral tissues is most likely to be affected by osteoporosis during old age?
Bone
Which disease of the oral mucosa is described as an immovable white patch that has no obvious cause?
Leukoplakia
Which oral condition may be seen in patients who suffer from gastric reflux?
Stomach acid causes enamel erosion overtime
Which oral disease can be seen as a painless ulcer with no obvious cause which fails to fully heal within three weeks of dental intervention?
Squamous cell carcinoma
Which inflammatory disorder is often determined as being psychogenic in origin?
Burning mouth syndrome
In which age groups are periapical abscesses more likely to occur?
Elderly and children
Most likely to have gross caries or undergo trauma
Which oral lesion is not usually found in patients which suffer from coeliac disease?
Xerostomia
Do not experience dry mouth
Which virus is responsible for ‘cold sore’ lesions?
Herpes labialis
What type of tooth tissue loss is associated with bulimia?
Erosion
What are the signs that a casualty is suffering an asthma attack?
Breathless, cyanosis, wheezing on expiration
What is the current correct ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths that must be carried out during CPR?
30:2
What are the signs a rescuer is likely to see if a faint has occurred?
Pale, clammy skin
Weak, thready pulse
Name the signs which are likely to be seen if an adult casualty is choking
Gasping action
Inability to speak
Laboured breathing
Which medical emergency drug would be administered to assist a casualty suffering an anaphylactic reaction?
Adrenaline e.g. EpiPen
IM (intramuscular) injection
When should an AED be used?
When the heart is in ventricular or atrial fibrillation (beating in an uncoordinated rhythm)
What does the acronym ‘ACVPU’ stand for?
Alert Confused Verbal response Pain response Unconscious
What is the difference between signs and symptoms?
Signs can be seen e.g. redness, swelling, paleness
Symptoms can be felt e.g. pain, nausea, dizziness
What is the first action to take with a choking casualty?
Encourage them to cough
Describe the actions to be taken if a choking casualty cannot cough up the blockage
5 back slaps 5 abdominal thrusts Repeat until blockage is dislodged Call 999 after 3 repetitions If the casualty collapses, perform basic life support (CPR)
What are the signs of a cardiac arrest?
Grey pallor
No pulse
No chest movements
Which medical emergency may require Midazolam to be administered?
Epileptic fit
Under normal circumstances, what is the most likely cause of a cardiac arrest in a baby?
Airway obstruction
Which blood vessel may become compressed in a heavily pregnant woman if resuscitation attempts are carried out with the casualty lying on her back, rather than tilted to the left?
Inferior vena cava
What are the signs of severe hypoglycaemia?
Trembling, drowsy, slurred speech, sweating
Which medical emergency drug should be administered as two sprays sublingually?
Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)
What is the major difference between resuscitation attempts in a young child and an adult?
5 rescue breaths before starting compressions
What action should be taken by a rescuer to aid a conscious casualty who is suffering a severe angina attack?
Sit the casualty upright (laying down will worsen the crushing the feeling in their chest)
What are the signs of an anaphylactic reaction e.g. to latex?
Facial swelling, rash, gasping
