Unit 305: Principles of Infection Control in the Dental Environment Flashcards

LO1: Understand the process of infection control LO2: Understand the significance of microorganisms LO3: Understand the management of infectious conditions affecting dental patients LO4: Know the various methods of decontamination LO5: Understand the relevant health and safety legislation, policies and guidelines

1
Q

Which level of hand hygiene aims to physically remove routinely acquired microorganisms?

A

Social

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which method of cross-infection is the least likely in a well-organised environment?

A

Inoculation injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the correct term to describe a person who s infected with a pathogenic microorganism but who shows no outward signs of disease?

A

Carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the term used when only bacteria and fungi have been destroyed by the cleaning method involved?

A

Disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What method is used to remove potential aerosol and droplet contamination between dental procedures?

A

Surface cleaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What method prevents cross infection from staff to patients?

A

Handwashing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What method is used to prevent contamination of equipment which cannot be sterilised in the usual way?

A

Barriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What assumption forms the basic principle of ‘standard (universal) precautions’?

A

Any patient may be infected with a pathogen at any time

Healthy carriers cannot be identified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What term describes items which have undergone a process to remove physical contamination so that they can be rendered safe for reuse?

A

Decontaminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which item of PPE is most important in preventing cross infection by aerosol spray?

A

Mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most likely route of transmission from a patient when a member of staff has an uncovered wound on their finger?

A

Direct entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which level of hand hygiene aims to significantly reduce the numbers of normally resident microorganisms on the hands?

A

Surgical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What term is used to describe items when all pathogenic microorganisms and spores have been destroyed by the cleaning method involved?

A

Sterilised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What method involves physically separating dirty instruments from clean ones during a dental procedure?

A

Zoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why are sealed pouches used to store instruments in the clinical area of the dental workplace?

A

To avoid aerosol contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which chemical is used for routine cleaning of work surfaces in the clinical area between patients and for use as an impression disinfectant?

A

Sodium hypochlorite (bleach)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which item is used to sterilise instruments and render them safe for reuse?

A

Autoclave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which technique is best for preventing the occurrence of indirect cross-infection incidents from patient to patient?

A

Use of single-use disposables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which chemical should be used to clean away a blood or body fluid spillage?

A

Sodium hypochlorite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why do we no longer use metal brushes while manually cleaning instruments?

A

Creates micro-scratches on instrument surface which harbour microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the correct sequence of events to be followed during the decontamination of instruments before sterilisation is carried out?

A

Debride, inspect, rinse and scrub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which infectious agent is present as protein capsules living within other body cells?

A

Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are antibiotics?

A

Drugs taken to fight bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which bacteria are rod-shaped and associated with established carious cavities in teeth?

A

Lactobacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which infectious agent is not classed as a microorganism?

A

Prions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which route of transmission if most likely to be involved if a person infected with the common cold is sneezing regularly?

A

Airbourne droplets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which tissues does Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease affect?

A

Nervous (nerves and brain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a pathogen?

A

A disease causing microorganism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a non-pathogen?

A

A microorganism which does not cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which infectious agent is found as single-cell organisms that can exist in unfavourable environments as spores?

A

Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which three disease are associated with a fungal infection of Candida albicans?

A

Denture stomatitis, oral thrush and angular cheilitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which route of infection is most likely to result in an infection?

A

Inoculation injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the five signs and symptoms of an inflammatory response?

A

Redness, swelling, pain, heat and loss of function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which virus affects the human immune system and may result in acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)?

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What group of drugs is available for use against an infection caused by a bacterial microorganism?

A

Antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What type of bacteria is spiral shaped and is associated with an ulcerative periodontal infection?

A

Treponema vinceti (also Borellia vincenti)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which route of transmission is especially likely in the dental workplace due to the use of the high speed handpiece?

A

Aerosol spray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How is hepatitis B mainly transmitted?

A

Through the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which infectious agent is found as microscopic plant-like organisms that reproduce by budding or by producing spores?

A

Fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which bacteria is round-shaped and associated with initial dental caries?

A

Streptococcus mutans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What causes a cold sore lesion?

A

It is a secondary infection after contracting the herpes simplex virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which disease must all dental professionals be vaccinated against?

A

Hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which infectious condition is most likely to infect a member of the dental team during normal chairside work?

A

Cold sore lesion

44
Q

Which infection control measure is most likely to reduce cross infection from staff to patients?

A

Handwashing

45
Q

What is produced during the immune response to neutralise the poisons from the microorganisms?

A

Antitoxins

46
Q

Which disease presents as a swelling of the parotid salivary glands, usually in children and young adults?

A

Mumps

47
Q

Which is more infective, HIV or hepatitis B?

A

Hepatitis B

48
Q

Which type of immunity arises after immunisation?

A

Acquired immunity

49
Q

Which infectious disease affecting the head and neck region is usually caused by the Epstein-Barr virus?

A

Glandular fever

50
Q

What is released by the immune system to fight invaders following secondary exposure to an infectious disease?

A

Antibodies

51
Q

What infection presents as generalised stomatitis with many shallow painful ulcers present and which takes up to 14 days to resolve?

A

Primary herpes simplex

52
Q

How long should handwashing using antibacterial soap and a clinical handwashing technique take?

A

30 seconds

53
Q

What type of immunity may be passed from mother to child?

A

Passive immunity

54
Q

Why are all endodontic files single use?

A

The prevent the transfer of prions (such as those which cause CJD) from one patient to another

55
Q

What type of immunity arises randomly from genetic inheritance or mutation?

A

Natural immunity

56
Q

What precautions should be followed to ensure that dental staff and patients are not exposed to blood-borne viral diseases in the dental workplace?

A

Follow standard (universal) precautions

57
Q

What process is used to kill microorganisms and spores to produce asepsis?

A

Sterilisation

58
Q

How long can pouched items be stored before they need to be sterilised again?

A

1 year in any area

59
Q

What date must be clearly visible on all pouched items?

A

Expiry date, one year from date pouched

60
Q

What is the most likely cause for an ultrasonic bath to fail in debriding items?

A

Overloaded chamber

61
Q

Which instrument cleaning method is the most difficult to validate?

A

Manual cleaning

62
Q

How many stages are there in a washer-disinfector cycle?

A

5

63
Q

List the five stages of the washer-disinfector cycle in order.

A

Flush, wash, rinse, thermal disinfection and drying.

64
Q

What is the purpose of a Helix test?

A

To ensure steam penetration occurs

65
Q

What is the term used to describe the separation of clean and contaminated areas in the clinical environment to avoid cross-infection?

A

Zoning

66
Q

What does ‘TST’ stand for?

A

Time, steam and temperature

67
Q

What chemical should not be used to disinfect metallic surfaces in the clinical environment?

A

Sodium hypochlorite (it is corrosive to metals)

68
Q

Name 3 common techniques for industrial or large-scale sterilisation.

A

S-type autoclave
Ethylene gas exposure
Gamma irradiation

69
Q

What direction should air flow within the decontamination room?

A

Clean to dirty (pouching area to instrument wash sink)

70
Q

What is isopropyl alcohol commonly used for?

A

To wipe X-ray film packets

Alcohol hand rub

71
Q

How does an N-type autoclave operate differently to a B-type autoclave?

A

Steam is displaced downwards in the chamber

72
Q

How does a B-type autoclave operate differently to an N-type autoclave?

A

Use of a vacuum

73
Q

Name 3 methods to remove debris before sterilisation

A

Manual cleaning
Ultrasonic bath
Washer-disinfector

74
Q

What is the term for the killing or inhibiting the growth of bacteria and fungi?

A

Disinfection

75
Q

Why are lidded boxes used to transport dirty instruments to the decontamination room?

A

Prevents contamination of the route, especially by dripping fluids.

76
Q

What chemical decontaminant is found in skin cleansing products for use in the clinical area?

A

Chlorhexidine

77
Q

What term describes cleaning agents which kill bacteria?

A

Bactericidal

78
Q

What term describes cleaning agents which inhibit the growth of bacteria?

A

Bacteriostatic

79
Q

What term describes cleaning agents which kill viruses>

A

Viricidal

80
Q

What does the term ‘decontaminant’ mean when in reference to cleaning agents?

A

Decontaminants remove debris from contaminated items and sites

81
Q

What type of items are not suitable for sterilisation in an N-type autoclave due to the downward displacement of steam?

A

Hollow items

82
Q

What does COSHH stand for?

A

Control of Substances Hazardous to Health

83
Q

Which legislation is concerned with the risk assessment of chemicals?

A

COSHH

84
Q

Who is protected when PPE is worn correctly?

A

Staff are protected from being infected by patients

85
Q

Who is protected by proper handwashing techniques?

A

Patients are protected from being infected by staff

86
Q

Who is protected through the use of single-use disposables?

A

Patients are protected from being infected by other patients (indirect cross-infection)

87
Q

Name the first stage of the risk assessment process

A

Identify the risk

88
Q

List the 6 stages of the risk assessment process in order

A
  1. Identify the risk
  2. Identify who is at risk
  3. Evaluate the risk
  4. Control the risk
  5. Record findings and control measures
  6. Review after a suitable period
89
Q

List the steps to follow immediately after a sharps/inoculation injury

A
Stop what you are doing.
Remove gloves.
Squeeze to encourage bleeding.
Wash under clean running water.
Dry and apply a waterproof dressing.
Report and record in the accident book.
If dirty sharps, immediately go to occupational health department for assessment and treatment.
90
Q

What type of waste would out-of-date luting cements be classified as?

A

Non-hazardous waste (which is by definition also non-infectious)

91
Q

List the four stages of decontamination in order

A

Cleaning
Inspection
Disinfection
Sterilisation

92
Q

What type of waste are lead foils (found in x-ray film packets) classified as?

A

Non-hazardous waste (solid lead is no longer considered hazardous so does not need to classed as special waste)

93
Q

Which item in the decontamination room should undergo a protein residue test on a weekly basis?

A

Ultrasonic bath

94
Q

Which step in the risk assessment is concerned with the likelihood of harm?

A

Evaluate the risk

95
Q

Why are powdered gloves considered the least suitable in the clinical environment?

A

Powder may produce hypersensitivity reactions.

Powder will absorb excess moisture remaining on the hands if not thoroughly dried.

96
Q

What temperature do autoclaves sterilise at?

A

134 degrees Celsius

97
Q

What pressure do N-type autoclaves reach?

A

2.2 bar or 32 psi

98
Q

How long must the autoclave hold the time and pressure in order to achieve sterilisation?

A

3 minutes minimum

99
Q

Which regulation or legislation is concerned with the consequences following an explosion of the autoclave?

A

RIDDOR

100
Q

What type of waste is a sound extracted tooth?

A

Infectious waste (sharps)

101
Q

Why are heavy-duty gloves worn when handling contaminated instruments in the decontamination room?

A

To avoid the possibility of a sharps injury

102
Q

How long may un-pouched items be stored in a clinical area?

A

1 day

103
Q

How long may un-pouched items be stored in a non-clinical area?

A

1 week

104
Q

What maintenance action should be carried out each week for an autoclave?

A

Check door seal

105
Q

What pathogen may be found in dental water lines?

A

Legionella (which causes Legionnaire’s disease)

106
Q

Which regulation or legislation states that Legionnaire’s disease is a notifiable occurrence in the dental workplace?

A

RIDDOR